A 52-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for progressive fatigue, shortness of breath, and visual disturbances over the past week. She underwent a deceased-donor renal transplantation 6 months ago and is currently maintained on tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone. Temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 96/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 132/78 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals crackles at both lung bases. Fundoscopy of the right eye shows extensive retinal hemorrhages and white, fluffy perivascular exudates. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 2,400/mm³ and a platelet count of 90,000/mm³. The patient is started on the standard first-line intravenous antiviral therapy for her presumed infection. After 14 days, her symptoms persist, and a quantitative viral load shows progressive systemic infection. Her antiviral regimen is switched to an intravenous pyrophosphate analog, which results in a gradual clinical improvement. Which of the following molecular mechanisms most likely accounts for the failure of the initial antiviral therapy in this patient?
- Inability of the virus to catalyze the initial phosphorylation of the drugAnswer
- BConformational change in the viral DNA polymerase preventing drug binding
- CLoss of viral thymidine kinase expression
- DAccelerated hepatic metabolism of the drug via cytochrome P450 induction
- EAmino acid substitution in a viral reverse transcriptase