A 68-year-old client is recovering on the orthopedic unit 24 hours after a right total hip arthroplasty. The assigned practical nurse enters the room and notes the client is highly restless, reporting severe incisional pain rated as 8 on a 0-to-10 scale. Assessment reveals the following vital signs: blood pressure 88/54 mm Hg, heart rate 118 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 22 breaths/minute. The morning laboratory profile shows a hemoglobin level of 7.8 g/dL, which is a significant decrease from the preoperative baseline of 12.1 g/dL.
The client's current medication administration record includes the following PRN orders for pain management:
* Hydromorphone 0.5 mg intravenous (IV) push every 3 hours
* Ketorolac 15 mg intramuscularly (IM) every 6 hours
* Tramadol 50 mg orally every 4 hours
Based on the clinical assessment and the practical nursing scope of practice, which action is the priority?
- AAdminister the hydromorphone intravenously over 2 to 3 minutes to provide immediate relief for the severe surgical pain.
- BAdminister the intramuscular ketorolac to effectively manage the pain, as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs do not typically cause severe hypotension.
- CAdminister the oral tramadol and reassess the client's vital signs and pain intensity in 30 to 45 minutes.
- Withhold all analgesic medications, place the client in a supine position, and immediately escalate the assessment findings to the registered nurse.Cevap