Examkin

Tüm alıştırma soruları

2933 soru

Tüm türler2,933Çoktan seçmeli1,506Çoklu seçim653Sayısal68Eşleştirme70Sıralama636
Soru 941Soru →

A client who recently received a terminal diagnosis explicitly tells the healthcare team, "I do not want my children to know about my condition." Later that afternoon, the client's adult child, who is listed in the chart as the emergency contact, approaches the practical nurse and asks for an update on the client's recent biopsy results. Which action should the nurse take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Inform the child that privacy regulations prohibit the disclosure of medical information and encourage them to speak directly with the client.

Cevap

Inform the child that privacy regulations prohibit the disclosure of medical information and encourage them to speak directly with the client.
The correct action prioritizes the client's right to privacy and confidentiality. A competent client has the absolute right to determine who receives their health information. The nurse must respect this decision, even if the inquiring individual is a close family member or listed as an emergency contact, by maintaining privacy and therapeutically redirecting the inquiry back to the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's request regarding their medical information.
The client explicitly refused to share their diagnosis with their children.
Client rights include the right to privacy and absolute control over who receives their protected health information.
2
Evaluate the status of the adult child inquiring about the results.
The child is listed as an emergency contact, but this does not override the client's explicit wish for privacy.
Emergency contacts are meant for notification in acute, incapacitating emergencies, not for the routine sharing of medical updates against a competent client's wishes.
3
Determine the appropriate practical nurse response.
The nurse must respectfully withhold the medical update and redirect the child.
This maintains legal compliance with confidentiality regulations and respects the client's autonomy.

Anahtar Kavram

Client Confidentiality and Autonomy
Soru 942Soru →

A client being treated for a deep vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion. While the practical nurse is assisting the client with morning hygiene, the client suddenly complains of a severe, new-onset headache. The client's most recent activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 118 seconds, and the normal control value is 30 seconds. Which of the following actions should the practical nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Immediately alert the supervising registered nurse about the client's symptom and laboratory value

Cevap

The practical nurse should immediately alert the supervising registered nurse about the client's symptom and the elevated aPTT result.
The client is presenting with a new symptom (severe headache) that, when combined with a critically elevated aPTT (118 seconds), strongly suggests a life-threatening complication such as an intracranial hemorrhage. The therapeutic range for aPTT is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value (45 to 75 seconds). A value of 118 seconds places the client at extreme risk for spontaneous bleeding. The primary responsibility of the practical nurse in this scenario is to recognize the risk potential and immediately escalate the situation to the supervising registered nurse for prompt evaluation and intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the laboratory data
The aPTT of 118 seconds is significantly higher than the therapeutic range (which is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control of 30 seconds, or 45 to 75 seconds).
To determine if the client is at an increased risk for adverse effects from the heparin infusion.
2
Correlate the laboratory data with the clinical symptom
A severe, new-onset headache combined with a critically high aPTT indicates an extreme risk for spontaneous bleeding, specifically a potential intracranial hemorrhage.
To recognize the presence of a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention within the practical nurse scope of practice
The situation requires immediate escalation to the registered nurse (RN) or healthcare provider.
The practical nurse must report critical findings and changes in condition to the RN for advanced assessment, collaborative management, and potential changes to the medical treatment plan.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing and Escalating Critical Laboratory Values and Complications
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 943Soru →

Assigned to a 9-year-old pediatric client who is 8 hours post-tonsillectomy, a practical nurse (PN) reviews the medication administration record. The child weighs 66 lbs66\text{ lbs} (30 kg30\text{ kg}) and has a prescription for oral acetaminophen 15 mg/kg/dose15\text{ mg/kg/dose} every 4 hours PRN for moderate pain. The unit's automated dispensing cabinet supplies an acetaminophen oral suspension of 160 mg/5 mL160\text{ mg}/5\text{ mL}.

While obtaining the client's vital signs, the PN documents the following data:

AssessmentFinding
Heart Rate128 bpm128\text{ bpm}
Blood Pressure92/58 mmHg92/58\text{ mmHg}
Respiratory Rate22 breaths/min22\text{ breaths/min}
BehaviorRestless, frequent swallowing

The charge registered nurse (RN) is currently stabilizing another patient and verbally instructs the PN to "go ahead and give the child 14 mL14\text{ mL} of the PRN acetaminophen to manage their throat pain."

Which action demonstrates the most appropriate clinical judgment by the PN?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the oral medication, maintain the client on nothing by mouth (NPO) status, and immediately alert the RN to assess for possible hemorrhage.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to withhold the oral medication, maintain the client on NPO status, and immediately alert the RN to assess for possible hemorrhage.
The correct action prioritizes client safety by recognizing the classic signs of postoperative tonsillar hemorrhage (frequent swallowing, restlessness, tachycardia). Despite the RN's verbal instruction and the mathematical accuracy of the 14 mL14\text{ mL} dose, the PN must utilize clinical judgment to withhold oral intake (preventing aspiration and maintaining NPO status for possible emergency surgery) and immediately escalate the critical findings.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client exhibits frequent swallowing, restlessness, a heart rate of 128 bpm128\text{ bpm}, and a blood pressure of 92/58 mmHg92/58\text{ mmHg}.
Recognizing patterns in vital signs and behavior is essential for identifying postoperative complications like hemorrhage.
2
Evaluate the requested pharmacological intervention against the clinical data.
Although the RN's calculated dose of 14 mL14\text{ mL} is mathematically correct (30 kg×15 mg/kg=450 mg30\text{ kg} \times 15\text{ mg/kg} = 450\text{ mg}; 450÷160×5=14 mL450 \div 160 \times 5 = 14\text{ mL}), administering an oral medication is unsafe.
Giving oral fluids or medications to a actively bleeding post-tonsillectomy client increases aspiration risk and violates NPO status needed for potential surgical re-intervention.
3
Determine the appropriate action within the PN scope of practice.
The PN must refuse the unsafe delegation, withhold the medication, and escalate the critical findings to the RN.
The PN is responsible for recognizing life-threatening changes in a client's condition, withholding contraindicated medications, and communicating immediately with the RN or provider.

Anahtar Kavram

Pre-administration withholding criteria and recognizing subtle signs of postoperative hemorrhage.
Soru 944Soru →

A practical nurse enters a client's room and observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) attempting to manually pull a completely dependent client toward the head of the bed by grasping under the client's axillae (armpits). The client is 24 hours postoperative following a cervical spinal fusion. Which action should the practical nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Instruct the UAP to stop immediately, lower the head of the bed to a flat position, and use a friction-reducing sheet with additional staff assistance.

Cevap

Instruct the UAP to stop immediately, lower the head of the bed to a flat position, and use a friction-reducing sheet with additional staff assistance.
The practical nurse must immediately intervene to stop an unsafe ergonomic practice. Manually lifting a completely dependent client by the axillae poses a severe risk for musculoskeletal injury to the healthcare worker and can cause brachial plexus nerve damage to the client. Furthermore, a client with a recent cervical spinal fusion requires strict neutral spinal alignment. The safest approach is to lay the bed flat, use a friction-reducing device, and employ an adequate number of staff to slide the client up without compromising the spine.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the UAP's action.
The UAP is using a manual axillary drag on a dependent postoperative patient.
Identifying the immediate ergonomic and patient safety hazard is the first step in prioritizing care.
2
Consider the client's postoperative status.
The client is 24 hours post-cervical spinal fusion and requires strict neutral spinal alignment.
Surgical precautions dictate specific safe handling techniques and contraindicate manual dragging or elevated bed positions during movement.
3
Determine the safest ergonomic intervention.
The manual lift must be stopped immediately. A friction-reducing sheet with multiple staff members is required with the bed laid flat.
This approach minimizes physical strain on the healthcare workers, prevents brachial plexus injury, and protects the client's vulnerable cervical spine.

Anahtar Kavram

Ergonomics and Safe Patient Handling
Soru 945Soru →

A client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) heparin infusion for the treatment of a deep vein thrombosis. The practical nurse is reviewing the client's clinical data. Which finding is the priority to report to the registered nurse (RN) immediately?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A heart rate of 118 beats per minute and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg

Cevap

The finding that requires immediate reporting is the elevated heart rate combined with low blood pressure.
Tachycardia (heart rate of 118 beats per minute) and hypotension (blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg) are classic early physiological signs of hypovolemia or shock. In a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion, these vital signs strongly suggest active internal hemorrhage. The practical nurse must immediately report these findings to the RN for rapid intervention, as bleeding is the most significant and potentially life-threatening adverse effect of anticoagulant therapy.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current treatment and associated physiological risks.
The client is on a continuous heparin infusion, which carries a high risk for bleeding complications, including concealed internal hemorrhage.
Identifying the primary risk factor helps prioritize assessment findings.
2
Evaluate the laboratory values provided in the clinical data.
The aPTT of 64 seconds is within the therapeutic target range for heparin. The platelet count of 190,000/mm³ is normal.
Normal or therapeutic laboratory results represent stable findings that do not require emergency escalation.
3
Evaluate the physiological measurements and vital signs.
The urine output is adequate at 40 mL/hr. However, the heart rate of 118 beats per minute and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg indicate a hypotensive and tachycardic state.
Adequate urine output indicates stable renal function, while abnormal vital signs point to a systemic issue.
4
Synthesize the findings to determine the priority nursing action.
The combination of tachycardia and hypotension in an anticoagulated client strongly suggests internal bleeding or hypovolemic shock, requiring immediate escalation to the RN.
Early recognition of shock signs is critical for client safety and risk reduction.

Anahtar Kavram

Monitoring for and identifying early signs of hemorrhage (such as tachycardia and hypotension) in clients receiving anticoagulant therapy is a critical component of risk reduction.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 946Soru →

An older adult client who is two days postoperative from abdominal surgery suddenly exhibits severe disorientation and agitation. The client is repeatedly attempting to remove their surgical dressing and peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the practical nurse (PN) take to prevent client injury? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Wrap a flexible tubular bandage over the IV site and surgical dressing to conceal them from the client's view.; Provide a folded washcloth or a sensory item for the client to hold in their hands.; Notify the registered nurse (RN) immediately to collaborate on assessing the client for underlying causes of the acute agitation.

Cevap

The correct actions are to wrap a tubular bandage over the sites to conceal them, provide a sensory item for the client to hold, and notify the RN immediately to assess for underlying physiological causes.
To prevent injury in an agitated client, the PN must prioritize least restrictive safety measures. Concealing medical devices with a tubular bandage and providing a sensory distraction (such as a washcloth) effectively redirect the client's attention and physically protect the sites without restricting their freedom of movement. Furthermore, a sudden onset of confusion and agitation in an older adult is a medical emergency—often indicating acute delirium driven by hypoxia, infection, or medication toxicity. The PN must notify the RN immediately to facilitate a comprehensive assessment and address the root physiological cause of the unsafe behavior.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's presentation and immediate risks.
The client is experiencing an acute, sudden-onset episode of confusion and agitation, which increases the immediate risk of self-injury through the removal of essential medical devices.
Identifying the nature of the safety risk guides the selection of appropriate, prioritized interventions.
2
Determine appropriate, least-restrictive injury prevention interventions.
Implementing restraint alternatives, such as concealing the devices with a tubular bandage and providing a tactile distraction like a washcloth, are prioritized over physical restraints.
Regulatory and ethical standards mandate that least restrictive measures must always be attempted and exhausted before physical restraints are utilized to maintain client safety and dignity.
3
Evaluate the clinical urgency and scope of practice requirements.
The PN escalates the acute change in mental status to the RN for a comprehensive assessment rather than delegating evaluation tasks to a UAP or dismissing it as normal aging.
Sudden confusion in an older adult is frequently a symptom of a reversible, acute medical emergency (e.g., hypoxia, sepsis) and requires RN-level or provider-level clinical judgment to diagnose and treat.

Anahtar Kavram

Implementation of least restrictive restraint alternatives and the recognition of acute delirium in older adults.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 947Soru →

Following a diagnostic lumbar puncture, a client is monitored in the outpatient observation area. The practical nurse is responsible for the client's immediate recovery care. Which positioning strategy should the nurse implement?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Keep the client flat in a supine position.

Cevap

Keep the client flat in a supine position.
After a lumbar puncture, the client must remain flat (usually supine) for a period prescribed by the provider (often 4 to 8 hours). This specific positioning strategy minimizes tension and hydrostatic pressure on the dural puncture, preventing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from leaking out. CSF leakage leads to decreased intracranial volume, resulting in a severe, throbbing spinal headache.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the nature of the procedure.
A lumbar puncture involves inserting a needle into the subarachnoid space to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Understanding the anatomical disruption helps predict potential post-procedure complications.
2
Determine the most common complication.
The most frequent complication is a spinal headache caused by the continued leakage of CSF from the dural puncture site.
Nursing interventions must prioritize the prevention of this specific adverse event.
3
Select the appropriate intervention to mitigate the risk.
Positioning the client flat (supine) minimizes gravity-induced hydrostatic pressure on the puncture site, allowing the dura to seal and preventing CSF loss.
Proper mechanical positioning is a direct and effective basic care measure within the practical nurse's scope.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Procedure Comfort and Positioning
Soru 948Soru →

A client receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube suddenly experiences a severe bout of coughing accompanied by tachypnea and audible airway gurgling. To effectively reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia and stabilize the client, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate risk mitigation by stopping the pump and protecting the airway with positioning, followed by gathering assessment data, escalating to the registered nurse, and finally documenting the event.
This sequence adheres to the Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) priority framework and the nursing process. Turning off the pump immediately removes the aspiration hazard. Positioning the client utilizes gravity to further protect the airway. Assessing vital signs provides essential objective data for the subsequent escalation to the registered nurse. Documentation finalizes the process once the client is stabilized and safe.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the immediate threat and turn off the enteral feeding pump.
The flow of enteral formula is halted.
Risk mitigation requires immediate cessation of the offending agent to prevent further aspiration.
2
Position the client upright in a high Fowler's position or on their side.
The airway is protected using gravity.
This prevents pooling of fluids in the pharynx and maximizes lung expansion.
3
Assess vital signs, lung sounds, and oxygen saturation.
Objective data regarding the respiratory compromise is gathered.
Accurate assessment dictates the urgency and type of further medical interventions required.
4
Report the clinical findings to the supervising registered nurse.
The healthcare team is alerted to the acute change in condition.
The practical nurse must escalate critical findings that require advanced orders, such as suctioning or imaging.
5
Document the event and all nursing actions taken.
A permanent legal record of the emergency is created.
Documentation finalizes the nursing process only after the client has been safely stabilized.

Anahtar Kavram

Airway protection and prioritization of risk mitigation during a suspected aspiration event.
Soru 949Soru →

During morning rounds, the practical nurse is assisting a client who recently had a right total hip replacement via a posterior approach. The client requires help with bathing and changing positions in bed. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe positioning and comfort?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain an abduction wedge between the lower extremities when turning the client.

Cevap

The nurse should maintain an abduction wedge between the lower extremities when turning the client to prevent adduction and potential hip dislocation.
Following a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, it is critical to prevent adduction (crossing the legs across the body's midline) and hyperflexion of the affected hip to avoid dislocating the new prosthesis. Using an abduction wedge or placing pillows between the legs keeps the hips properly aligned in slight abduction when the client is resting or being turned, ensuring joint safety and comfort.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific postoperative precautions.
The client had a right total hip replacement via a posterior approach.
Different surgical approaches have different mobility restrictions to prevent prosthesis dislocation.
2
Recall the positioning restrictions for a posterior approach hip replacement.
Restrictions include avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, avoiding hip adduction (crossing the midline), and avoiding internal rotation.
These movements place stress on the posterior joint capsule and can pop the femoral head out of the acetabulum.
3
Evaluate the nursing actions against these restrictions.
Using an abduction wedge prevents adduction. The other actions promote extreme flexion or adduction.
Basic care must incorporate these safety parameters to prevent severe complications while promoting hygiene and comfort.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Positioning and Precautions
Soru 950Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is assigned to a 28-year-old client who is 12 weeks pregnant and visiting the clinic for a routine prenatal check-up. The healthcare provider has prescribed a new daily dose of oral labetalol for gestational hypertension and ordered the live-attenuated intranasal influenza vaccine (LAIV). The registered nurse (RN) delegates the initial medication teaching for the labetalol to the PN and asks the PN to administer the vaccine. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for the PN to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Decline the delegation to perform the initial teaching for labetalol, and alert the RN that the live-attenuated influenza vaccine is contraindicated for this pregnant client.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to decline the delegation to perform the initial teaching for labetalol and alert the RN that the live-attenuated influenza vaccine is contraindicated for the pregnant client.
The safest and most legally sound approach requires the practical nurse (PN) to recognize two distinct issues. First, providing initial medication education requires a comprehensive assessment of the client's learning needs, which falls strictly within the registered nurse (RN) scope of practice; the PN may only reinforce teaching previously initiated by the RN. Second, live-attenuated vaccines, such as the intranasal influenza vaccine, are strictly contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmitting the live virus to the developing fetus. Therefore, the PN must decline the inappropriate delegation and escalate the contraindicated order.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the delegation of initial medication teaching for labetalol.
Initial education requires assessing the client's learning baseline and comprehension, which is exclusively an RN-level responsibility.
The PN scope of practice is legally limited to reinforcing education that has already been provided by the RN or provider.
2
Evaluate the prescription for the live-attenuated intranasal influenza vaccine (LAIV).
The client is 12 weeks pregnant.
Live-attenuated vaccines are strictly contraindicated during pregnancy because they pose a theoretical risk of transmitting the live virus to the developing fetus.
3
Determine the safest nursing action based on the findings.
The PN must decline the out-of-scope teaching task and inform the RN about the immunization contraindication.
Practicing within legal boundaries and actively advocating for client safety are fundamental nursing responsibilities.

Anahtar Kavram

LPN/VN Scope of Practice and Immunization Contraindications
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 951Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing a single syringe containing both NPH insulin and regular insulin for a client with diabetes mellitus. In what order should the PN perform the following steps to safely prepare the medication? (Arrange the actions from first to last).

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: roll the NPH vial, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the regular insulin vial, withdraw the regular insulin, and finally withdraw the NPH insulin.
When mixing NPH (intermediate-acting, cloudy) and regular (short-acting, clear) insulins, the standard safety protocol is 'clear before cloudy'. The correct sequence ensures the regular insulin vial is not contaminated by NPH insulin. First, the NPH suspension must be rolled to mix. Then, air is injected into the NPH vial, followed by air into the regular vial. The regular insulin is then withdrawn, and finally, the NPH insulin is withdrawn.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Roll the NPH insulin vial gently between the palms of the hands.
The suspension is evenly mixed without creating bubbles.
NPH insulin contains particles that settle at the bottom and must be resuspended evenly for accurate dosing.
2
Inject an amount of air equal to the prescribed dose into the NPH insulin vial.
Air pressure in the NPH vial is increased without withdrawing medication.
Injecting air prevents a vacuum from forming when withdrawing the dose later. This is done first to avoid cross-contamination once the needle has regular insulin on it.
3
Inject an amount of air equal to the prescribed dose into the regular insulin vial.
Air pressure in the regular insulin vial is increased.
This prepares the regular insulin vial for immediate withdrawal of the medication.
4
Invert the regular insulin vial and withdraw the prescribed dose.
The correct dose of regular insulin is now in the syringe.
Regular (clear) insulin is always drawn up before NPH (cloudy) insulin to prevent the NPH insulin from contaminating the regular insulin vial, which could alter the action of the rapid-acting insulin.
5
Insert the needle into the NPH insulin vial and withdraw the prescribed dose.
The total mixed dose is now in the syringe.
The cloudy insulin is drawn up last to complete the mixture safely.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Preparation of Mixed Insulins
Soru 952Soru →

A practical nurse is collecting data on a client who is 3 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse immediately report to the registered nurse as a potential early indicator of internal bleeding?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Heart rate increasing from 76 to 112 beats/min

Cevap

Heart rate increasing from 76 to 112 beats/min
In the early stages of internal bleeding (hypovolemic shock), the body's primary compensatory mechanism is to increase the heart rate to maintain cardiac output and adequate tissue perfusion. A sudden or steady increase in heart rate (tachycardia) is often the first vital sign change indicating fluid volume loss and must be reported immediately to prevent further deterioration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the complication being asked about in the scenario.
The question asks for an early indicator of internal bleeding, which leads to hypovolemic shock.
Understanding the specific complication helps filter out normal, expected postoperative findings.
2
Recall the physiological response to internal blood loss.
The body compensates for reduced blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues.
Tachycardia is often the very first measurable vital sign change in early shock.
3
Evaluate the given assessment findings against this physiological response.
An increasing heart rate to 112 beats/min indicates tachycardia. The other findings (mild fever, moderate pain, increased blood pressure) represent expected surgical responses or contradict the signs of shock.
This confirms that the elevated heart rate is the critical finding to report.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Signs of Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 953Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) enters a client's semi-private room to perform a pain assessment and administer a scheduled analgesic. The client is currently awake and conversing with three visiting family members. Which of the following actions should the PN take first to maintain client confidentiality?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Ask the client directly if they are comfortable discussing their medical care in the presence of the visitors.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to ask the client directly if they are comfortable discussing their medical care in the presence of the visitors.
The correct action requires the nurse to directly ask the client for permission. Under HIPAA and standard confidentiality guidelines, the mere presence of visitors in a client's room does not grant implied consent to discuss protected health information (PHI). The nurse must give the alert and oriented client the opportunity to consent to the disclosure or ask the visitors to step out.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the environment.
The PN identifies that visitors are present in the room during a required medical assessment.
Identifying potential eavesdroppers is the first step in protecting protected health information (PHI).
2
Determine the requirement for consent.
The PN understands that the presence of visitors does not automatically equal consent to share medical information.
Under HIPAA guidelines, clients must be given the opportunity to object to or approve the sharing of information with family or friends.
3
Communicate with the client.
The PN asks the client for verbal permission before proceeding with the assessment.
Directly asking the client empowers them to control their health information and prevents unauthorized disclosures.

Anahtar Kavram

Under confidentiality regulations, the presence of family or friends does not constitute implied consent to discuss protected health information; the nurse must explicitly ask the alert client for permission.
Soru 954Soru →

An electronic health record displays the following sequential data for a client recovering from a percutaneous renal biopsy:

TimeBlood PressureHeart Rate
1300148/82 mm Hg76/min
1400132/74 mm Hg88/min
1500112/68 mm Hg108/min

At 1500, a point-of-care hemoglobin is reported as 8.4 g/dL (84 g/L). The client currently complains of new, dull flank pain on the operative side. Which action is the priority for the practical nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Escalate the clinical findings to the supervising registered nurse immediately

Cevap

Escalate the clinical findings to the supervising registered nurse immediately
The vital sign trends demonstrate a narrowing pulse pressure, steadily decreasing systolic blood pressure, and increasing tachycardia, which are classic signs of compensatory shock. Combined with the low hemoglobin and new flank pain following a renal biopsy, these findings strongly indicate active retroperitoneal hemorrhage. As a practical nurse, the priority action is to immediately escalate these critical findings to the registered nurse for rapid collaborative intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends over the two-hour period.
The blood pressure is steadily dropping (from 148/82 to 112/68) while the heart rate is rising (from 76 to 108).
These are classic compensatory signs of decreasing circulating blood volume.
2
Evaluate the laboratory value and the reported client symptom in the context of the recent procedure.
The hemoglobin is critically low (8.4 g/dL) and the client has new flank pain following a renal biopsy.
The kidneys are highly vascular; flank pain combined with these vital signs strongly indicates active retroperitoneal bleeding.
3
Determine the priority intervention based on the practical nursing scope of practice.
Immediate escalation is required.
The client is entering hypovolemic shock, a life-threatening emergency that requires registered nurse assessment, rapid provider notification, and advanced interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing post-procedure hemorrhagic shock and appropriate clinical escalation within the practical nursing scope of practice
Soru 955Soru →

A pediatric client weighing 44 lb44\text{ lb} is prescribed amoxicillin 45 mg/kg/day45\text{ mg/kg/day} by mouth, to be administered in equally divided doses every 12 hours. The pharmacy supplies amoxicillin oral suspension with a concentration of 250 mg/5 mL250\text{ mg}/5\text{ mL}. How many mL should the practical nurse administer per dose?

(Record the answer as a whole number. Do not include units in your answer.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 9

Cevap

9
To determine the correct volume, first convert the weight to kilograms (44÷2.2=20 kg44 \div 2.2 = 20\text{ kg}). Next, find the total daily dose (20 kg×45 mg/kg/day=900 mg/day20\text{ kg} \times 45\text{ mg/kg/day} = 900\text{ mg/day}). Since it is given every 12 hours, divide by 2 to find the single dose (450 mg/dose450\text{ mg/dose}). Finally, use the desired over have formula: (450 mg/250 mg)×5 mL=9 mL(450\text{ mg} / 250\text{ mg}) \times 5\text{ mL} = 9\text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
44 lb÷2.2=20 kg44\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 20\text{ kg}
Medication is prescribed based on the client's weight in kilograms.
2
Calculate the total daily dose of amoxicillin.
20 kg×45 mg/kg/day=900 mg/day20\text{ kg} \times 45\text{ mg/kg/day} = 900\text{ mg/day}
This establishes the total amount of medication required for a 24-hour period.
3
Calculate the individual dose amount in milligrams.
900 mg÷2=450 mg/dose900\text{ mg} \div 2 = 450\text{ mg/dose}
The medication is ordered every 12 hours, which equates to 2 equal doses per day.
4
Calculate the liquid volume to administer per dose.
450 mg250 mg×5 mL=9 mL\frac{450\text{ mg}}{250\text{ mg}} \times 5\text{ mL} = 9\text{ mL}
This converts the required dose in mg into the physical volume of the supplied suspension.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based pediatric dosage calculation and liquid medication volume determination.
Soru 956Soru →

An older adult client is recovering in the outpatient surgical unit following an uncomplicated right eye cataract extraction. The client reports feeling exhausted and asks the licensed practical nurse for help getting comfortable to sleep. Which action should the nurse take to safely promote the client's rest?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees and position the client supine or resting on the left side

Cevap

The correct action is to elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees and position the client supine or on the non-operative (left) side.
Following cataract surgery, maintaining a semi-Fowler's position (head elevated 30 to 45 degrees) and resting on the non-operative side or back is essential. This utilizes gravity to decrease venous congestion in the head, keeping intraocular pressure (IOP) low while preventing direct physical pressure on the surgical site.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary clinical risk for a client immediately following a cataract extraction.
The primary risk is an increase in intraocular pressure (IOP), which can compromise the surgical repair.
Understanding the anatomical risks directs the appropriate comfort and positioning measures.
2
Evaluate the physiological impact of head elevation on intraocular pressure.
Elevating the head of the bed utilizes gravity to promote venous drainage from the head, thereby reducing IOP.
Positions that increase cerebral blood flow, such as lying flat or bending forward, will increase IOP and are contraindicated.
3
Determine the safest body alignment and side-lying position for the client.
The client should be positioned either supine or on the non-operative (left) side.
Lying on the operative (right) side places direct pressure on the surgical eye, which increases IOP and risks mechanical injury to the incision.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Positioning for Cataract Extraction
Soru 957Soru →

A client arrives at a busy outpatient community clinic reporting a four-week history of a blood-tinged productive cough, profound fatigue, and severe night sweats. The healthcare provider suspects active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which initial infection control action is the priority for the practical nurse to implement?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Provide a standard medical mask for the client to wear and immediately place them in a separate room with the door closed.

Cevap

Provide a standard medical mask for the client to wear and immediately place them in a separate room with the door closed.
For a client with suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis (an airborne disease), the immediate priority in an outpatient setting is source control. Placing a standard medical mask on the client contains their respiratory secretions, and rapidly moving them to a separate room with a closed door prevents airborne droplet nuclei from exposing other vulnerable individuals in the shared clinic environment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the likely mode of transmission based on the suspected diagnosis.
Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei.
Understanding the transmission route is essential for selecting the correct infection control precautions.
2
Determine the immediate safety priority in an outpatient clinic setting.
The primary goal is to protect other individuals in the waiting area from exposure to the infectious airborne particles.
Airborne pathogens can remain suspended in the air and travel widely in shared, open spaces like a triage bay.
3
Select the appropriate initial nursing intervention to achieve source control.
Providing the client with a standard medical mask and moving them to a closed room prevents the spread of the pathogen.
The standard mask traps respiratory secretions at the source, and the closed room isolates the airborne particles away from the general clinic population.

Anahtar Kavram

Airborne Precautions and Source Control
Soru 958Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is in the room with a client who has a continuous intravenous infusion via a central venous catheter. The client suddenly gasps for air, becomes profoundly cyanotic, and reports acute, severe chest pain. Suspecting a central line air embolism, arrange the following nursing actions in the precise priority order the PN should perform them to mitigate the immediate risk of a fatal complication.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first clamp the catheter, then place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position, followed by administering high-flow oxygen, notifying the RN and rapid response team, and finally obtaining a complete set of vital signs.
In a suspected central line air embolism, the sequence of actions must prioritize immediate source containment and physiological mitigation before escalating the situation. Clamping the line instantly stops the cause. The left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver) is the definitive mechanical intervention to trap the air in the right ventricle, preventing a fatal pulmonary embolism. High-flow oxygen helps wash out nitrogen to shrink the embolus. Only after these rapid, life-saving measures are executed should the practical nurse take the time to escalate the emergency to the RN and Rapid Response Team, followed by continuous vital sign monitoring to prepare for their arrival.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the central venous catheter immediately.
The source of the air embolus is instantly secured.
This is the most critical first step; it stops the ongoing influx of air into the central circulation, preventing the complication from worsening.
2
Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
The air bubble is mechanically trapped.
Known as Durant's maneuver, this position keeps the buoyant air in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the pulmonary circulation where it could cause sudden cardiac arrest.
3
Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Hypoxia is treated and the bubble size may decrease.
Delivering 100% oxygen washes out nitrogen from the air bubble, helping to reduce its volume while aggressively treating the client's profound tissue hypoxia.
4
Notify the supervising registered nurse (RN) and the rapid response team.
Advanced medical support is initiated.
The client requires critical care interventions beyond the practical nursing scope. Escalation must occur immediately after the initial, scope-appropriate physical life-saving measures are secured.
5
Obtain a complete set of vital signs while remaining with the client.
Hemodynamic status is quantified.
Provides essential baseline data for the arriving rapid response team and helps monitor the client for impending cardiogenic shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Emergency management and prioritization of a central line air embolism
Soru 959Soru →

An older adult client is admitted to the medical unit with a stage 3 sacral pressure injury that has tested positive for vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE). The client is placed on contact precautions. Which action by the practical nurse (PN) demonstrates correct adherence to infection control principles?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Donning a protective gown and clean gloves just before crossing the threshold into the client's room.

Cevap

Donning a protective gown and clean gloves just before crossing the threshold into the client's room.
Vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) are transmitted through direct and indirect contact, necessitating strict contact precautions. Standard protocol dictates that a protective gown and clean gloves must be donned prior to entering the client's room to prevent the transfer of the microorganism to the nurse's hands or clothing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the transmission route for the pathogen mentioned in the scenario.
VRE is transmitted via direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment.
Understanding the mode of transmission determines the necessary isolation precautions.
2
Determine the required personal protective equipment (PPE) for contact precautions.
Contact precautions require a gown and gloves.
These items create a physical barrier to prevent the transfer of pathogens.
3
Identify the correct location for donning and doffing the required PPE.
PPE should be donned before entering the room and doffed inside the room before exiting.
This protocol ensures pathogens are not carried into the clean environment of the hallway.

Anahtar Kavram

Transmission-Based Precautions: Contact Precautions
Soru 960Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a 74-year-old client who is two days postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of a fractured hip. The client is becoming increasingly restless and repeatedly attempts to climb over the bed rails to use the restroom, despite having an indwelling urinary catheter in place. The client's family expresses concern about a potential fall and asks the PN to apply restraints. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response or action by the PN?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Implement alternative safety measures, such as moving the client closer to the nurses' station and activating a bed alarm.

Cevap

Implement alternative safety measures, such as moving the client closer to the nurses' station and activating a bed alarm.
The standard of nursing practice mandates that physical restraints must be a measure of last resort. The nurse must always attempt, evaluate, and document less restrictive alternatives first. Moving the client closer to the nurses' station for closer observation and utilizing bed alarms are effective, least-restrictive safety interventions that protect the client from falls while maintaining their freedom of movement.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's behavior and the family's request.
The client is restless and attempting to get out of bed unsafely. The family is requesting restraints to prevent a fall.
Identifying the core problem helps determine the safest and most legally appropriate nursing intervention.
2
Evaluate the clinical guidelines regarding physical restraints.
Restraints are always a last resort. Nurses must first attempt and document less restrictive alternatives before obtaining an order for restraints.
Using the least restrictive environment is a fundamental client right and a strict regulatory standard.
3
Select the nursing action that prioritizes safety while avoiding premature restraint use.
Moving the client closer to the nurses' station and using bed alarms provides enhanced monitoring and safety without physically restricting the client.
This intervention directly addresses the fall risk utilizing evidence-based restraint alternatives.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritizing Restraint Alternatives
ÖncekiSayfa 48 / 147Sonraki
Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-PN | Examkin