A -year-old man comes to the clinic to review the results of a recent imaging study. Two weeks ago, he was evaluated in the emergency department for severe left-sided flank pain radiating to the groin. A non-contrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis demonstrated a -mm left ureteral calculus, which he subsequently passed. The CT scan also incidentally revealed a -cm right adrenal nodule. The nodule is well-circumscribed and homogeneous, with an unenhanced attenuation of Hounsfield units. The patient has no history of malignancy and reports feeling well since passing the stone. Medical history is significant for hypertension and osteoarthritis. His medications include lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and occasional ibuprofen. Blood pressure is mm Hg, pulse is /min, and body mass index is kg/m . Physical examination is unremarkable, with no supraclavicular fat pads, abdominal striae, or skin thinning. Serum potassium was mEq/L in the emergency department.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in laboratory evaluation?
- 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, plasma free metanephrines, and plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratioAnswer
- B1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test and plasma free metanephrines
- CMorning serum cortisol, plasma adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), and plasma free metanephrines
- D24-hour urine collection for fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines
- EPlasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio