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Question 881Question →

A 67-year-old man presents to the urology clinic to discuss the results of a recent 12-core transrectal ultrasound-guided prostate biopsy. The biopsy was performed after two consecutive elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) measurements (most recently 6.8 ng/mL) and a normal digital rectal examination. The pathology report confirms invasive prostatic adenocarcinoma in two cores from the right peripheral zone. The multidisciplinary tumor board is reviewing the histopathologic architecture to determine the International Society of Urological Pathology (ISUP) Grade Group, which is critical for deciding whether the patient is a candidate for active surveillance or requires definitive therapy. Which of the following microscopic architectural patterns specifically define a Gleason pattern 4 tumor? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Cribriform proliferations presenting as large cellular nests with multiple punched-out lumina; Irregularly fused microacinar structures that merge together without intervening stroma; Small, poorly formed glands composed of ill-defined cellular clusters with rare lumina

Answer

The architectural patterns that define a Gleason pattern 4 tumor are cribriform proliferations, irregularly fused glands, and poorly formed glands.
Gleason grading of prostate adenocarcinoma is based purely on the architectural pattern of the neoplastic glands rather than nuclear atypia. Pattern 4 is characterized by loss of discrete glandular architecture, presenting in three main forms: 1) Cribriform glands, which are large cellular nests containing multiple punched-out lumina without intervening stroma; 2) Fused glands, where adjacent acini merge irregularly; and 3) Poorly formed glands, consisting of small, ill-defined clusters of cells. Identifying any of these features warrants at least a secondary pattern 4 assignment, upgrading the tumor to a minimum of ISUP Grade Group 2, which typically shifts the management recommendation away from active surveillance toward definitive local therapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the specific diagnostic task required.
The scenario requires identifying the microscopic features that differentiate a Gleason pattern 4 prostate adenocarcinoma from other patterns to determine the ISUP Grade Group.
Accurate pathologic grading is the most critical prognostic factor and dictates management (e.g., active surveillance vs. definitive therapy) for localized prostate cancer.
2
Review the defining histopathologic criteria for Gleason pattern 4.
Gleason pattern 4 is characterized by three main architectural features: cribriform glands, fused glands, and poorly formed glands.
Recognizing these specific patterns differentiates grade 4 from grade 3 (discrete, well-formed glands) and grade 5 (solid sheets, comedonecrosis, or single cells).
3
Evaluate each option against the established Gleason grading criteria.
Cribriform proliferations, fused microacinar structures, and small poorly formed glands match pattern 4. Discrete individual acini match pattern 3. Solid sheets match pattern 5.
Applying the exact architectural definitions ensures accurate grading.

Key Concept

Gleason Grading System for Prostate Adenocarcinoma
Question 882Question →

A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset, severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to her right shoulder. The pain began one hour ago after she consumed a large, fatty meal. She reports experiencing similar, though less severe, episodes over the past few months that usually resolved spontaneously within a few hours. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 88/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant, but no rebound tenderness, guarding, or jaundice. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?

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Answer: Right upper quadrant transabdominal ultrasonography

Answer

The most appropriate next diagnostic step is a right upper quadrant transabdominal ultrasonography.
Right upper quadrant transabdominal ultrasonography is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for patients presenting with symptoms suggestive of biliary colic or acute cholecystitis. It is highly sensitive and specific for detecting gallstones, assessing gallbladder wall thickness, and identifying pericholecystic fluid. Furthermore, it is non-invasive, does not involve ionizing radiation, is widely available, and is highly cost-effective, perfectly aligning with principles of optimal test sequencing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation.
A 42-year-old female presents with postprandial right upper quadrant pain radiating to the shoulder, typical of biliary colic.
Recognizing the classic demographic ('forty, female') and symptom pattern (fatty meal trigger, shoulder radiation) establishes a high clinical suspicion for cholelithiasis.
2
Determine the preferred initial diagnostic algorithm.
Guidelines dictate that non-invasive, highly sensitive imaging should be performed first to identify gallbladder pathology.
Test sequencing principles require prioritizing cost-effective, low-risk tests that can definitively rule in or rule out the most likely diagnosis.
3
Select the best initial diagnostic modality.
Right upper quadrant transabdominal ultrasonography is chosen.
Ultrasonography is the gold standard initial screening test for biliary tract disease due to its high sensitivity for gallstones, lack of ionizing radiation, and widespread availability.

Key Concept

Transabdominal ultrasonography is the standard-of-care, first-line diagnostic test for evaluating suspected biliary tract disease such as cholelithiasis and acute cholecystitis.
Question 883Question →

A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by a friend due to the sudden onset of difficulty breathing, throat tightness, and a diffuse itchy rash. Her symptoms began 15 minutes ago, shortly after she ate a peanut butter cookie at a local bakery. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 82/50 mm Hg, pulse of 128/min, and respirations of 28/min. Oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Physical examination reveals diffuse urticaria, facial edema, and bilateral expiratory wheezing. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

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Answer: Intramuscular administration of epinephrine

Answer

Intramuscular administration of epinephrine
The correct answer is intramuscular administration of epinephrine. This patient is presenting with classic signs of severe anaphylaxis (hypotension, tachycardia, respiratory distress, and mucocutaneous signs) immediately following exposure to a known trigger. Epinephrine is the definitive first-line therapy because its potent alpha-adrenergic effects increase peripheral vascular resistance to reverse hypotension, while its beta-adrenergic effects induce bronchodilation and decrease the release of inflammatory mediators.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The patient has a history of allergen exposure followed by rapid onset of respiratory compromise (wheezing, throat tightness), skin involvement (urticaria, facial edema), and cardiovascular collapse (hypotension, tachycardia).
Recognizing the diagnostic criteria for anaphylaxis is critical for initiating appropriate emergency protocols.
2
Prioritize interventions based on the severity and acuity of the condition.
The most immediate threat to life is airway loss and distributive shock, requiring an intervention that rapidly reverses both.
In any acute stabilization scenario, life-saving ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) interventions must take precedence over adjunctive therapies or diagnostic tests.
3
Select the optimal initial pharmacologic agent for anaphylaxis.
Epinephrine administered intramuscularly is identified as the single most critical and effective first-line therapy.
Epinephrine provides potent alpha-1 (vasoconstriction), beta-1 (inotropy/chronotropy), and beta-2 (bronchodilation) agonism, directly reversing the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis.

Key Concept

The absolute priority in the initial stabilization of anaphylaxis is the immediate intramuscular administration of epinephrine.
Question 884Question →

An inpatient on the internal medicine ward, a 69-year-old male being treated for community-acquired pneumonia, acutely develops intense lower back pain radiating down both legs. The nursing staff notes that he has been unable to void urine for the past 10 hours and he complains of numbness in his groin. His medical history includes ischemic cardiomyopathy with a legacy implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placed 12 years ago that is documented as non-MRI-conditional. Vital signs are within normal limits. Neurologic evaluation demonstrates diminished strength in bilateral ankle plantar flexion, absent Achilles reflexes, and loss of pinprick sensation in the perianal region. Digital rectal examination reveals markedly decreased sphincter tone. Postvoid residual volume by bladder scan is 750 mL. The clinical team strongly suspects an acute compression of the lumbosacral nerve roots. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in imaging to confirm the diagnosis?

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Answer: Computed tomography myelography of the lumbar spine

Answer

Computed tomography myelography of the lumbar spine is the most appropriate next step in imaging.
Computed tomography (CT) myelography is the diagnostic imaging study of choice for patients with suspected cauda equina syndrome who have absolute contraindications to magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). By introducing contrast directly into the subarachnoid space, CT myelography provides excellent delineation of the thecal sac and nerve roots, allowing for precise localization of the compressive lesion when an MRI cannot be safely performed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical syndrome based on the patient's acute presentation.
The patient exhibits severe lower back pain, bilateral lower extremity weakness, saddle anesthesia, urinary retention, and decreased rectal tone, which are classic signs of cauda equina syndrome.
Recognizing cauda equina syndrome is critical because it is a neurosurgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and surgical decompression to prevent permanent neurologic deficit.
2
Determine the standard first-line imaging modality for the suspected diagnosis.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spine is the gold standard for evaluating suspected cauda equina syndrome.
MRI provides the highest resolution of soft tissues, including the spinal cord, thecal sac, and individual nerve roots.
3
Evaluate the patient for any absolute contraindications to the standard imaging modality.
The patient has a legacy (12-year-old) implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) that is documented as non-MRI-conditional.
Placing a patient with a non-conditional ICD into an MRI scanner can cause catastrophic device malfunction, severe tissue heating, and potentially lethal arrhythmias.
4
Select the best alternative imaging study that provides comparable diagnostic information.
Computed tomography (CT) myelography of the lumbar spine is the correct choice.
By introducing contrast directly into the subarachnoid space via lumbar puncture prior to imaging, CT myelography accurately outlines the nerve roots and demonstrates the level and degree of compression.

Key Concept

When magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is absolutely contraindicated (e.g., due to a non-conditional pacemaker or ICD), computed tomography (CT) myelography is the imaging modality of choice for diagnosing cauda equina syndrome.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 885Question →

Match each patient presentation with the most appropriate next step in their diagnostic evaluation based on established sequential testing algorithms.

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Items

A 48-year-old man with refractory hypertension. Evaluation shows a plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio of 42. Following an intravenous saline infusion test, aldosterone remains elevated. A high-resolution adrenal CT scan reveals structurally normal adrenal glands bilaterally.
A 41-year-old woman with progressive weight gain and proximal muscle weakness. She has concordant elevations in 24-hour urine free cortisol and late-night salivary cortisol. Subsequent testing reveals a plasma ACTH level of 85 pg/mL (elevated).
A 34-year-old man with episodic headaches and resting tachycardia. Biochemical screening reveals plasma free normetanephrine levels six times the upper limit of normal. A contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis shows no adrenal or extra-adrenal masses.
A 28-year-old woman with a palpable anterior neck mass. Ultrasound reveals a 2.5-cm solid, hypoechoic thyroid nodule with irregular margins and microcalcifications. Her serum TSH level is 0.1 mU/L (suppressed).
A 55-year-old woman has a serum calcium of 11.2 mg/dL and an intact PTH of 120 pg/mL. Her 24-hour urinary calcium excretion is appropriately elevated. She meets established criteria for surgical intervention.

Matches

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Answer

The presentations map to their respective localizing and confirming studies: Refractory HTN/Normal CT -> AVS. High ACTH Cushing's -> Pituitary MRI. Occult Pheochromocytoma -> Functional PET/MIBG imaging. Nodule with Low TSH -> Radionuclide scintigraphy. Confirmed Hyperparathyroidism requiring surgery -> Sestamibi scan.
Diagnostic sequencing in endocrinology relies on three immutable phases: confirming biochemical excess, determining trophic hormone dependence, and finally localizing the source. Deviating from these sequences—such as skipping functional assessment before structural biopsy, or jumping to invasive sampling before initial non-invasive imaging—leads to premature interventions, misdiagnoses, or missed ectopic sources.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the primary hyperaldosteronism scenario.
The patient has biochemically confirmed PA but a normal CT. AVS is the next indicated test.
CT scanning can miss microadenomas or reveal non-functioning incidentalomas. AVS definitively lateralizes aldosterone hypersecretion.
2
Analyze the Cushing syndrome scenario.
Hypercortisolism is confirmed, and ACTH is elevated, indicating ACTH-dependence.
A pituitary source (Cushing disease) is the most common cause of ACTH-dependent Cushing's, so a pituitary MRI is the first localization step.
3
Analyze the pheochromocytoma scenario.
Catecholamine excess is confirmed, but the standard abdominal/pelvic CT is negative.
Functional imaging (like DOTATATE PET or MIBG) scans the whole body to identify extra-adrenal paragangliomas.
4
Analyze the thyroid nodule scenario.
The ultrasound is highly suspicious, but the TSH is suppressed.
Guidelines mandate determining the functional status of a nodule with low TSH using scintigraphy before any biopsy, to prevent false-positive cytology from an autonomous adenoma.
5
Analyze the primary hyperparathyroidism scenario.
Diagnosis is fully confirmed (including 24h urine calcium) and surgical criteria are met.
Localization studies (sestamibi/ultrasound) are only indicated for surgical planning, not for diagnosis.

Key Concept

Applying strict sequential diagnostic algorithms in endocrine disorders to prevent unnecessary invasive procedures or surgical errors.
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 886Question →

A 22-year-old male college student presents to the student health clinic with a 2-day history of a severe sore throat, fever of 38.8°C (101.8°F), and profound fatigue. Physical examination reveals bilateral tonsillar exudates, tender posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and a palpable spleen tip. Arrange the following conditions in order from the most likely to the least likely diagnosis based on this patient's clinical presentation.

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Answer

The correct order from most likely to least likely is: Infectious mononucleosis, Group A streptococcal pharyngitis, Acute HIV infection, and Allergic rhinitis.
The correct sequence prioritizes the diagnoses based on how completely they account for the patient's full clinical picture. Infectious mononucleosis perfectly explains the exudates, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Group A streptococcus is a common cause of exudative pharyngitis but lacks splenomegaly. Acute HIV can mimic infectious mononucleosis but rarely presents with tonsillar exudates. Allergic rhinitis is entirely inconsistent with the severe systemic infectious signs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's full clinical presentation.
The key findings are fever, severe fatigue, exudative pharyngitis, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.
Identifying all positive physical exam findings is essential for narrowing down the differential diagnosis.
2
Identify the highest probability match for the complete symptom cluster.
Infectious mononucleosis perfectly matches all symptoms and signs, particularly the combination of posterior cervical adenopathy and splenomegaly.
Splenomegaly and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy are classic distinguishing features of Epstein-Barr virus infection.
3
Evaluate alternative infectious etiologies for partial matches.
Group A streptococcus causes exudative pharyngitis but typically involves anterior cervical nodes and lacks splenomegaly. Acute HIV causes a viral prodrome but usually lacks tonsillar exudates.
Understanding the subtle differences in presentation (anterior vs. posterior nodes, presence of exudates) helps prioritize the remaining infectious differentials.
4
Rule out non-infectious causes.
Allergic rhinitis cannot explain the fever, tonsillar exudates, or splenomegaly.
Non-infectious and benign conditions should be placed at the bottom of the differential when systemic infectious signs are prominent.

Key Concept

Differentiating common causes of acute pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy based on specific clinical signs.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 887Question →

Match the following pathognomonic central nervous system magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) findings with their most likely corresponding underlying neurodegenerative or metabolic condition.

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Items

Cruciform hyperintense signal within the pons on axial T2-weighted MRI
Severe atrophy of the midbrain tegmentum with a relatively preserved pons on midsagittal T1-weighted MRI
Bilateral symmetric hyperintensity in the pulvinar thalamic nuclei on FLAIR MRI
Central hyperintensity surrounded by symmetric hypointensity in the globus pallidus on T2-weighted MRI

Matches

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Answer

Cruciform pons hyperintensity matches MSA-C; midbrain tegmentum atrophy matches PSP; pulvinar hyperintensity matches vCJD; and target-like globus pallidus signal matches PKAN.
Each pathognomonic imaging sign directly reflects the underlying selective neuronal vulnerability, distinct protein deposition, or specific tract degeneration unique to these rare neurodegenerative and metabolic conditions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the axial T2-weighted pontine finding.
Identify the cruciform hyperintensity as the 'hot cross bun' sign.
This specific presentation indicates neurodegeneration of the pontocerebellar tracts, which uniquely points to MSA-C.
2
Evaluate the midsagittal T1-weighted midbrain finding.
Identify midbrain tegmental atrophy as the 'hummingbird' sign.
This is essential for differentiating PSP from Parkinson disease and other parkinsonian syndromes that do not exhibit severe midbrain volume loss.
3
Assess the FLAIR thalamic finding.
Recognize the posterior thalamic hyperintensity as the 'pulvinar' sign.
This is a classic radiologic hallmark required for the clinical diagnosis of variant CJD.
4
Interpret the T2-weighted globus pallidus finding.
Identify the central hyperintensity with surrounding hypointensity as the 'eye of the tiger' sign.
This reflects distinct iron deposition patterns and central gliosis characteristic of PKAN.

Key Concept

Pathognomonic neuroimaging signs in atypical parkinsonian and neurodegenerative disorders.
Question 888Question →

A 43-year-old female presents to the emergency department complaining of severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain that began three hours ago, shortly after eating a large, high-fat meal. She reports associated nausea and one episode of vomiting. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg, and heart rate is 92/min. Physical examination reveals marked tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant, and the patient abruptly halts her inspiration when deep palpation is applied in this area. Laboratory studies show a mildly elevated white blood cell count. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial imaging study to establish the diagnosis?

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Answer: Right upper quadrant ultrasonography

Answer

Right upper quadrant ultrasonography is the most appropriate initial imaging study.
The correct answer is right upper quadrant ultrasonography because it is the most sensitive, specific, and cost-effective initial imaging modality for evaluating suspected acute cholecystitis. It can readily identify gallstones, measure gallbladder wall thickness (abnormal if >3 mm), detect pericholecystic fluid, and elicit a sonographic Murphy sign.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical syndrome based on the patient's presentation.
The patient has postprandial right upper quadrant pain, fever, leukocytosis, and a positive Murphy sign (inspiratory arrest on palpation), which classically indicates acute cholecystitis.
Recognizing the classic clinical triad of acute cholecystitis is essential before selecting the appropriate diagnostic test.
2
Determine the evidence-based first-line imaging modality for this specific diagnosis.
Right upper quadrant ultrasonography is the standard of care.
Ultrasound is fast, avoids ionizing radiation, and is highly sensitive for detecting gallstones, gallbladder wall thickening, and pericholecystic fluid.

Key Concept

Right upper quadrant ultrasonography is the initial diagnostic imaging study of choice for evaluating suspected acute cholecystitis.
Estimated Time:45s
Question 889Question →

A hepatobiliary tumor board is reviewing the pathologic and immunohistochemical findings of five distinct hepatic lesions to finalize their diagnoses. Which definitive pathologic diagnosis best matches each histopathologic description and biomarker profile?

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Items

A biopsy of an unencapsulated hepatic mass in a young woman reveals bland hepatocytes in plates 1-2 cells thick, completely lacking portal tracts; immunohistochemistry demonstrates loss of liver fatty acid-binding protein (LFABP) expression.
A biopsy of a circumscribed hepatic mass reveals benign-appearing hepatocytes compartmentalized by fibrous septa containing malformed arteries and ductular reactions; immunohistochemistry shows a classic 'map-like' pattern of glutamine synthetase positivity.
A biopsy of a large mass in a cirrhotic liver shows thickened hepatocyte trabeculae (>3>3 cells thick) with nuclear atypia; immunohistochemistry is strongly positive for arginase-1, and CD34 staining highlights diffuse capillarization of the sinusoids.
A biopsy of a firm, white hepatic mass reveals infiltrating malignant glandular structures inciting a dense desmoplastic stroma; the tumor cells are positive for cytokeratin 7 and mucicarmine, but negative for arginase-1 and HepPar-1.
A biopsy of a hemorrhagic liver lesion in an older man reveals an infiltrative proliferation of highly pleomorphic, mitotically active spindle cells forming irregular vascular channels; tumor cells are strongly positive for CD31 and ERG.

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches pair precise histomorphological patterns and unique immunohistochemical signatures (LFABP, Glutamine Synthetase, Arginase-1, CK7, CD31/ERG) with their corresponding benign, malignant, or vascular primary hepatic neoplasms.
Accurate diagnosis of primary hepatic tumors relies on integrating cellular morphology, architectural patterns (e.g., trabecular vs. glandular), and specific immunohistochemistry. HNF1A-inactivated adenomas uniquely lose LFABP expression. Focal Nodular Hyperplasia displays characteristic map-like glutamine synthetase positivity. Hepatocellular Carcinoma is confirmed by arginase-1 and diffuse CD34 sinusoidal capillarization. Intrahepatic Cholangiocarcinoma shows a biliary phenotype (CK7+, mucin+) with intense desmoplasia. Hepatic Angiosarcoma is identified by malignant endothelial channels expressing CD31 and ERG.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the biopsy showing loss of LFABP and absent portal tracts.
Identify as HNF1A-inactivated Hepatocellular Adenoma.
LFABP loss is the pathognomonic molecular phenotype for this specific, low-risk adenoma variant.
2
Analyze the circumscribed mass with a central scar, ductular reactions, and map-like glutamine synthetase.
Identify as Focal Nodular Hyperplasia.
The map-like GS staining and ductular reactions distinguish FNH from hepatocellular adenomas.
3
Assess the thickened trabeculae (>3>3 cells) with arginase-1 positivity and CD34 capillarization.
Identify as Hepatocellular Carcinoma.
Arginase-1 confirms hepatocellular origin, while CD34 capillarization differentiates it from benign regenerative nodules.
4
Analyze the mucin-producing glands with desmoplastic stroma and CK7 positivity.
Identify as Intrahepatic Cholangiocarcinoma.
The biliary immunophenotype (CK7+) and lack of hepatocyte markers rule out HCC and confirm a biliary origin.
5
Evaluate the pleomorphic spindle cells forming vascular channels positive for CD31 and ERG.
Identify as Hepatic Angiosarcoma.
CD31 and ERG are definitive endothelial markers confirming a malignant vascular neoplasm.

Key Concept

Integration of morphologic patterns with specific immunohistochemical markers is required to accurately subtype hepatic neoplasms and distinguish benign mimics from aggressive malignancies.
Question 890Question →

A 58-year-old man with a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy presents to the clinic for evaluation of a chronic right foot ulcer. He first noticed the ulcer 6 weeks ago, and it has not improved despite offloading and regular dressing changes. He is afebrile, and his vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a 2.5-cm, deep, neuropathic ulcer on the plantar aspect of the right first metatarsal head. The base of the ulcer contains pale granulation tissue and mild purulent discharge. The surrounding skin is indurated and erythematous. A sterile blunt probe introduced into the ulcer does not palpate a hard, gritty surface (negative probe-to-bone test). The physician suspects early diabetic foot osteomyelitis.

Arrange the following diagnostic and therapeutic steps in the most appropriate chronological order to accurately evaluate and definitively manage this patient's condition.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: Plain radiography -> MRI -> Image-guided bone biopsy -> Pathogen-directed antimicrobial therapy.
The correct sequence begins with plain radiography, the universally recommended initial imaging step to rule out obvious bony destruction, fractures, or foreign bodies. Because osteomyelitis often does not appear on X-ray for 10-14 days, a subsequent MRI is required due to its high sensitivity for detecting early bone marrow edema. Once imaging confirms the location and extent of the disease, an image-guided bone biopsy must be performed to obtain a deep microbiological diagnosis. Finally, targeted antimicrobial therapy is initiated based on the biopsy culture results, ensuring the patient receives appropriate, organism-specific treatment rather than empiric coverage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform plain radiography of the foot.
Establishes a baseline anatomical view and assesses for obvious bone destruction, foreign bodies, or soft tissue gas.
It is the standard, cost-effective initial step in evaluating any suspected diabetic foot infection or osteomyelitis.
2
Perform magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the foot.
Identifies early osteomyelitis, soft tissue abscesses, and bone marrow edema that are typically missed by early plain radiographs.
MRI is the most sensitive imaging modality and is strictly indicated when initial radiographs are negative but clinical suspicion persists.
3
Perform image-guided percutaneous bone biopsy.
Obtains deep, uncontaminated bone tissue for histopathology and microbiological culture.
Definitive diagnosis and accurate pathogen identification are required to guide long-term, organism-specific antibiotic therapy.
4
Initiate pathogen-directed intravenous antimicrobial therapy.
Treats the confirmed localized infection using narrowed, targeted antibiotics.
In clinically stable patients, withholding antibiotics until after the biopsy ensures high-yield cultures and prevents the complications associated with unnecessary broad-spectrum therapy.

Key Concept

The standard diagnostic sequence for suspected diabetic foot osteomyelitis requires initial plain radiography, followed by MRI for definitive imaging, then bone biopsy for microbiological diagnosis before initiating targeted antibiotics in stable patients.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 891Question →

A 38-year-old woman is evaluated in the ambulatory setting for recent, unexplained weight gain and new-onset hypertension. Over the past eight months, she has gained 1414 kg despite no changes to her diet or physical activity level. She also reports increasing difficulty climbing stairs and easy bruising on her extremities. Blood pressure is 158/96158/96 mmHg. Physical examination reveals facial plethora, prominent dorsocervical and supraclavicular fat pads, and broad violaceous striae across the lower abdomen. Initial screening for hypercortisolism is performed using a 11-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test. Her serum cortisol level at 8:00 AM the following morning is 14μg/dL14 \mu\text{g/dL} (normal: <1.8μg/dL<1.8 \mu\text{g/dL}). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic evaluation of this patient?

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Answer: Measurement of plasma adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Answer

Measurement of plasma adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is the most appropriate next step to classify the etiology of the hypercortisolism.
The patient's clinical signs and the failure to suppress morning cortisol after a low-dose dexamethasone test confirm endogenous hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome). The crucial next step in the diagnostic sequence is to determine whether the excess cortisol is ACTH-dependent (e.g., Cushing disease, ectopic ACTH secretion) or ACTH-independent (e.g., adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma). Measuring plasma ACTH accomplishes this. If ACTH is suppressed, the source is adrenal, and an adrenal CT is warranted. If ACTH is normal or elevated, the source is ACTH-dependent, and an MRI of the pituitary (and potentially a high-dose dexamethasone test) is the appropriate subsequent step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Interpret the initial clinical presentation and laboratory results.
The patient has clinical features of Cushing syndrome and a positive 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, confirming endogenous hypercortisolism.
Establishing the presence of hypercortisolism is the first required step in the diagnostic algorithm.
2
Determine the next necessary diagnostic phase.
The evaluation must move from confirming hypercortisolism to localizing its source.
Cushing syndrome can be driven by primary adrenal pathology (ACTH-independent) or central/ectopic pathology (ACTH-dependent).
3
Select the appropriate biochemical test for localization before imaging.
Plasma ACTH measurement is selected.
Biochemical localization must precede anatomical imaging to avoid finding and treating incidentalomas.

Key Concept

In the evaluation of Cushing syndrome, after hypercortisolism is confirmed with initial screening tests (e.g., low-dose dexamethasone suppression test, 24-hour urine free cortisol), the immediate next step is to measure plasma ACTH to differentiate between ACTH-dependent and ACTH-independent etiologies.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 892Question →

Following a high-speed collision with a commercial delivery van, a 31-year-old male pedestrian is airlifted to the regional trauma center. His electronic health record indicates no significant past medical history. During transport, the flight medical crew placed a rigid cervical collar and secured two large-bore peripheral intravenous catheters. Upon arrival, the patient is minimally responsive, groaning, and localizing to painful stimuli. Vital signs show a temperature of 35.8°C (96.4°F), blood pressure of 74/42 mm Hg, heart rate of 142/min, and respiratory rate of 28/min. His extremities are cool with weak, thready pulses. The primary survey reveals an unobstructed airway with bilateral and equal breath sounds. Evaluation of the abdomen demonstrates marked suprapubic ecchymosis and guarding. Gentle manual compression of the iliac crests reveals mechanical instability of the pelvic ring. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates an absence of free fluid in the pericardial, right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant, and pelvic views. A portable chest radiograph displays no acute cardiopulmonary abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the immediate stabilization of this patient?

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Answer: Application of a circumferential binding device centered over the greater trochanters

Answer

Application of a circumferential binding device centered over the greater trochanters
The patient presents in severe hemorrhagic shock due to blunt force trauma. The physical findings of suprapubic ecchymosis and a mechanically unstable pelvis strongly indicate an unstable pelvic ring fracture. These fractures commonly cause massive, life-threatening retroperitoneal hemorrhage stemming from the presacral venous plexus and cancellous bone ends. Because the FAST examination is negative, massive intraperitoneal bleeding is effectively ruled out. Therefore, the single most urgent stabilization intervention is mechanical hemorrhage control via the application of a circumferential pelvic binder, which must be centered over the greater trochanters (not the iliac crests). This non-invasive maneuver reduces the pelvic volume, creating a tamponade effect that slows or stops venous bleeding, and it stabilizes the fracture fragments to prevent further vascular injury. This step must precede diagnostic imaging and should be performed concurrently with the initiation of a massive transfusion protocol.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status and classify the type of shock.
The patient is in profound hemorrhagic shock, evidenced by a blood pressure of 74/42 mm Hg, a heart rate of 142/min, and cool extremities.
To prioritize interventions based on the 'Circulation' component of the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) primary survey.
2
Correlate physical examination findings with bedside diagnostics to localize the source of hemorrhage.
The FAST exam is negative, ruling out massive intraperitoneal bleeding. The pelvic examination reveals mechanical instability and suprapubic ecchymosis.
To differentiate between intraperitoneal and retroperitoneal sources of bleeding, which dictate entirely different stabilization pathways.
3
Implement targeted mechanical stabilization for the identified injury.
A pelvic binder is immediately applied over the greater trochanters.
To rapidly reduce the pelvic volume, thereby promoting venous tamponade and providing hemostatic control of the life-threatening retroperitoneal hemorrhage.

Key Concept

In hemodynamically unstable trauma patients with a suspected pelvic fracture and a negative FAST exam, the immediate stabilization step is the application of a pelvic binder to tamponade retroperitoneal venous bleeding.
Question 893Question →

An internal medicine physician evaluates a 71-year-old man who is referred due to progressively worsening fatigue and dyspnea on exertion over the past 4 months. Complete blood count reveals a hemoglobin of 8.2 g/dL8.2 \text{ g/dL}, mean corpuscular volume of 106 fL106 \text{ fL}, leukocyte count of 3,100/mm33,100/\text{mm}^3, and platelet count of 92,000/mm392,000/\text{mm}^3. Vitamin B12 and folate levels are within normal limits. A bone marrow aspiration and trephine biopsy are performed. The synoptic histopathology report describes a hypercellular marrow for age (85%85\% cellularity) with marked erythroid predominance. Silver staining is negative for reticulin fibrosis. Iron staining reveals that 25%25\% of the nucleated red blood cell precursors have iron granules encircling the nucleus. Dysplastic features are prominent in the megakaryocytic lineage, including several small, mononuclear megakaryocytes. The blast count is estimated at 3%3\%. Based on the integrated clinical and biopsy findings, which of the following is the most definitive diagnosis?

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Answer: Myelodysplastic syndrome

Answer

Myelodysplastic syndrome
The correct diagnosis is myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). The clinical presentation of pancytopenia and macrocytic anemia, in the setting of normal vitamin B12 and folate, strongly points toward a primary bone marrow disorder. The definitive diagnosis relies on the bone marrow biopsy interpretation. The biopsy reveals a hypercellular marrow, which rules out aplastic anemia. The presence of ring sideroblasts (erythroid precursors with iron-engorged mitochondria surrounding the nucleus) and dysplastic, mononuclear megakaryocytes are pathognomonic morphologic features of ineffective hematopoiesis in MDS. Furthermore, the blast count is 3%, which distinguishes it from acute myeloid leukemia (requires ≥20%\geq 20\% blasts).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's peripheral blood findings.
The patient has pancytopenia (anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia) with a macrocytic anemia (MCV 106 fL), despite normal vitamin B12 and folate levels.
Identifying the baseline hematologic derangements is the first step in formulating a differential diagnosis for bone marrow failure syndromes.
2
Evaluate the bone marrow cellularity and fibrosis.
The marrow is hypercellular for age (85%) and silver staining is negative for reticulin fibrosis.
This rules out causes of pancytopenia associated with hypocellular marrow (such as aplastic anemia) or fibrotic marrow (such as primary myelofibrosis).
3
Interpret the specific histopathologic features and special stains.
Iron staining shows 25% ring sideroblasts, dysplastic mononuclear megakaryocytes are present, and blasts are low (3%).
The presence of ring sideroblasts and specific morphological dysplasia, without meeting the threshold for acute leukemia, confirms a myelodysplastic syndrome.

Key Concept

Diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome relies on correlating peripheral cytopenias with a bone marrow biopsy showing hypercellularity, distinct morphologic dysplasia (e.g., ring sideroblasts, mononuclear megakaryocytes), and a blast count below the threshold for acute leukemia.
Question 894Question →

A 65-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for recurrent large-volume hematochezia. He originally presented to the emergency department 24 hours ago with bright red blood per rectum and hypotension. His medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and coronary artery disease. Following initial resuscitation with intravenous crystalloids and two units of packed red blood cells, his vital signs normalized. A nasogastric lavage returned clear fluid with no blood or coffee-ground material. An urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy demonstrated a normal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Following rapid bowel preparation, a colonoscopy was performed which revealed scattered diverticula and fresh blood throughout the colon, but no active bleeding site could be identified.

While in the intensive care unit, the patient passes another large, bloody stool. His blood pressure drops to 95/65 mmHg and his heart rate increases to 118/min.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?

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Answer: Computed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis

Answer

The most appropriate next step is computed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis.
The correct answer identifies the optimal diagnostic sequence for an unstable patient with brisk lower gastrointestinal bleeding whose initial endoscopic evaluations were non-diagnostic. The patient is suffering from obscure overt gastrointestinal bleeding, highly suggestive of a small bowel source or a missed diverticular bleed due to poor visualization. Because he is having active, large-volume hemorrhage with recurrent hemodynamic instability, rapid and precise anatomic localization is paramount. Multidetector computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the abdomen and pelvis is the test of choice. CTA is fast, non-invasive, universally available in emergency settings, and can detect bleeding rates of 0.3 to 0.5 mL/min. It provides an exact anatomic roadmap that allows interventional radiologists to immediately perform targeted transcatheter arterial embolization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's clinical status and presentation.
The patient has recurrent, large-volume hematochezia causing hemodynamic instability (hypotension, tachycardia).
Identifying the acuity and severity of the bleeding dictates the urgency and type of diagnostic intervention.
2
Review the initial diagnostic workup.
Upper endoscopy ruled out an upper GI source. Colonoscopy showed fresh blood but failed to identify the active bleeding site.
Bleeding with negative upper and lower endoscopies is classified as obscure gastrointestinal bleeding, likely originating from the small bowel or a hidden colonic diverticulum.
3
Determine the optimal diagnostic test for localization.
Computed tomography angiography (CTA) is selected.
In the setting of brisk, active bleeding (>0.3-0.5 mL/min) with hemodynamic compromise, CTA provides rapid, highly accurate anatomic localization of the bleeding source, which is essential before proceeding to transcatheter embolization or targeted surgery.

Key Concept

In patients with obscure overt lower gastrointestinal bleeding who develop hemodynamic instability after negative endoscopic evaluations, computed tomography angiography (CTA) is the preferred next step in the diagnostic workup.
Question 895Question →

A 45-year-old man is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a three-day history of progressive left leg swelling and pain. He recently returned from a 12-hour international flight. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications. Vital signs are stable. Physical examination reveals pitting edema, erythema, and marked tenderness along the deep venous system of the left calf. The left calf circumference is 5 cm larger than the right calf. Based on clinical criteria, the patient has a high pretest probability for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the diagnostic workup?

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Answer: Compression ultrasonography of the left lower extremity

Answer

Compression ultrasonography of the left lower extremity
In patients with a high pretest probability of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the standard of care is to proceed directly to compression ultrasonography. This non-invasive test has high sensitivity and specificity for proximal DVT. Bypassing the D-dimer assay is appropriate because a negative D-dimer in a high-risk patient does not definitively rule out DVT, and a positive result would still dictate the need for an ultrasound.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's pretest probability for deep vein thrombosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has unilateral leg swelling, pitting edema, marked tenderness, and a recent history of prolonged immobilization (12-hour flight). The clinical scenario explicitly states the probability is high.
The diagnostic pathway for suspected deep vein thrombosis strictly depends on whether the pretest probability is low/intermediate versus high.
2
Determine the appropriate initial diagnostic test for a high-probability patient.
Compression ultrasonography is the required next step.
In high-risk patients, a D-dimer is not useful because a negative result cannot confidently rule out a thrombosis, and a positive result requires an ultrasound anyway. Therefore, diagnostic imaging is performed immediately.

Key Concept

Patients with a high pretest probability for deep vein thrombosis should undergo initial diagnostic evaluation with compression ultrasonography, bypassing the D-dimer assay.
Estimated Time:45s
Question 896Question →

A 29-year-old woman, G2P1, at 26 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department due to a 2-hour history of sudden-onset shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. She has no significant past medical history and takes only prenatal vitamins. Her vital signs show a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg, heart rate of 112/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, and oxygen saturation of 94% on ambient air. Physical examination reveals clear lungs to auscultation bilaterally. The right calf is visibly swollen, erythematous, and tender to palpation compared to the left. Which of the following diagnostic studies should be ordered as the most appropriate initial steps in this patient's evaluation? (Select exactly 2)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Compression ultrasonography of the lower extremities; Chest radiography

Answer

Compression ultrasonography of the lower extremities and Chest radiography.
The correct diagnostic approach for suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) in pregnancy requires a specialized algorithm aimed at minimizing fetal radiation exposure. In a pregnant patient presenting with signs of both PE and deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the most appropriate initial concurrent steps are compression ultrasonography of the lower extremities and a chest radiograph. If the ultrasound is positive for DVT, the diagnosis of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is established, the patient is treated with therapeutic anticoagulation, and further pulmonary imaging (which carries a radiation risk) becomes unnecessary. A chest radiograph provides a low-radiation baseline evaluation to rule out other causes of acute dyspnea and is mandatorily required to triage the patient to either a V/Q scan (if normal) or a CT pulmonary angiography (if abnormal) in the event that the ultrasound is negative.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation.
The patient is a pregnant woman presenting with acute dyspnea, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, and unilateral leg swelling, which is highly suspicious for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) complicated by a pulmonary embolism (PE).
Establishing the pre-test probability and recognizing the specific patient population (pregnant) dictates the diagnostic algorithm.
2
Determine the optimal diagnostic imaging sequence to minimize fetal radiation.
In pregnant patients with signs of DVT, compression ultrasonography should be performed first.
If the ultrasound confirms a DVT, the patient is treated with therapeutic anticoagulation for VTE, and further thoracic imaging (CTPA or V/Q scan) can be safely avoided, sparing the fetus from unnecessary radiation.
3
Identify concurrent initial baseline investigations.
A chest radiograph is indicated concurrently in the initial evaluation.
A chest radiograph involves negligible fetal radiation. It is essential to rule out other causes of acute dyspnea (e.g., pneumothorax, pneumonia) and is required to decide between a V/Q scan (if CXR is normal) and a CTPA (if CXR is abnormal) should the ultrasound be negative.

Key Concept

In pregnant patients with suspected pulmonary embolism and symptoms of deep vein thrombosis, the initial diagnostic workup must include bilateral lower extremity compression ultrasonography (to potentially circumvent the need for thoracic imaging) and a baseline chest radiograph.
Question 897Question →

A 65-year-old man with a 30-pack-year smoking history is evaluated in the clinic. A preoperative chest radiograph performed for an upcoming elective hernia repair reveals an incidental 12-mm, non-calcified solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe. Arrange the following diagnostic steps in the most appropriate sequential order for the evaluation of this imaging finding, from the initial step to definitive diagnosis.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Review of prior imaging, followed by CT of the chest, followed by PET scan, and finally Image-guided biopsy.
The correct sequence reflects a stepwise escalation from the least invasive and most cost-effective diagnostic step to the most invasive. Reviewing prior imaging is always the first step for any newly identified pulmonary nodule to establish chronicity. If the nodule is new or prior films are unavailable, a dedicated non-contrast CT of the chest is required for accurate anatomical risk stratification. For a nodule greater than 8 mm with indeterminate or suspicious features, functional imaging with a PET scan is the next step to assess the likelihood of malignancy. Finally, highly suspicious or PET-positive lesions require definitive tissue diagnosis via biopsy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the stability of the nodule over time.
Obtaining and reviewing prior chest imaging studies.
If the nodule has been stable for more than 2 years, it is considered benign, and further invasive or expensive testing is safely avoided.
2
Characterize the anatomical features of the nodule.
Performing a non-contrast CT of the chest.
CT provides detailed morphology (e.g., margins, calcification patterns) that plain radiographs cannot, helping to stratify the risk of malignancy.
3
Assess the metabolic activity of high-risk or indeterminate nodules.
Obtaining a PET scan.
For nodules larger than 8 mm without definitively benign features on CT, a PET scan helps differentiate between benign and malignant lesions based on glucose uptake.
4
Obtain a definitive histological diagnosis.
Performing an image-guided core needle biopsy.
If the PET scan is positive, indicating high metabolic activity, a biopsy is required to confirm malignancy and guide oncologic treatment.

Key Concept

The stepwise evaluation of a solitary pulmonary nodule prioritizes non-invasive and historical data (prior imaging) before proceeding to anatomical characterization (CT), functional assessment (PET), and finally invasive tissue sampling (biopsy).
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 898Question →

A 58-year-old man undergoes an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy for evaluation of progressive early satiety, postprandial nausea, and a 9-kg (20-lb) weight loss over the past 4 months. During the procedure, the endoscopist notes a diffusely thickened, rigid gastric body and antrum with poor distensibility upon air insufflation. No discrete exophytic mass or large ulcer is visualized. Multiple deep mucosal biopsies are obtained. Which of the following histopathologic and immunohistochemical findings are characteristic of this patient's most likely diagnosis? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Presence of discohesive cells with abundant intracytoplasmic mucin displacing the nucleus; Loss of E-cadherin expression on immunohistochemical staining

Answer

Presence of discohesive cells with abundant intracytoplasmic mucin displacing the nucleus AND Loss of E-cadherin expression on immunohistochemical staining
The patient's endoscopic presentation of a thickened, rigid stomach with poor distensibility is classic for linitis plastica, which is strongly associated with diffuse-type gastric adenocarcinoma. On biopsy, this malignancy is characterized by the presence of signet-ring cells—discohesive cells with abundant intracytoplasmic mucin that displaces the nucleus to the periphery. Immunohistochemically, these tumors characteristically show a loss of E-cadherin expression, a cell adhesion molecule, which explains their discohesive and infiltrative growth pattern. This loss of adhesion is often driven by mutations in the CDH1 gene.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical presentation and endoscopic findings.
The patient has symptoms of gastric malignancy with endoscopy showing a diffusely thickened, rigid stomach with poor distensibility.
This macroscopic appearance is classic for 'linitis plastica', which strongly points toward a specific subtype of gastric cancer.
2
Correlate the gross endoscopic appearance with the histopathologic subtype.
Linitis plastica is caused by diffuse-type gastric adenocarcinoma, which infiltrates the gastric wall extensively without necessarily forming a discrete mass.
Differentiating between diffuse and intestinal types of gastric adenocarcinoma is crucial for understanding the pathogenesis and interpreting the biopsy.
3
Determine the characteristic histopathologic and immunohistochemical features of diffuse-type gastric adenocarcinoma.
It is characterized by signet-ring cells (mucin-filled cells with peripheral nuclei) and a loss of E-cadherin expression (often due to CDH1 mutations).
These specific microscopic and molecular features confirm the diagnosis and explain the tumor's infiltrative, discohesive behavior.

Key Concept

Diffuse-type gastric adenocarcinoma presents as linitis plastica and is characterized histologically by discohesive signet-ring cells lacking E-cadherin expression.
Question 899Question →

A 38-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for a 2-day history of severe, diffuse abdominal pain. Over the last six months, he has had recurrent episodes of profound fatigue, intermittent difficulty swallowing, and noting that his urine is occasionally unusually dark, particularly with his first morning void. He also mentions a recent onset of erectile dysfunction, which he attributed to stress. He takes no medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 138/86 mm Hg, heart rate 108/min, and respiratory rate 18/min. Physical examination reveals marked pallor and scleral icterus. The abdomen is diffusely tender without rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are hypoactive.

Laboratory findings are as follows:

Laboratory TestResultReference Range
Hemoglobin8.2 g/dL13.5-17.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume98 fL80-100 fL
Reticulocyte count9%0.5-1.5%
Leukocyte count3,100/μL3,100/\mu L4,500−11,000/μL4,500-11,000/\mu L
Platelet count88,000/μL88,000/\mu L150,000−400,000/μL150,000-400,000/\mu L
Total bilirubin3.2 mg/dL0.1-1.2 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin0.4 mg/dL0.0-0.3 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase1,850 U/L100-250 U/L
Haptoglobin<10 mg/dL41-165 mg/dL

Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test is negative.
Urinalysis reveals 4+ blood with 0-2 red blood cells/hpf.

A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen reveals superior mesenteric vein thrombosis without bowel infarction.

Which of the following is the most likely underlying condition causing this patient's presentation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Answer

The most likely underlying condition is Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria.
The correct answer identifies Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH). This patient presents with the classic triad of PNH: Coombs-negative intravascular hemolysis (anemia, elevated LDH/indirect bilirubin, low haptoglobin, hemoglobinuria), pancytopenia (leukopenia, thrombocytopenia), and unprovoked atypical venous thrombosis (superior mesenteric vein). The mutation in the PIGA gene leads to a lack of GPI-anchored proteins (CD55 and CD59) on cell surfaces, making red blood cells highly susceptible to complement-mediated lysis. The episodic dysphagia and erectile dysfunction are highly specific clinical clues representing smooth muscle dystonia, which occurs because free plasma hemoglobin (from intravascular hemolysis) irreversibly binds and depletes circulating nitric oxide.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the hematological and urinalysis data to determine the type of anemia.
The patient has a normocytic anemia with a high reticulocyte count, elevated LDH, elevated indirect bilirubin, and low haptoglobin, indicating hemolysis. The negative Coombs test and the presence of 4+ blood on urine dipstick with no RBCs on microscopy confirm Coombs-negative intravascular hemolysis resulting in hemoglobinuria.
Establishing the mechanism of anemia is the first step in narrowing the differential diagnosis for fatigue and dark urine.
2
Synthesize the hematological findings with the complete blood count and imaging results.
The patient has concurrent pancytopenia (leukopenia, thrombocytopenia) and an unprovoked atypical venous thrombosis (superior mesenteric vein).
Identifying the classic triad of Coombs-negative intravascular hemolysis, pancytopenia, and atypical venous thrombosis is highly specific for an acquired stem cell disorder.
3
Correlate the atypical systemic symptoms (dysphagia, erectile dysfunction) with the pathophysiological process.
These are symptoms of smooth muscle dystonia, which occurs because free plasma hemoglobin scavenges circulating nitric oxide, further supporting the diagnosis of massive intravascular hemolysis.
Connecting seemingly unrelated symptoms to the core pathophysiological mechanism confirms the unified diagnosis and avoids premature closure.

Key Concept

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is an acquired hematopoietic stem cell mutation characterized by the classic triad of Coombs-negative intravascular hemolysis, pancytopenia, and venous thrombosis (often in atypical sites). Free hemoglobin scavenging nitric oxide also causes characteristic smooth muscle dystonia.
Question 900Question →

A 65-year-old man with a 40-pack-year smoking history visits the clinic for a routine evaluation. A screening chest radiograph reveals a new 15-mm noncalcified solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe. No previous chest radiographs are available for comparison. Arrange the following diagnostic modalities in the most appropriate standard chronological sequence for the evaluation of this patient's pulmonary nodule.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: Noncontrast CT of the chest, followed by a PET scan, and finally an image-guided percutaneous tissue biopsy.
The correct standard chronological sequence for evaluating a new, large (>8 mm) solitary pulmonary nodule in a high-risk patient without prior imaging begins with a noncontrast CT of the chest. This characterizes the lesion anatomically. Because this patient has a high pretest probability for malignancy, the next step in the algorithm is a PET scan to assess metabolic activity and evaluate for regional metastases. Finally, an image-guided biopsy is performed to obtain a definitive tissue diagnosis prior to surgical resection or other specific oncologic therapies.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Characterize the anatomic features of the nodule.
Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) of the chest
Provides detailed anatomic information about the nodule's size, location, and morphologic features to risk-stratify the lesion before any further interventions.
2
Assess the metabolic activity and regional spread.
Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
Determines the likelihood of malignancy in high-risk nodules >8 mm and helps stage the mediastinum to guide biopsy planning.
3
Obtain definitive histologic diagnosis.
Image-guided percutaneous tissue biopsy
Provides the required histologic confirmation of malignancy and tissue for molecular profiling before initiating definitive oncologic therapy.

Key Concept

Sequential diagnostic imaging and evaluation of a high-risk solitary pulmonary nodule.
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