A 26-year-old male is evaluated in the gastroenterology clinic for a 2-year history of non-bloody, foul-smelling diarrhea and an unintentional 7-kg (15.4-lb) weight loss. During this timeframe, he has required two courses of oral antibiotics for recurrent sinusitis and was hospitalized once for community-acquired pneumonia. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a thin patient with mild temporal wasting.
Laboratory investigations show:
Hemoglobin: 10.4 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume: 74 fL
Quantitative serum IgG: 210 mg/dL (Normal: 700-1600 mg/dL)
Quantitative serum IgA: <5 mg/dL (Normal: 70-400 mg/dL)
Quantitative serum IgM: 25 mg/dL (Normal: 40-230 mg/dL)
Anti-tissue transglutaminase IgA: Negative
Anti-deamidated gliadin peptide IgG: Negative
To establish a definitive diagnosis, an esophagogastroduodenoscopy is performed, which reveals scalloping of the duodenal folds. The corresponding histopathologic evaluation of the duodenal biopsies states:
"The mucosal architecture demonstrates severe villous blunting accompanied by crypt hyperplasia. There is a marked increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes (>40 per 100 enterocytes). The lamina propria contains a sparse inflammatory infiltrate characterized by an absolute absence of plasma cells. No granulomas, parasites, or foamy macrophages are identified."
Based on the clinical presentation and biopsy interpretation, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Common variable immunodeficiency enteropathyAnswer
- BCeliac disease
- CGiardiasis
- DWhipple disease
- ETropical sprue