A -year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance due to sudden-onset, severe, tearing chest pain radiating to his interscapular region. The pain began minutes ago while he was watching television. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, erectile dysfunction, and severe persistent asthma. He was hospitalized two weeks ago for status asthmaticus. His current home medications include amlodipine, atorvastatin, sildenafil as needed, a fluticasone-salmeterol inhaler, and an albuterol rescue inhaler.
On physical examination, the patient appears diaphoretic and in severe distress. Blood pressure is mmHg in the right arm and mmHg in the left arm. Heart rate is beats/min, respiratory rate is breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is on room air. Pulmonary auscultation reveals diffuse bilateral expiratory wheezing.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium: mEq/L
Potassium: mEq/L
Chloride: mEq/L
Calcium: mg/dL
Albumin: g/dL
Creatinine: mg/dL
Troponin I: ng/mL (Normal: ng/mL)
A computed tomography (CT) angiography of the chest demonstrates an intimal flap in the descending thoracic aorta, distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic intervention for this patient?
- AIntravenous labetalol
- BIntravenous nitroglycerin
- Intravenous diltiazemAnswer
- DOral metoprolol
- EIntravenous calcium gluconate