A 68-year-old man with a history of severe obstructive sleep apnea is admitted to the surgical ward following an elective laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. During evening sign-out, the primary surgical team informs the cross-covering night resident that the patient is hemodynamically stable and recovering well. Later that night, the patient complains of moderate incisional pain. The cross-covering resident, who has not reviewed the patient's full preoperative anesthesia assessment, orders a standard dose of intravenous hydromorphone. A floor nurse administers the medication. Two hours later, the patient is found unarousable with a respiratory rate of 6/min and an oxygen saturation of 82% on room air. A rapid response code is initiated, naloxone is administered, and the patient is transferred to the intensive care unit, where he subsequently makes a full recovery. The hospital's patient safety committee is tasked with evaluating this sentinel event.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the formal investigation of this incident?
- Assemble a multidisciplinary team to retrospectively analyze the event timeline and identify latent system vulnerabilitiesAnswer
- BConduct a failure mode and effects analysis of the postoperative analgesia protocol to map potential risks
- CImmediately implement a standardized handoff tool requiring acknowledgment of respiratory risk factors
- DDetermine that the resident's failure to review the preoperative assessment was the primary cause of the event
- ERequire the involved resident and nurse to complete a remediation module on opioid prescribing guidelines