Tüm alıştırma soruları

2933 soru

Soru 301Soru →

A practical nurse is collecting data from a client who was admitted with a pulmonary embolism and is currently receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion. Which of the following findings indicate a high risk for potential complications and require immediate notification of the supervising registered nurse? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: A platelet count of 88,000/mm388,000/\text{mm}^3; A resting heart rate of 115 beats per minute accompanied by a blood pressure of 98/62 mm Hg; The client reporting the sudden onset of a severe headache

Cevap

The correct findings that require immediate escalation are a platelet count of 88,000/mm388,000/\text{mm}^3, a resting heart rate of 115 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 98/62 mm Hg, and the sudden onset of a severe headache.
Clients on continuous intravenous heparin are at significant risk for hemorrhage and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). A sudden, severe headache is a cardinal sign of intracranial bleeding. Tachycardia combined with borderline hypotension suggests early hypovolemic shock from internal blood loss. A platelet count of 88,000/mm388,000/\text{mm}^3 falls well below the normal range, indicating potential HIT, which can cause paradoxical life-threatening thrombosis. All three findings require immediate cessation of therapy and rapid RN/provider intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current clinical situation and treatment.
The client has a pulmonary embolism and is on continuous IV heparin, placing them at high risk for bleeding complications and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).
Understanding the high-risk therapy guides the identification of life-threatening adverse effects.
2
Evaluate the laboratory values against therapeutic expectations.
A platelet count of 88,000/mm388,000/\text{mm}^3 is critically low (normal 150,000−400,000/mm3150,000-400,000/\text{mm}^3) indicating potential HIT. An aPTT of 64 seconds is therapeutic (1.5-2.5 times the control of 25-35 seconds). A positive D-dimer is expected given the PE diagnosis.
Differentiating between expected therapeutic effects and critical laboratory abnormalities is essential for safe care.
3
Assess the vital signs and subjective data for signs of shock or hemorrhage.
Tachycardia (115 bpm) with borderline hypotension (98/62 mm Hg) suggests early hemorrhagic shock. A sudden severe headache indicates possible intracranial bleeding. An SpO2 of 94% on 2L O2 is a stable finding for this respiratory condition.
Recognizing subtle signs of internal bleeding ensures timely escalation before hemodynamic collapse occurs.

Anahtar Kavram

Continuous heparin therapy requires vigilant monitoring for adverse effects, specifically systemic bleeding, intracranial hemorrhage (indicated by severe headache), and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (indicated by a profound drop in platelets).
Soru 302Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer scheduled oral digoxin to a 4-month-old infant diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. Prior to administration, the PN assesses the sleeping infant's vital signs and notes an apical pulse of 84 beats/minute and a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute. Which action should the PN take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the dose of digoxin and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN).

Cevap

Withhold the dose of digoxin and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN).
For an infant (1 to 12 months of age), the typical threshold to withhold digoxin is an apical pulse of less than 90 to 110 beats/minute, depending on specific facility policy. An apical pulse of 84 beats/minute is definitively bradycardic for a 4-month-old. Because digoxin slows the heart rate, administering the medication could lead to severe bradycardia and decreased cardiac output. The practical nurse must withhold the dose and immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the infant's vital signs and compare them to expected physiological norms.
The apical pulse is 84 beats/minute, which indicates bradycardia for a 4-month-old infant.
Normal infant heart rates range from 100 to 160 beats/minute. A rate of 84 is dangerously low and requires immediate clinical attention.
2
Evaluate the specific safety parameters for administering digoxin to a pediatric client.
The standard protocol requires withholding digoxin in infants if the apical pulse is less than 90 to 110 beats/minute.
Digoxin has a negative chronotropic effect, meaning it slows electrical conduction through the heart. Administering it to an already bradycardic infant could precipitate a life-threatening arrhythmia or cardiac arrest.
3
Determine the appropriate action within the practical nurse (PN) scope of practice.
The PN withholds the medication and immediately notifies the registered nurse (RN).
The PN is responsible for executing safe medication administration, recognizing critical deviations, and promptly escalating abnormal findings to the RN or provider for medical management.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of digoxin in pediatric clients involves rigorous pre-administration pulse checks, with strict withholding parameters for bradycardia (typically less than 90 beats/minute for infants).
Soru 303Soru →

A client returns to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. Which interventions should the practical nurse implement to reduce the risk of post-procedure complications? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Maintain the client in a right side-lying position.; Assess the client's respiratory status and breath sounds bilaterally.; Instruct the client to avoid forceful coughing or straining.

Cevap

The practical nurse should maintain the client in a right side-lying position, assess respiratory status and breath sounds bilaterally, and instruct the client to avoid forceful coughing or straining.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the most significant risks are internal bleeding and accidental puncture of the lung (pneumothorax). The correct interventions actively mitigate these risks: positioning the client on the right side uses the body's weight to apply pressure to the liver capsule; monitoring breath sounds screens for lung injury; and avoiding coughing prevents spikes in intra-abdominal pressure that could disrupt clot formation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary risks associated with a percutaneous liver biopsy.
The major post-procedure risks are hemorrhage (due to the high vascularity of the liver) and pneumothorax (due to the needle's proximity to the diaphragm).
Understanding the anatomical risks directs the nurse toward the correct preventative and monitoring interventions.
2
Evaluate each action for its effectiveness in preventing or detecting bleeding.
Right side-lying positioning provides hemostasis via compression. Preventing coughing avoids dislodging clots. Tachycardia and low hemoglobin are signs of bleeding that require immediate escalation, not delay.
Prompt recognition and mechanical prevention of bleeding are core responsibilities within the practical nurse scope to reduce risk potential.
3
Evaluate each action for its effectiveness in detecting respiratory compromise.
Auscultating breath sounds bilaterally allows the nurse to detect diminished or absent sounds, which indicate a pneumothorax.
Early detection of airway or breathing complications prevents rapid physiological deterioration.
4
Review the scope of practice regarding delegation.
Delegating the evaluation of a surgical puncture site is inappropriate, as evaluating for a hematoma constitutes an assessment.
Maintaining client safety requires ensuring that tasks are delegated only to appropriately licensed or certified personnel.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Procedural Complications
Soru 304Soru →

A pediatric client diagnosed with acute otitis media is receiving care in a clinic. The practical nurse (PN) reviews the electronic health record:

Vital Signs & Measurements:
Temperature: 101.4∘F101.4^\circ\text{F} (38.6∘C38.6^\circ\text{C})
Weight: 35.2 lb35.2\text{ lb}
Allergies: Penicillin (mild rash)

Provider Prescriptions:
Ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg/day50\text{ mg/kg/day} intramuscularly, divided into two equal doses.

Pharmacy Dispenses:
Ceftriaxone 1 g1\text{ g} vial of sterile powder.
Reconstitution instructions: Add 2.1 mL2.1\text{ mL} of sterile water for injection to yield a final concentration of 350 mg/mL350\text{ mg/mL}.

How many mL\text{mL} should the PN administer per dose? (Record the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in the answer.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1.1

Cevap

1.1
To administer the correct dose, the nurse must first convert the weight to kilograms, find the individual dose by dividing the daily total in half, and then use the final yield concentration (350 mg/mL350\text{ mg/mL}) to determine the volume to administer. The volume of diluent added (2.1 mL2.1\text{ mL}) is a distractor and is not used in the formula.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert pounds to kilograms.
16 kg16\text{ kg}
The medication is prescribed based on kilograms of body weight.
2
Calculate the total daily dose.
800 mg/day800\text{ mg/day}
Multiply the weight (16 kg16\text{ kg}) by the prescribed daily amount (50 mg/kg50\text{ mg/kg}).
3
Determine the single dose amount.
400 mg/dose400\text{ mg/dose}
The daily dose is divided into two equal doses (800 mg÷2=400 mg800\text{ mg} \div 2 = 400\text{ mg}).
4
Calculate the volume to administer.
1.1428... mL1.1428...\text{ mL}
Divide the desired single dose (400 mg400\text{ mg}) by the concentration (350 mg/mL350\text{ mg/mL}). The 2.1 mL2.1\text{ mL} of diluent is required for reconstitution but is irrelevant to the final volume calculation.
5
Round to the nearest tenth.
1.11.1
Follow the explicit rounding instructions provided in the question stem.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based pediatric dosage calculation and medication reconstitution
Soru 305Soru →

A practical nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an abdominal surgery. The client is prescribed oral hydromorphone every 4 hours as needed for pain. Upon entering the room to administer a requested dose, the nurse observes that the client is difficult to arouse, with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the hydromorphone, attempt to rouse the client, and immediately notify the registered nurse.

Cevap

The practical nurse should withhold the hydromorphone, attempt to rouse the client, and immediately notify the registered nurse.
The client is exhibiting signs of severe opioid-induced respiratory depression, as evidenced by a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute and hypoxia. The priority action is to ensure airway and breathing safety by withholding further central nervous system depressants, stimulating the client, and escalating the critical finding to the registered nurse for advanced intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client is difficult to arouse with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 88%.
To identify signs of opioid-induced respiratory depression before medication administration.
2
Prioritize interventions based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
Further administration of the central nervous system depressant is withheld.
Administering an opioid would exacerbate the life-threatening respiratory depression.
3
Determine the appropriate action within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The nurse stimulates the client to encourage breathing and escalates the critical situation to the registered nurse.
Advanced interventions, such as administering intravenous naloxone, are outside the practical nurse scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Opioid-Induced Respiratory Depression and PN Scope of Practice
Soru 306Soru →

A practical nurse is assessing an 8282-year-old client diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis who is receiving intravenous antibiotics. The client, who was previously oriented, suddenly exhibits marked restlessness and confusion. Vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 92/6092/60 mm Hg (baseline was 136/82136/82 mm Hg), a heart rate of 118118 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 2424 breaths/minute. Which action should the practical nurse implement first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Notify the registered nurse immediately to report the acute changes in condition.

Cevap

The correct action is to notify the registered nurse immediately regarding the acute changes in the client's condition.
The correct answer identifies the need for immediate escalation. The client's presentation of a known infection accompanied by sudden confusion, a significant drop in blood pressure, and tachycardia indicates early septic shock. Within the practical nurse's scope of practice, recognizing these critical cues and immediately notifying the registered nurse is the highest priority to ensure the client receives life-saving interventions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has a severe infection and is exhibiting new-onset confusion, restlessness, significant hypotension (92/6092/60 mm Hg from a baseline of 136/82136/82 mm Hg), tachycardia (118118 beats/minute), and tachypnea.
Identifying abnormal assessment data is the first step in clinical reasoning.
2
Correlate the findings to potential complications.
The combination of infection, altered mental status, and deteriorating vital signs points strongly to systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) or early septic shock.
Recognizing patterns of physiological decompensation ensures timely intervention.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on scope of practice.
The practical nurse must urgently escalate these critical findings to the registered nurse or provider for immediate medical intervention.
Initiating advanced shock management requires the RN and provider, making immediate communication the highest priority.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of shock and acute physiological decompensation requires immediate escalation to the registered nurse.
Soru 307Soru →

A practical nurse is evaluating an older adult resident in a long-term care setting who has been receiving oral antibiotics for the past three days to treat a lower extremity soft tissue infection. During an evening check, the resident appears unusually drowsy, is unable to identify a visiting family member, and has a blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg with a resting pulse of 102 beats per minute. The resident's documented baseline blood pressure is 138/78 mm Hg. Which conclusion should guide the nurse's immediate response?

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Cevap: The current data indicates potential systemic hypoperfusion, necessitating urgent escalation of medical care.

Cevap

The correct conclusion is that the data indicates potential systemic hypoperfusion, requiring urgent medical escalation.
The correct answer identifies that the combination of a significant drop in baseline blood pressure, tachycardia, and a sudden change in mental status in a client with an active infection strongly suggests early sepsis and systemic hypoperfusion. This represents an acute failure of physiological adaptation, requiring immediate intervention to restore adequate circulation and tissue oxygenation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs by comparing the current readings to the documented baseline parameters.
The blood pressure has dropped significantly from a baseline of 138/78 mm Hg to 104/60 mm Hg, which is accompanied by a resting pulse of 102 beats per minute.
Recognizing relative hypotension (a significant drop from baseline, even if the absolute number does not meet strict hypotensive criteria) and tachycardia is crucial for identifying early hemodynamic instability.
2
Correlate the objective physical data with the new onset of neurological changes and the active infection diagnosis.
The combination of relative hypotension, tachycardia, new-onset lethargy, and a pre-existing soft tissue infection points directly to a severe systemic complication.
Acute confusion or uncharacteristic drowsiness in an older adult, especially alongside an active infection and vital sign changes, is frequently the earliest indicator of sepsis and inadequate cerebral perfusion.
3
Prioritize the nursing response based on the severity and acuity of the identified condition.
The nurse must determine that the client is experiencing impending shock and initiate an urgent emergency response.
Systemic hypoperfusion is a life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) emergency that takes absolute precedence over routine monitoring, comfort measures, or psychosocial interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing early signs of systemic hypoperfusion and sepsis in older adults
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 308Soru →

A practical nurse enters the room of a client who has a central venous catheter. The nurse discovers that the intravenous tubing has disconnected from the catheter hub. The client suddenly reports sharp chest pain, is gasping for air, and appears cyanotic. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to reduce the client's risk of further harm? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for managing a suspected central line air embolism is to first clamp the catheter to stop air entry, then position the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position to trap the air, followed by administering high-flow oxygen, activating the Rapid Response Team, and finally obtaining vital signs.
The sequence reflects the fundamental principles of risk reduction during an acute central line complication: stop the source of the injury (clamp), mitigate the immediate pathophysiological risk (position to trap air), treat the physiological symptoms (oxygen), escalate care (call for help), and evaluate the client's status (vital signs).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the disconnected central venous catheter.
Stops further air from entering the circulatory system.
The most critical initial action in any mechanical hazard is to eliminate the source of the harm before addressing the consequences.
2
Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air embolus in the right ventricle.
This specific gravitational positioning prevents the air bubble from moving forward into the pulmonary circulation, which would cause an acute right ventricular outflow obstruction.
3
Administer high-flow oxygen.
Treats systemic hypoxia and reduces the size of the embolus.
Administering 100% oxygen addresses the respiratory distress and creates a diffusion gradient that helps the body resorb the nitrogen-rich air bubble.
4
Activate the Rapid Response Team.
Summons advanced medical and critical care support.
An air embolism is a profound systemic emergency requiring interventions and continuous monitoring beyond the practical nurse's scope of practice.
5
Obtain vital signs.
Establishes a baseline of the client's current physiological status.
Vital signs provide essential, objective data regarding cardiac output and respiratory effort for the Rapid Response Team upon their arrival.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of interventions for a central venous catheter air embolism requires stopping the source of air first, followed by mechanical positioning to trap the air, and then supportive oxygen therapy.
Soru 309Soru →

A 55-year-old individual is recovering on the surgical unit 24 hours after a right-sided modified radical mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. As the practical nurse organizes basic care and comfort measures for the shift, which of the following actions should be included in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Elevate the client's right arm on a pillow while resting in bed.; Encourage the client to perform finger-flexion and wrist-rotation exercises with the right hand.

Cevap

The correct actions are to elevate the client's right arm on a pillow while resting and to encourage finger-flexion and wrist-rotation exercises with the right hand.
The correct answers involve elevating the affected right arm on a pillow and encouraging simple distal movements like finger-flexion and wrist-rotation. Following an axillary lymph node dissection, normal lymphatic drainage is disrupted, predisposing the client to lymphedema (swelling) and severe discomfort. Elevating the arm uses gravity to facilitate fluid return, thereby reducing edema and pain. Additionally, gentle distal exercises such as hand squeezing or wrist rotation promote circulation and prevent joint stiffness without placing undue stress on the fresh chest wall incision.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's surgical procedure.
The client had a right-sided mastectomy with axillary lymph node removal.
Lymph node removal disrupts normal lymphatic drainage pathways, increasing the client's risk for lymphedema and significant discomfort in the affected upper extremity.
2
Evaluate positioning and mobility options for comfort and safety.
Elevating the right arm and encouraging distal joint exercises are appropriate interventions.
Elevation uses gravity to assist lymphatic fluid return away from the hand and arm, while simple distal exercises promote circulation without straining the chest wall suture lines.
3
Identify contraindicated actions that compromise safety or comfort.
Dependent positioning, lying on the operative side, and delegating assessments to UAP are incorrect.
Dependent positions and direct pressure on the operative side worsen tissue edema and pain. Furthermore, wound assessment falls outside the UAP's legal scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-mastectomy basic care and comfort focuses on preventing lymphedema and pain by elevating the affected arm and promoting circulation through gentle, distal range-of-motion exercises.
Soru 310Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to collect a sterile urine specimen for culture and sensitivity from a client's indwelling urinary catheter. To reduce the risk of sample contamination and client infection, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.)

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first clamp the tubing to collect urine, clean the port, withdraw the sample with a syringe, transfer it to a sterile cup, and finally unclamp the tubing.
The collection of a sterile urine specimen from a closed urinary drainage system requires strict aseptic technique to prevent introducing bacteria into the client's bladder and to ensure the laboratory results are accurate. First, the tubing is clamped to collect freshly produced urine. Next, the port must be disinfected before access. A sterile syringe is then used to withdraw the sample from the clean port. The sample is transferred to a sterile cup, and finally, the tubing must be unclamped to prevent urinary retention and potential kidney damage from backflow.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the drainage tubing.
Fresh urine collects above the clamp.
Urine from the drainage bag is not sterile; fresh urine must be collected to ensure an accurate culture.
2
Scrub the aspiration port.
The surface of the port is disinfected.
Prevents the introduction of surface pathogens into the urinary tract when the syringe is attached.
3
Aspirate the urine.
A sterile sample is obtained.
Safely extracts the accumulated urine using a closed-system approach.
4
Transfer the sample.
The urine is secured in a sterile container.
Prepares the specimen for transport to the laboratory without environmental contamination.
5
Remove the clamp.
Continuous bladder drainage is restored.
Prevents urinary retention, bladder spasms, and potential kidney damage from urine backflow.

Anahtar Kavram

Sterile Specimen Collection from a Closed Drainage System
Soru 311Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer prescribed timolol eye drops to a client diagnosed with glaucoma. Assuming hand hygiene has been performed and clean gloves are applied, in what order should the PN perform the following steps?

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first cleanse the eye, position the client looking upward, expose the conjunctival sac, instill the medication into the sac, and finally apply pressure to the nasolacrimal duct.
The proper sequence for ophthalmic administration prioritizes infection control, client safety, and the prevention of systemic absorption. Cleansing the eye first prevents the introduction of debris. Proper positioning and exposing the conjunctival sac protect the highly sensitive cornea from injury. Instilling the medication into the sac ensures even distribution. Finally, applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct is a critical safety step to prevent systemic effects of the medication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Cleanse the client's eyelid and eyelashes, wiping from the inner to the outer canthus.
Debris is removed from the eye area.
Prevents the introduction of external contaminants into the eye during administration.
2
Instruct the client to tilt their head back slightly and look up at the ceiling.
The cornea is rotated upward and away.
Reduces the risk of stimulating the blink reflex and protects the cornea from injury.
3
Gently pull down the client's lower eyelid using a thumb or index finger to expose the conjunctival sac.
The conjunctival sac is exposed.
Creates a pouch to safely receive the medication without dropping it directly onto the sensitive cornea.
4
Instill the prescribed number of drops into the center of the lower conjunctival sac.
Medication is delivered evenly without touching the eye.
Prevents injury to the cornea and maintains the sterility of the medication dropper.
5
Apply gentle pressure to the client's nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds.
The nasolacrimal duct is occluded.
Prevents systemic absorption of the medication, which is critical when administering beta-blockers like timolol.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of Ophthalmic Medications
Soru 312Soru →

A practical nurse is assessing a client who underwent an open bowel resection 1212 hours ago. Which clinical finding should the nurse identify as the highest priority to report to the registered nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A resting heart rate of 114114 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 98/6298/62 mm Hg

Cevap

The correct answer is the finding of a resting heart rate of 114 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 98/62 mm Hg.
The correct answer is the elevated heart rate and lowered blood pressure, as these are classic signs of early hypovolemic shock. In a client who is 1212 hours postoperative, these borderline vital signs strongly suggest internal hemorrhage or severe fluid volume deficit. This is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate escalation to the registered nurse for assessment, fluid resuscitation, and provider notification.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's timeframe and surgical procedure.
The client is 1212 hours post-open bowel resection, placing them in a critical window for postoperative hemorrhage and fluid shifts.
Identifying the postoperative timeframe highlights the most likely physiological risks.
2
Evaluate the vital signs option against baseline expectations.
Tachycardia (heart rate of 114114) combined with borderline hypotension (blood pressure of 98/6298/62) are classic indicators of early hypovolemic shock.
Vital signs provide objective data about the client's circulatory status.
3
Apply the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework to compare the options.
Circulatory compromise (shock) takes priority over expected postoperative pain (comfort), slightly abnormal but stable labs, and scope of practice limitations regarding medication administration.
The ABC framework ensures life-threatening physiological needs are addressed first.
4
Select the most life-threatening finding.
The vital signs indicating early shock require immediate registered nurse notification for prompt fluid resuscitation.
Delaying treatment for shock can result in irreversible organ damage or death.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Prioritization of Postoperative Complications
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 313Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is assigned to care for a client with bipolar disorder who is receiving scheduled oral lithium carbonate. The PN reviews the client's morning electronic health record and notes a serum lithium level of 2.2 mEq/L2.2 \text{ mEq/L}. The next dose of lithium is due in 30 minutes. Which of the following actions should the PN take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the scheduled medication and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN).

Cevap

Withhold the scheduled medication and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN).
The client's serum lithium level of 2.2 mEq/L2.2 \text{ mEq/L} indicates toxicity, as the normal therapeutic range is typically 0.60.6 to 1.2 mEq/L1.2 \text{ mEq/L}. The safest and most appropriate action within the practical nurse's scope of practice is to withhold the scheduled dose to prevent further harm and immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider so that the treatment plan can be medically evaluated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the client's laboratory results against normal therapeutic ranges.
The serum lithium level is 2.2 mEq/L2.2 \text{ mEq/L}, which is significantly above the expected therapeutic range of 0.60.6 to 1.2 mEq/L1.2 \text{ mEq/L}.
Recognizing critical laboratory values is essential before administering narrow-therapeutic-index medications.
2
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention for a toxic medication level.
The scheduled dose of lithium must be withheld to prevent further central nervous system and renal toxicity.
Administering the medication would exacerbate the existing toxicity and cause patient harm.
3
Apply the practical nurse (PN) scope of practice regarding abnormal findings.
The PN must report the critical lab value to the supervising registered nurse (RN) or healthcare provider.
The PN is responsible for gathering data and reporting significant deviations from normal to the RN for further assessment and collaborative management.

Anahtar Kavram

Lithium toxicity recognition and the practical nurse's role in withholding medication and escalating critical findings.
Soru 314Soru →

The practical nurse (PN) is providing care for a client who recently returned to the surgical unit following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which positioning technique should the PN implement to maintain client comfort and safety?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position and support the client's head and neck.

Cevap

Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position and support the client's head and neck.
Following a thyroidectomy, placing the client in a semi-Fowler's position (30 to 45 degrees) with the head and neck carefully supported by pillows is the optimal intervention. This position utilizes gravity to reduce swelling and edema in the neck area. Furthermore, keeping the head in a neutral, supported position decreases tension on the surgical suture line, minimizes discomfort, and crucially helps maintain a patent airway, which is the absolute primary postoperative priority for this specific surgery.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's surgical procedure (subtotal thyroidectomy).
Identify that the surgical incision is on the anterior neck.
Understanding the surgical site is essential for determining the safest and most comfortable postoperative position.
2
Determine the primary postoperative risks for this procedure.
Recognize that edema, bleeding, and hematoma formation in the neck can lead to life-threatening airway obstruction.
Anticipating complications guides the prioritization of nursing interventions.
3
Select the positioning technique that mitigates these risks.
Choose a semi-Fowler's position with the head and neck carefully supported by pillows.
Gravity helps reduce edema in the head and neck, while firm support prevents hyperextension or hyperflexion, protecting the airway and the integrity of the suture line.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Postoperative Positioning for Airway Protection
Soru 315Soru →

Following the change-of-shift report, a practical nurse reviews the electronic health record of an older adult client hospitalized for a heart failure exacerbation. The client's morning serum potassium result is 2.8 mEq/L2.8\text{ mEq/L} (2.8 mmol/L2.8\text{ mmol/L}). The active medication administration record includes scheduled oral furosemide, oral potassium chloride, and a new one-time order for intravenous (IV) push bumetanide. Which of the following actions should the practical nurse take? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the scheduled oral furosemide dose until the healthcare provider is consulted.; Promptly communicate the morning serum potassium results to the supervising registered nurse.; Auscultate the client's apical heart rate for one full minute to assess for irregular rhythms.

Cevap

The correct actions are to withhold the scheduled oral furosemide, communicate the critical potassium level to the registered nurse, and auscultate the apical heart rate for irregularities.
A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates severe hypokalemia. The practical nurse must prioritize client safety by withholding the potassium-wasting diuretic (furosemide), reporting the critical lab value to the registered nurse for prompt intervention, and monitoring the client for hypokalemia-induced cardiac complications by checking the apical pulse for irregularities.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's laboratory data.
The serum potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L, which indicates severe hypokalemia (normal reference range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L).
Identifying abnormal laboratory values is essential before safely administering any medication.
2
Evaluate the prescribed medications in relation to the laboratory findings.
Furosemide is a potassium-wasting loop diuretic. Giving it would further deplete potassium levels.
Preventing medication-induced complications requires withholding contraindicated drugs when critical lab values are present.
3
Determine the practical nurse's scope of practice regarding the new IV orders.
The practical nurse identifies that administering IV push medications, such as bumetanide, is outside their scope of practice.
Ensuring safe delegation and assignment limits legal liability and protects the client from harm.
4
Formulate a safe plan of care based on the findings and scope of practice.
The nurse plans to hold the furosemide, report the critical potassium level to the registered nurse, and monitor the client's cardiac status by auscultating the apical pulse.
These actions align with the practical nurse's responsibilities for data collection, medication safety, and clinical escalation.

Anahtar Kavram

Medication safety, critical laboratory monitoring, and practical nursing scope of practice.
Soru 316Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to apply knee-high anti-embolism stockings to a client who is prescribed prolonged bed rest. In what order should the PN perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

First, place the client in a supine position. Second, turn the stocking inside out to the heel. Third, apply the stocking over the toes and heel. Fourth, slide it up the calf. Finally, smooth out any wrinkles.
The correct sequence for applying anti-embolism stockings prioritizes promoting venous return and protecting skin integrity. The client must first be supine to allow blood to drain from the lower extremities. Preparing the stocking by turning it to the heel allows for smooth application over the foot, followed by pulling it up the calf. Finally, smoothing wrinkles prevents pressure injuries.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the client's position and timing before application.
The client is placed in a supine position for 15 to 30 minutes.
This prevents trapping dependent venous blood in the lower legs.
2
Prepare the stocking for application.
The stocking is inverted inside out down to the heel pocket.
This technique allows for controlled, precise placement over the foot without excessive pulling or friction.
3
Apply the stocking to the foot.
The stocking covers the toes and the heel pocket is correctly aligned.
Proper alignment of the heel pocket is crucial for comfort and correct compression distribution.
4
Apply the stocking to the lower leg.
The remainder of the stocking is slid up the calf.
This applies the graduated compression needed to promote venous return.
5
Inspect the applied stocking.
All wrinkles and creases are smoothed out.
Wrinkles act as a tourniquet, impeding venous return and potentially causing skin breakdown.

Anahtar Kavram

Application of Anti-Embolism Stockings
Soru 317Soru →

During a postoperative check, a practical nurse observes a 28-year-old client recovering from an open reduction and internal fixation of a femur fracture. Six hours after surgery, the client has developed new-onset restlessness and pale, cool skin. Vital signs show a heart rate of 118 bpm, a blood pressure of 102/68 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. The client complains of moderate leg discomfort. Which priority action should the nurse implement?

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Cevap: Report the sudden change in clinical status to the supervising registered nurse.

Cevap

The correct priority action is to report the sudden change in clinical status to the supervising registered nurse.
The correct answer acknowledges that the client is displaying classic early signs of hypovolemic shock, including tachycardia, borderline hypotension, restlessness, and pale, cool skin. In the practical nursing scope of practice, recognizing acute physiological decompensation requires immediate escalation to the registered nurse or provider for advanced assessment and collaborative intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical data.
The client has new-onset restlessness, pale/cool skin, tachycardia (118 bpm), and borderline hypotension (102/68 mmHg) following major bone surgery.
Recognizing clustered assessment cues is the first step in clinical judgment.
2
Determine the underlying physiological complication.
These findings collectively indicate early hypovolemic shock, likely due to postoperative internal hemorrhage.
Connecting vital sign trends with physical symptoms helps identify life-threatening conditions.
3
Apply the practical nursing scope of practice and ABC prioritization principles.
The priority is to escalate acute circulatory compromise (Circulation) rather than addressing comfort or implementing routine postoperative tasks.
Airway, breathing, and circulation issues always take precedence over pain management or routine documentation.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock and acute physiological decompensation
Soru 318Soru →

An older adult client with a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection in a venous stasis ulcer is scheduled to visit the rehabilitation department for ambulation training. Which action by the practical nurse best demonstrates adherence to both infection control and professional safety standards?

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Cevap: Ensuring the venous ulcer is fully covered with a clean, intact dressing to contain any drainage before the client exits the room.

Cevap

Ensuring the venous ulcer is fully covered with a clean, intact dressing to contain any drainage before the client exits the room.
When a client on contact precautions must leave their room for essential purposes such as physical therapy, the primary infection control goal is to contain the source of the pathogen. For an active MRSA wound infection, ensuring the site is fully covered with a clean, dry, and intact dressing effectively prevents the bacteria from shedding into the environment or coming into contact with public surfaces during transport.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the transmission route for the specified pathogen.
MRSA is spread through direct or indirect contact with the infected area or contaminated surfaces, requiring Contact Precautions.
Understanding how the bacteria spreads is essential for determining how to prevent transmission during transport.
2
Determine the infection control requirements for moving a client on Contact Precautions outside their room.
The primary requirement is to contain the source of the infection to prevent shedding into the environment.
If the infected area is fully contained, the client poses minimal risk to the hospital environment and can safely attend essential therapies.
3
Evaluate the given options against professional nursing standards.
Covering the wound safely contains the pathogen without breaching client confidentiality or making inappropriate delegations.
This single action satisfies both infection control guidelines and legal/ethical nursing responsibilities.

Anahtar Kavram

Transporting Clients on Contact Precautions
Soru 319Soru →

A practical nurse is providing care for a client who is on strict bed rest for a deep vein thrombosis. The client abruptly becomes restless and confused, exhibiting a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 98 beats per minute (baseline 72 beats per minute). The client also reports a vague sense of impending doom. Which action should the practical nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Elevate the head of the client's bed and notify the registered nurse.

Cevap

Elevate the head of the client's bed and notify the registered nurse.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication of a deep vein thrombosis. The immediate priority is to support the client's breathing by elevating the head of the bed (high-Fowler's position) to maximize lung expansion. Because this is a medical emergency requiring advanced interventions, the practical nurse must simultaneously notify the registered nurse to activate a rapid medical response.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and client history.
The client has a known deep vein thrombosis and has suddenly developed restlessness, confusion, tachypnea (24 breaths/min), tachycardia (98 beats/min), and a sense of impending doom.
Identifying these classic signs is crucial for recognizing a potential pulmonary embolism, a severe complication of a deep vein thrombosis.
2
Determine the priority framework.
Apply the Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABC) prioritization framework.
A pulmonary embolism primarily compromises breathing and circulation, representing a life-threatening medical emergency.
3
Select the most appropriate initial nursing intervention.
Elevating the head of the bed supports the client's respiratory effort, and notifying the registered nurse initiates the rapid medical response required.
The practical nurse must take immediate actions within their scope of practice to protect the airway and escalate care for acute instability.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition of Pulmonary Embolism and ABC Prioritization
Soru 320Soru →

A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis is receiving a daily pharmacological regimen that includes oral isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Prior to administering the scheduled morning doses, the practical nurse (PN) reviews the client's current data. The client states, "My urine has been a bright orange-red color for the last two days." The morning laboratory results show an aspartate aminotransferase (AST) of 152 U/L and an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 168 U/L. Based on these clinical findings, which action is most appropriate for the practical nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the scheduled tuberculosis medications and promptly report the laboratory results to the registered nurse (RN).

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to withhold the scheduled tuberculosis medications and promptly report the laboratory results to the registered nurse (RN).
Isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide are highly hepatotoxic medications. The significant elevation of liver enzymes (AST and ALT > 3 times the upper limit of normal) indicates drug-induced liver injury. The practical nurse must recognize this critical laboratory finding, safely withhold the medications, and immediately escalate the information to the RN or healthcare provider. While the orange-red urine is a known, harmless side effect of rifampin, the elevated transaminases require immediate clinical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's subjective report of orange-red urine.
Recognize this as a normal, expected, and harmless side effect.
Rifampin commonly causes discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, sweat, and tears.
2
Evaluate the morning laboratory results (AST 152 U/L, ALT 168 U/L).
Identify that the liver enzymes are significantly elevated above normal ranges.
Isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide all carry a high risk of drug-induced hepatotoxicity.
3
Determine the safest clinical intervention based on the practical nursing scope of practice.
Withhold the scheduled hepatotoxic medications and notify the supervising RN.
Administering the medications in the presence of active liver injury can lead to severe or fatal hepatic failure, requiring immediate escalation.

Anahtar Kavram

Monitoring for severe adverse effects of antitubercular medications and applying the practical nursing scope of practice for critical laboratory values.
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