A 46-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit regarding poorly controlled hypertension. Over the past 4 months, his blood pressure has consistently been in the 160s/100s mmHg despite adherence to maximum doses of amlodipine and lisinopril. He reports new-onset generalized muscle weakness, fatigue, and frequent urination. His medical history is significant for chronic dyspepsia, for which he recently began consuming large quantities of a European herbal black candy. He does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is mmHg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination reveals no edema, normal secondary sexual characteristics, and no striae or easy bruising.
Laboratory studies show:
Serum sodium: 146 mEq/L
Serum potassium: 2.5 mEq/L
Serum chloride: 101 mEq/L
Serum bicarbonate: 32 mEq/L
Plasma renin activity: 0.1 ng/mL/hr (normal: 0.6-4.3 ng/mL/hr)
Plasma aldosterone: 1.2 ng/dL (normal: 3.0-30.0 ng/dL)
Morning serum cortisol: 16 g/dL (normal: 5-23 g/dL)
Which of the following best describes the specific molecular mechanism responsible for this patient's clinical and laboratory presentation?
- Inhibition of the intracellular conversion of cortisol to its inactive metabolite in the distal nephronAnswer
- BConstitutive activation of the amiloride-sensitive epithelial sodium channel in the collecting duct
- CDecreased activity of a cytochrome P450 enzyme resulting in the accumulation of 11-deoxycorticosterone
- DEctopic paraneoplastic production of a peptide hormone that directly stimulates the zona fasciculata
- EPharmacologic induction of hepatic enzymes accelerating the clearance of antihypertensive medications