A 34-year-old woman comes to the clinic to discuss contraception. She is entering a new relationship and requests a prescription for a combined oral contraceptive pill. Her medical history is notable for an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis in her right lower extremity 3 years ago, for which she completed a 6-month course of rivaroxaban. She currently takes no medications and does not smoke. The physician informs the patient that estrogen-containing contraceptives are medically contraindicated due to her history. The patient becomes frustrated and states, "I was on the pill for 10 years before my blood clot without any problems, and I know my own body. I am willing to accept the risk of another clot. It is my body and my choice, so please just write the prescription." Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the physician?
- ASince you are an adult capable of understanding the risks, I can prescribe it, but you must sign a document stating that you are refusing my medical advice.
- BYour willingness to accept a potentially fatal risk suggests you may not appreciate the severity of this issue; I will need to formally assess your decision-making capacity first.
- I hear that you feel comfortable with the pill based on your past experience, but because of your history, it is medically unsafe for me to prescribe it. Let's discuss highly effective alternatives.Answer
- DI can prescribe the medication, but we will need to order monthly venous duplex ultrasounds to screen for early signs of a recurrent clot.
- EIf I prescribe this, you must avoid any medications that inhibit the cytochrome P450 system, as this would dangerously increase the estrogen levels in your blood.