A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to a 24-hour history of high fever, severe headache, photophobia, and nausea. Two months ago, he was evaluated for severe fatigue, episodic dark morning urine, and a recent hepatic vein thrombosis. At that time, flow cytometry of his peripheral blood demonstrated an absence of glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)-anchored proteins, specifically CD55 and CD59, on the surface of his erythrocytes. He was subsequently started on a targeted monoclonal antibody therapy. Today, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination reveals marked nuchal rigidity and a purpuric rash on the lower extremities. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis reveals a markedly elevated leukocyte count with a neutrophilic predominance, and Gram stain demonstrates intracellular Gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following best describes the immunologic mechanism of the patient's pharmacotherapy that directly led to his current presentation?
- Blockade of C5 cleavage, preventing the assembly of the terminal membrane attack complexAnswer
- BWidespread consumption of early classical complement proteins, impairing bacterial opsonization
- CDepletion of CD20-positive B-lymphocytes, resulting in a profound secondary hypogammaglobulinemia
- DDisruption of alpha-4 integrin-mediated leukocyte transmigration across the blood-brain barrier
- EInhibition of hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes, causing rapid clearance of prophylactic antibiotics