A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with acute-onset left leg pain and swelling. Compression ultrasonography reveals an acute proximal deep venous thrombosis in the left popliteal and femoral veins. She has no significant past medical history, takes no medications, and has no recent surgeries or periods of immobilization. Her mother experienced a pulmonary embolism at age 40. The patient is immediately started on a therapeutic low-molecular-weight heparin bridge to warfarin. Given the unprovoked nature of the deep venous thrombosis and her family history, an evaluation for inherited thrombophilia is planned by the primary team. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to ordering laboratory tests for this patient's hypercoagulability evaluation?
- Assess Factor V Leiden and Prothrombin G20210A mutations now; measure Antithrombin, Protein C, and Protein S activity levels 2 to 4 weeks after completion of anticoagulation therapy.Answer
- BOrder a comprehensive thrombophilia panel (including genetic testing and natural anticoagulant activity) immediately to establish a baseline prior to the initiation of warfarin.
- CDefer all thrombophilia laboratory evaluations, including molecular genetic testing, until the patient has completed her initial course of anticoagulation therapy.
- DMeasure Antithrombin, Protein C, and Protein S activity levels now; defer genetic mutation analysis until the acute inflammatory phase of the thrombosis has completely resolved.
- EObtain a quantitative D-dimer level now to assess ongoing clot burden; if markedly elevated, proceed with immediate comprehensive hypercoagulability testing.