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Zorluk: Çok zorPercentages, Percent Change, and Interest

At the start of a fiscal year, a venture capital fund divided its total investment capital between Asset Class XX and Asset Class YY. Over the course of the year, the value of Asset Class XX increased by 25%25\%, while the value of Asset Class YY decreased by 40%40\%. At the end of the year, the total value of the fund was exactly equal to its total value at the start of the year. Which of the following statements must be true? Select all that apply.

  1. At the start of the year, the value of Asset Class XX was 60%60\% greater than the value of Asset Class YY.Cevap
  2. B
    At the start of the year, Asset Class XX accounted for exactly 60%60\% of the total capital of the fund.
  3. At the end of the year, Asset Class XX represented more than 75%75\% of the total value of the fund.Cevap
  4. D
    The ratio of the final value of Asset Class XX to the final value of Asset Class YY was 55 to 22.
  5. The dollar amount by which Asset Class XX increased was equal to the dollar amount by which Asset Class YY decreased.Cevap

Cevap

The statements that must be true are: at the start of the year, the value of Asset Class X was 60% greater than the value of Asset Class Y; at the end of the year, Asset Class X represented more than 75% of the total value of the fund; and the dollar amount by which Asset Class X increased was equal to the dollar amount by which Asset Class Y decreased.
The problem establishes that 0.25X=0.40Y0.25X = 0.40Y, which yields X=1.60YX = 1.60Y. This confirms that at the start of the year, the value of Asset Class XX was 60%60\% greater than Asset Class YY. Furthermore, the final value of Asset Class XX becomes 2.00Y2.00Y out of a total final fund value of 2.60Y2.60Y, giving it a share of 101376.92%\frac{10}{13} \approx 76.92\%, which is strictly greater than 75%75\%. Finally, because the total portfolio value is unchanged, the exact dollar increase in Asset Class XX (0.25X0.25X) must balance the dollar decrease in Asset Class YY (0.40Y0.40Y).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Set up an equation using initial variables XX and YY for the two asset classes.
Initial total value = X+YX + Y. Final value of X=1.25XX = 1.25X, final value of Y=0.60YY = 0.60Y. Final total value = 1.25X+0.60Y1.25X + 0.60Y.
Percentage increases and decreases apply directly as multiplier factors to their respective initial base values.
2
Equate the initial and final total fund values to find the relationship between XX and YY.
1.25X+0.60Y=X+Y    0.25X=0.40Y    X=1.60Y1.25X + 0.60Y = X + Y \implies 0.25X = 0.40Y \implies X = 1.60Y.
The problem states the net total value of the fund remained unchanged over the year.
3
Evaluate the initial relationship between Asset Class XX and Asset Class YY.
Since X=1.60Y=(1+0.60)YX = 1.60Y = (1 + 0.60)Y, Asset Class XX was 60%60\% greater than Asset Class YY at the start of the year.
A multiplier of 1.601.60 corresponds to a 60%60\% increase over the base value YY.
4
Determine the initial and final percentage allocations of Asset Class XX relative to the total fund.
Initial share = 1.60Y2.60Y=81361.54%\frac{1.60Y}{2.60Y} = \frac{8}{13} \approx 61.54\%. Final share = 1.25(1.60Y)1.25(1.60Y)+0.60Y=2.00Y2.60Y=101376.92%\frac{1.25(1.60Y)}{1.25(1.60Y) + 0.60Y} = \frac{2.00Y}{2.60Y} = \frac{10}{13} \approx 76.92\%.
Evaluating part-to-whole fractions demonstrates that the final share of Asset Class XX (76.92%76.92\%) exceeds 75%75\%.
5
Analyze dollar change equality between the assets.
Dollar gain in X=0.25XX = 0.25X. Dollar loss in Y=0.40YY = 0.40Y. Since 0.25X=0.40Y0.25X = 0.40Y, the dollar gain in XX equals the dollar loss in YY.
Zero net change in total fund value guarantees that positive dollar changes cancel negative dollar changes exactly.

Anahtar Kavram

Weighted Percentage Changes and Base Value Shifting
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