A 74-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her son due to the sudden onset of agonizing abdominal pain that started two hours ago. She has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She stopped taking her prescribed apixaban three weeks ago due to financial difficulties. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is and irregularly irregular, and respiratory rate is . She appears in extreme distress, continuously writhing and unable to find a comfortable position on the stretcher. Abdominal examination reveals a flat, non-distended contour. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. The abdomen is completely soft and exhibits only mild, diffuse tenderness to deep palpation. There is absolutely no guarding, rigidity, rebound tenderness, or palpable organomegaly. Digital rectal examination shows normal sphincter tone and brown, Guaiac-negative stool. Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate level of (normal: ). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis given the striking disparity between this patient's subjective symptoms and her objective physical examination findings?
- Embolic occlusion of the superior mesenteric arteryAnswer
- BSpontaneous perforation of a duodenal ulcer
- CAcute inflammation of a colonic diverticulum
- DRupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm
- ETransient systemic hypoperfusion secondary to tachyarrhythmia