A -year-old man is evaluated on the cardiology floor prior to hospital discharge. Two days ago, he was admitted for a non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). He subsequently underwent coronary angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention with the placement of a drug-eluting stent in the right coronary artery. His past medical history includes hypertension, type diabetes mellitus, and osteoarthritis. His home medications, which included lisinopril, metformin, and ibuprofen, were temporarily held on admission. Echocardiography performed yesterday shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of . Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure mmHg, and pulse /min. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine of mg/dL. Which of the following pharmacologic interventions are appropriate for this patient at discharge? (Select all that apply)
- Prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitorAnswer
- Initiate a high-intensity statin such as atorvastatinAnswer
- Initiate a cardioselective beta-blocker such as metoprololAnswer
- DResume the patient's home ibuprofen for osteoarthritis
- EPrescribe oral apixaban to prevent coronary stent thrombosis