Physiological Integrity

1313 soru

Soru 701Soru →

A practical nurse is assigned to care for a client who is two hours postoperative following a subtotal thyroidectomy. To minimize swelling and protect the surgical airway, which position is most appropriate for the nurse to place the client in?

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Cevap: Semi-Fowler's position with pillows supporting the head and neck

Cevap

Semi-Fowler's position with pillows supporting the head and neck
The correct action is to place the client in a Semi-Fowler's position while providing support to the head and neck. Elevating the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees utilizes gravity to reduce postoperative swelling and venous pressure in the neck region. Supporting the head and neck with pillows ensures they remain in a neutral alignment, which prevents both flexion and hyperextension. This neutral positioning protects the surgical incision from tension, reduces pain, and ensures the airway remains fully open.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific postoperative risks.
The client underwent a thyroidectomy, which carries high risks of neck edema, airway obstruction, and incision strain.
Understanding the anatomical risks dictates the appropriate basic care and positioning required for safety.
2
Determine the ideal bed angle to manage these specific risks.
The head of the bed should be elevated 30 to 45 degrees, known as Semi-Fowler's position.
Elevation uses gravity to reduce venous pressure, minimizing fluid accumulation and swelling in the delicate neck area.
3
Select the appropriate support method for the affected body part.
The head and neck must be supported in a neutral position using pillows or sandbags.
Maintaining neutral alignment prevents both hyperextension and hyperflexion, avoiding any tension on the fragile suture line.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Positioning for Airway Protection
Soru 702Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to apply knee-length anti-embolism stockings to a client who is resting in bed. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first ensure the client rests supine to reduce swelling, then turn the stocking inside out to the heel, place it over the foot and heel, slide it up the calf, and finally smooth out any wrinkles.
To properly apply anti-embolism stockings, the practical nurse must first reduce venous swelling by having the client rest supine. Next, preparing the stocking by turning it inside out to the heel makes it easier to slip over the foot. After anchoring it on the foot and heel, the stocking is pulled up the leg. Finally, the nurse must ensure there are no wrinkles or rolled areas, which could act like a tourniquet and constrict blood flow.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prepare the client's legs
The client rests supine for at least 15 minutes.
To reduce venous stasis and swelling in the lower extremities before application.
2
Prepare the stocking
The stocking is turned inside out down to the heel.
To facilitate smooth application over the foot and prevent bunching.
3
Apply to the foot
The stocking covers the toes, foot, and heel.
To properly anchor the stocking on the foot before pulling it up.
4
Apply to the leg
The stocking is pulled up the calf.
To provide the intended graduated compression to the lower leg.
5
Perform a final check
Wrinkles and rolled edges are smoothed out.
To prevent constriction of blood flow which can cause tissue damage.

Anahtar Kavram

Proper application sequence for anti-embolism stockings
Soru 703Soru →

An adult client is undergoing post-procedure care on a medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The client is currently positioned on the right side with a rolled towel under the puncture site. During the 4-hour post-procedure assessment, the licensed practical nurse notes that the client's heart rate has climbed to 108 beats per minute from a pre-procedure baseline of 76 beats per minute. The blood pressure is currently 104/62 mm Hg, compared to a baseline of 128/74 mm Hg. The client reports new-onset, moderate pain in the right shoulder. Based on these assessment findings, which action must the nurse take to reduce the risk of a severe complication?

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Cevap: Maintain the client in the current position and immediately report the findings to the supervising registered nurse.

Cevap

The nurse must maintain the client in the right side-lying position to apply continuous pressure to the biopsy site and immediately notify the supervising registered nurse of the findings.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, maintaining the client in a right side-lying position is essential to provide direct pressure (tamponade) to the biopsy site, preventing hemorrhage from the highly vascular liver tissue. The client's rising heart rate, dropping blood pressure, and new-onset right shoulder pain (referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation due to internal bleeding) are classic signs of early hypovolemic shock. The priority is to keep the physical pressure on the puncture site and immediately escalate these critical findings to the supervising registered nurse for rapid medical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's post-operative vital signs.
The heart rate has increased significantly (76 to 108) and blood pressure has decreased (128/74 to 104/62).
These downward trends in blood pressure paired with tachycardia are classic early indicators of hypovolemic shock, likely due to internal hemorrhage.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of the right shoulder pain.
The pain is recognized as referred pain caused by blood accumulating under the diaphragm and irritating the phrenic nerve.
Combined with the vital sign changes, this confirms a high suspicion of active internal bleeding from the highly vascular liver.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The nurse must keep the client on the right side to maintain pressure on the liver capsule and immediately notify the RN.
Repositioning would remove the tamponade effect, and delaying escalation to draw labs or document would lead to cardiovascular collapse.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition of Post-Procedure Hemorrhage and Appropriate Escalation
Soru 704Soru →

A client who underwent a right-sided supratentorial craniotomy two days ago is currently receiving continuous enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube. The practical nurse is preparing to provide a complete bed bath and change the soiled bottom sheets. What is the safest method for the nurse to execute these care tasks?

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Cevap: Maintain the bed at a 30-degree incline while turning the client laterally, ensuring the head and neck remain in a neutral midline alignment.

Cevap

The practical nurse should maintain the head of the bed at a 30-degree elevation and keep the client's head and neck in a neutral, midline position while turning them.
Following a supratentorial craniotomy, it is critical to promote venous drainage from the brain to prevent life-threatening increases in intracranial pressure. This is achieved by keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees and ensuring the neck is not flexed or rotated. Additionally, because the client is receiving continuous enteral feedings, maintaining this elevation is mandatory to prevent regurgitation and pulmonary aspiration. Turning the client laterally while preserving this 30-degree incline and neutral neck alignment perfectly balances the client's hygiene needs with their strict neurological and respiratory safety requirements.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's surgical history.
The client had a supratentorial craniotomy two days ago.
This surgery requires specific positioning to promote cerebral venous drainage and prevent increased intracranial pressure (ICP), specifically elevating the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees and maintaining neutral head alignment.
2
Identify the risks associated with the ongoing therapy.
The client is receiving continuous enteral feedings and is at high risk for aspiration.
Keeping the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees is mandatory to prevent regurgitation and pulmonary aspiration of the feeding formula.
3
Evaluate the proposed basic care techniques against these constraints.
Turning the client must be accomplished without lowering the bed flat and without flexing or hyperextending the neck.
Flat positioning or neck flexion would dangerously spike ICP and simultaneously increase aspiration risk.

Anahtar Kavram

Positioning principles for clients with increased intracranial pressure risk and continuous enteral feedings.
Soru 705Soru →

An older adult client is receiving care on a medical unit for a suspected upper gastrointestinal bleed. The morning laboratory report indicates a hemoglobin level of 6.9 g/dL6.9 \text{ g/dL} and a serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L2.8 \text{ mEq/L}. The client's current vital signs are: blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg96/60 \text{ mm Hg}, apical pulse 116 beats/minute116 \text{ beats/minute}, and respirations 22/minute22 \text{/minute}. A registered nurse (RN) prepares a prescribed intravenous (IV) piggyback of potassium chloride, hands the bag to the practical nurse (PN), and delegates the medication administration and subsequent monitoring of this client. Which action is most appropriate for the PN to take?

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Cevap: Decline the delegation, as caring for a hemodynamically unstable client with critical laboratory abnormalities requires continuous registered nurse (RN) assessment.

Cevap

The practical nurse must decline the delegation because the client is exhibiting signs of hemodynamic instability and hypovolemic shock, which requires the advanced assessment skills of a registered nurse.
The client is demonstrating clear signs of active bleeding and hypovolemic shock (hemoglobin 6.9 g/dL6.9 \text{ g/dL}, hypotension, tachycardia) alongside severe hypokalemia. Caring for a hemodynamically unstable client requires advanced physiological assessment, clinical judgment, and immediate intervention that falls exclusively within the scope of practice of a registered nurse (RN). The practical nurse (PN) must advocate for client safety by declining this inappropriate delegation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the laboratory data provided in the scenario.
The client has a hemoglobin of 6.9 g/dL6.9 \text{ g/dL} (critically low, indicating severe blood loss) and a potassium of 2.8 mEq/L2.8 \text{ mEq/L} (critically low, risking cardiac dysrhythmias).
Identifying abnormal laboratory values is essential for recognizing physiological risk.
2
Analyze the vital signs in the context of the client's diagnosis.
A blood pressure of 96/60 mm Hg96/60 \text{ mm Hg} and a heart rate of 116 beats/minute116 \text{ beats/minute} in a client with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed indicate compensatory tachycardia and hypotension.
These are classic early signs of hypovolemic shock, meaning the client's condition is actively deteriorating.
3
Evaluate the appropriateness of the RN's delegation.
The RN is delegating the care, medication administration, and monitoring of a highly unstable client to the PN.
The PN scope of practice involves caring for clients with predictable outcomes. Unstable clients require advanced assessment and clinical judgment.
4
Determine the correct nursing action based on scope of practice.
The PN must decline the unsafe assignment to protect the client and practice safely within legal boundaries.
Accepting an unstable client assignment violates the PN scope of practice and places the client at severe risk for adverse outcomes.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential through appropriate delegation and recognition of hemodynamic instability.
Soru 706Soru →

The electronic barcode scanner on a unit's medication cart is unexpectedly malfunctioning due to a network outage. A practical nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of oral amlodipine to an alert client who is resting in bed. Which action must the nurse take to ensure safe medication administration?

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Cevap: Ask the client to state their full name and date of birth, comparing this information against the wristband and the medication administration record.

Cevap

The nurse must manually ask the client to state their full name and date of birth, and compare this against the client's wristband and the medication administration record.
Safe medication administration requires the nurse to verify two distinct client identifiers, typically the client's full name and date of birth. When an electronic barcode scanner is malfunctioning, the nurse must manually ask the alert client to state these identifiers and compare them directly against the identification wristband and the medication administration record (MAR) to guarantee the medication is given to the correct individual.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the standard of practice for client identification when electronic barcode systems fail.
The standard requires manual verification of two distinct, approved client identifiers.
Ensuring the "right client" is a fundamental rule of safe pharmacological therapy that cannot be bypassed during equipment outages.
2
Evaluate the proposed identification methods in the options against safety protocols.
Using the client's stated name and date of birth compared to the wristband and MAR is the only approved manual method.
Room numbers, visual recognition, and delegating to assistive personnel are unsafe practices that violate medication administration protocols.

Anahtar Kavram

Medication Administration Rights and Manual Client Identification
Soru 707Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing the electronic health record and collecting data on a client who is 1212 hours postoperative following an exploratory laparotomy. The client's preoperative baseline data showed a hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL13.8\text{ g/dL}, a blood pressure of 132/78 mm Hg132/78\text{ mm Hg}, and a heart rate of 76 beats/min76\text{ beats/min}. The current morning laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9.6 g/dL9.6\text{ g/dL}. Upon assessment, the client's blood pressure is 102/64 mm Hg102/64\text{ mm Hg}, heart rate is 114 beats/min114\text{ beats/min}, and the client reports feeling restless and lightheaded when the head of the bed is elevated. Which action should the PN take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Lower the head of the bed to a supine position and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN).

Cevap

Lower the head of the bed to a supine position and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN).
The client is exhibiting early signs of hypovolemic shock due to acute blood loss, evidenced by a significant drop in hemoglobin (greater than 2 g/dL2\text{ g/dL}), tachycardia, borderline hypotension, restlessness, and orthostatic symptoms. The PN must prioritize client safety by placing them supine to promote venous return to the brain and vital organs, and immediately escalate the critical findings to the RN for further assessment and intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Compare the client's current laboratory values and vital signs to their preoperative baseline.
Hemoglobin dropped by 4.2 g/dL4.2\text{ g/dL}, heart rate increased by 38 beats/min38\text{ beats/min}, and blood pressure decreased significantly.
Identifying trends is crucial for recognizing postoperative complications like internal bleeding.
2
Correlate the objective data with the client's subjective symptoms (restlessness, lightheadedness when elevated).
The combination of findings strongly suggests reduced oxygen-carrying capacity and impending hypovolemic shock.
Restlessness is an early sign of hypoxia, and orthostatic lightheadedness indicates poor cerebral perfusion.
3
Determine the safest, most immediate action within the practical nurse scope of practice.
Position the client flat (supine) to optimize blood flow to the brain and notify the RN immediately.
The PN must mitigate immediate physical risk while escalating to the RN who can perform advanced assessments and obtain medical orders for fluid or blood resuscitation.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing and Escaping Early Postoperative Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 708Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is instructing a female client on how to collect a clean-catch midstream urine specimen for a prescribed urine culture. Arrange the following procedural steps in the correct chronological order to reduce the risk of sample contamination.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen ensures the sample is not contaminated by external skin flora. The nurse must first apply gloves, cleanse the area appropriately, allow the client to initiate the stream to flush the urethra, catch the midstream urine in the sterile cup, and finally secure the container.
The established standard of care for a clean-catch urine culture requires a specific sequential approach: preparation (hand hygiene/gloves), decontamination (cleaning front to back), urethral flushing (voiding a small amount), collection (midstream catch), and securement. This evidence-based order strictly reduces the risk of altering laboratory findings with environmental flora.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Perform hand hygiene and don clean gloves.
Readiness to handle the client and equipment safely.
Standard precautions reduce the risk of cross-contamination before beginning any clinical procedure.
2
Cleanse the urethral meatus from front to back using an antiseptic wipe.
The area around the urinary meatus is sanitized.
Prevents normal skin or intestinal flora from contaminating the urine sample.
3
Ask the client to begin voiding a small amount of urine into the toilet.
The urethra is flushed with urine.
Clears any remaining bacteria at the urethral opening that could cause a false-positive culture.
4
Pass the sterile specimen container into the active urine stream to collect the sample.
Midstream urine is collected.
Captures the most accurate representation of bladder urine.
5
Remove the container before the urine flow stops and secure the lid tightly.
The sample is safely secured for transport.
Prevents terminal stream contamination and maintains the sterility of the collected sample.

Anahtar Kavram

Clean-catch midstream urine specimen collection protocol
Soru 709Soru →

A practical nurse is instructing a female client on how to obtain a midstream (clean-catch) urine specimen for culture and sensitivity. To prevent contamination of the specimen and reduce the risk of inaccurate diagnostic laboratory results, arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence begins with hand hygiene, followed by cleansing the meatus, initiating the urine stream into the toilet, catching the sample midstream, and removing the container before the stream stops.
Obtaining a midstream clean-catch urine specimen requires a specific procedural sequence to reduce the risk of false-positive diagnostic laboratory results. Hand hygiene and equipment preparation must come first to maintain sterility. Cleansing the meatus from front to back removes surface bacteria. Initiating the urine stream into the toilet flushes the lower urethra of resident flora. The sterile cup is then passed into the midstream to collect the most accurate sample of bladder urine. Finally, removing the cup before the stream stops prevents contamination from terminal drops of urine.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Perform hand hygiene and open the sterile container.
A clean environment is established.
Prevents the introduction of external pathogens to the sterile collection container.
2
Cleanse the urethral meatus from front to back.
Surface flora is removed.
Decreases the risk of external bacteria contaminating the urine culture.
3
Initiate the urine stream into the toilet.
The lower urethra is flushed.
Clears out distal urethral contaminants that could lead to false-positive lab results.
4
Catch the urine in the sterile container midstream.
Bladder urine is collected.
Provides the most accurate representation of potential pathogens located inside the bladder.
5
Remove the container before the urine stream stops.
Collection is completed cleanly.
Prevents contamination from the terminal flow of urine contacting the external skin.

Anahtar Kavram

Proper technique for obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine specimen
Soru 710Soru →

A client is admitted to the surgical unit directly from the recovery room after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy. To promote optimal comfort and prevent postoperative complications, which positioning strategy should the practical nurse implement?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position and arrange supportive pillows on both sides of the neck.

Cevap

Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position and arrange supportive pillows on both sides of the neck.
Following a thyroidectomy, it is critical to prevent swelling around the trachea and to avoid stressing the incision line. Placing the client in a semi-Fowler's position uses gravity to minimize venous pooling and edema in the neck. Surrounding the head and neck with supportive pillows maintains neutral alignment, preventing both hyperflexion and hyperextension, thereby protecting the airway and the integrity of the sutures.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the anatomical location of the surgical procedure and its associated risks.
The client had a subtotal thyroidectomy, which carries high risks for airway obstruction due to neck edema and incision rupture from tension.
Understanding the surgical site dictates the required basic care and positioning.
2
Evaluate how gravity and body alignment affect the surgical site.
An upright or semi-upright position uses gravity to reduce swelling, while neutral neck alignment prevents pulling on the sutures.
Edema near the trachea can quickly cut off the airway, making swelling reduction the top physiological priority.
3
Select the positioning intervention that best achieves both comfort and safety.
Semi-Fowler's position with lateral head support achieves both reduced edema and neutral neck alignment.
This directly satisfies the requirement for optimal postoperative positioning following neck surgery.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative care for thyroidectomy requires minimizing neck edema and preventing tension on the surgical incision through specific upright, neutral body alignment.
Soru 711Soru →

During morning rounds on a medical-surgical unit, you approach the bedside to administer a scheduled dose of oral metoprolol to an assigned client. The electronic health record indicates a recent potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L4.1 \text{ mEq/L} (4.1 mmol/L4.1 \text{ mmol/L}). The client appears pale and states, 'The room is spinning when I try to sit up.' You obtain a blood pressure of 92/58 mmHg92/58 \text{ mmHg} and a heart rate of 114 beats per minute114 \text{ beats per minute}. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate next action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the metoprolol, assist the client into a supine position, and promptly notify the registered nurse of the assessment findings.

Cevap

Withhold the metoprolol, assist the client into a supine position, and promptly notify the registered nurse of the assessment findings.
The client is exhibiting early signs of decreased cardiac output and poor tissue perfusion, evidenced by hypotension, dizziness, and pallor. The elevated heart rate is a vital compensatory mechanism working to maintain cardiac output. Administering metoprolol, a beta-blocker, would dangerously lower both the heart rate and the blood pressure. The practical nurse's priority is to ensure immediate safety by holding the medication, placing the client flat to improve cerebral perfusion, and promptly escalating the situation to the registered nurse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs and the client's physical presentation.
The client has a low blood pressure (92/58 mmHg92/58 \text{ mmHg}), a rapid heart rate (114 beats per minute114 \text{ beats per minute}), and symptoms indicating poor cerebral perfusion (pallor, dizziness).
Recognizing early signs of shock or hemodynamic instability is critical for ensuring client safety.
2
Evaluate the planned medication against the clinical findings.
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers both heart rate and blood pressure, making it strictly contraindicated in this hemodynamically unstable state.
Administering the medication would dangerously blunt the compensatory tachycardia and worsen the hypotension.
3
Determine the priority nursing action within the practical nurse's scope of practice.
The medication must be withheld, the client placed in a safe supine position to optimize blood flow to the brain, and the registered nurse notified immediately.
Hemodynamic instability requires rapid assessment by a registered nurse and potential provider intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization and escalation of care for a hemodynamically unstable client
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 712Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to perform a capillary blood glucose test for an adult client with diabetes mellitus. To ensure an accurate result and reduce the risk of complications, in which order should the nurse perform the following steps? Arrange the actions in the correct chronological sequence.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: perform hand hygiene and don gloves, cleanse the site and let it air dry, puncture the finger, wipe away the first drop of blood, and finally apply the second drop of blood to the test strip.
Following the correct chronological sequence ensures that standard precautions are maintained, the site is properly prepped without alcohol interference, and the specimen is undiluted by tissue fluid. This methodical approach directly reduces the risk of inaccurate laboratory results and subsequent incorrect insulin administration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Perform hand hygiene and put on clean gloves.
Standard precautions are established.
Reduces the risk of pathogen transmission between the nurse and the client.
2
Cleanse the lateral aspect of the finger with an alcohol swab and allow it to air dry.
The puncture site is prepared and free of wet alcohol.
Wet alcohol can mix with the blood sample, causing inaccurate readings and increased pain for the client.
3
Puncture the side of the fingertip using a sterile lancet.
Capillary blood flow is initiated.
The lateral aspect of the finger provides adequate blood flow with less discomfort than the center of the finger pad.
4
Wipe away the first drop of blood using a clean gauze pad.
Interstitial fluid is removed from the puncture site.
The initial drop contains tissue fluid that can dilute the blood and result in a falsely low glucose reading.
5
Apply the next drop of blood to the reagent test strip.
An accurate glucose measurement is obtained.
The second drop consists of pure capillary blood, reducing the risk of clinical errors based on false lab values.

Anahtar Kavram

Proper procedural technique for capillary blood glucose testing to ensure accurate diagnostic values.
Soru 713Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to administer prescribed ophthalmic timolol drops to a client who has open-angle glaucoma and a baseline heart rate of 72 beats/minute72\text{ beats/minute}. Arrange the following steps for safely administering this medication in the correct chronological sequence.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence begins with cleaning the eye to prevent contamination, positioning the client's head to reduce the blink reflex, retracting the lower eyelid to expose the conjunctival sac, instilling the drop safely into the sac, and finally applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct to prevent systemic absorption.
The correct sequence ensures the eye is clean, properly positioned to receive the medication without inducing a blink reflex, opened to expose the conjunctival sac where the drop is placed to avoid corneal injury, and finally occluded to prevent systemic absorption of the drug.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Cleanse the eyelid and eyelashes from inner to outer canthus.
The eye area is free of debris and drainage.
Maintaining a clean field prevents the introduction of bacteria into the eye during administration.
2
Instruct the client to tilt the head back and look up.
The eye is optimally positioned.
Looking upward redirects the cornea away from the dropper, which reduces the natural blink reflex.
3
Retract the lower eyelid downward.
The lower conjunctival sac is exposed.
Creating a pocket ensures the medication is delivered safely without falling directly onto the sensitive cornea.
4
Instill the drop into the conjunctival sac.
Medication is delivered to the proper anatomical site.
The conjunctival sac distributes the medication evenly across the eye without causing trauma.
5
Apply pressure to the nasolacrimal duct.
The tear duct is temporarily blocked.
Occluding the duct prevents the beta-blocker from entering systemic circulation, which could inappropriately lower the client's heart rate.

Anahtar Kavram

Ophthalmic Medication Administration Sequence
Soru 714Soru →

A client is transferred to the clinical unit following a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver. The practical nurse (PN) is preparing to settle the client in bed. To minimize the risk of hemorrhage from the puncture site, what position should the PN help the client maintain?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Right lateral position with a folded towel placed under the rib cage

Cevap

The client should be assisted into the right lateral position with a folded towel or small pillow under the right rib cage.
Because the liver is a highly vascular organ located on the right side of the body, a percutaneous biopsy carries a significant risk of internal bleeding. Placing the client in a right lateral (side-lying) position, often with a towel roll beneath the puncture site, uses the client's body weight to apply direct pressure to the liver capsule. This pressure is essential for promoting hemostasis and preventing hemorrhage.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the anatomical location of the liver.
The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity.
Knowing the organ's location dictates where localized pressure must be applied.
2
Determine the priority post-procedure risk for a percutaneous liver biopsy.
The primary risk following a biopsy of this highly vascular organ is hemorrhage.
Preventing blood loss is the most critical immediate post-procedure intervention.
3
Select the client position that safely applies external pressure to the puncture site.
The right side-lying (lateral) position uses the client's body weight to compress the liver.
Direct mechanical pressure promotes hemostasis and minimizes bleeding.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Procedure Positioning and Hemostasis
Soru 715Soru →

A practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total knee arthroplasty 48 hours ago. The client is prescribed subcutaneous enoxaparin daily for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis and oral hydrocodone-acetaminophen as needed for pain. During the morning assessment, the client reports feeling "lightheaded and weak." The nurse collects the following data:

Clinical IndicatorCurrent ValuePrevious Day Baseline
Blood pressure100/62 mm Hg138/82 mm Hg
Heart rate114 beats/min84 beats/min
Hemoglobin8.4 g/dL10.6 g/dL
Platelet count185,000/mm³190,000/mm³

Based on these findings, which action should the practical nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the scheduled dose of enoxaparin and immediately notify the registered nurse.

Cevap

Withhold the scheduled dose of enoxaparin and immediately notify the registered nurse.
The client's clinical picture—a significant drop in hemoglobin combined with new-onset tachycardia, a decrease in baseline blood pressure, and lightheadedness—strongly suggests acute postoperative bleeding or early hemorrhagic shock. The practical nurse must prioritize safety by withholding the anticoagulant medication, which could exacerbate bleeding, and immediately escalating these critical findings to the registered nurse for provider notification and potential medical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and laboratory trends in the provided table.
Identified a significant drop in hemoglobin (2.2 g/dL decrease), accompanied by new-onset tachycardia (114 beats/min) and hypotension (100/62 mm Hg).
Comparing current data to baseline is essential for recognizing subtle or acute physiological changes.
2
Correlate the objective data with the client's subjective report of feeling lightheaded.
Recognized that these combined findings strongly indicate early hemorrhagic shock or active postoperative bleeding.
Connecting symptoms with vital sign trends determines the clinical severity of the situation.
3
Evaluate the safety of the scheduled medications based on the client's current status.
Determined that administering enoxaparin (an anticoagulant) is contraindicated in the presence of suspected active bleeding.
Administering high-risk medications without synthesizing the current clinical picture can lead to adverse client outcomes.
4
Select the safest, most immediate nursing action within the practical nurse scope of practice.
Concluded that the priority is to withhold the medication and escalate the critical findings to the registered nurse.
The PN must recognize complications and immediately escalate unstable clients to the RN for further assessment and provider notification.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hemorrhagic shock and critical escalation within the PN scope of practice.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 716Soru →

Following a lumbar puncture, an adult client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit for observation. The client is awake, alert, and has stable vital signs. Which positioning measure must the practical nurse implement to minimize the risk of complications?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the duration prescribed by the healthcare provider.

Cevap

Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the duration prescribed by the healthcare provider.
Following a lumbar puncture, the client should be kept in a flat, supine position for several hours as prescribed by the provider. This position is critical because it helps prevent a post-dural puncture headache (often called a spinal headache) by reducing the gravitational hydrostatic pressure that causes cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to leak from the dural puncture site.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the physiological impact of the procedure.
A lumbar puncture involves puncturing the dura mater to access the subarachnoid space, which creates a small pathway where cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can potentially leak.
Understanding the procedure highlights the specific post-procedure risks, primarily a post-dural puncture headache (spinal headache).
2
Evaluate the effect of gravity and positioning on CSF pressure.
Sitting upright or elevating the head increases hydrostatic pressure on the lower spine, forcing more CSF out of the puncture site.
Identifying what exacerbates the complication dictates the required nursing intervention.
3
Determine the optimal therapeutic position.
A flat, supine position distributes pressure evenly and minimizes gravitational force on the lumbar puncture site, allowing the dura to seal.
This directly mitigates the primary complication associated with the procedure.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 717Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled transdermal medication patch to a client. Arrange the following steps for administration in the correct chronological order.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first perform hand hygiene and don gloves, then remove the old patch and clean the area, followed by selecting a new site, applying the new patch, and finally documenting the administration.
Transdermal patch administration must follow a logical safety sequence. First, the nurse protects themselves by performing hand hygiene and donning gloves. Second, the nurse removes the old patch and cleanses the skin to prevent an accidental overdose. Third, the nurse selects a new site to prevent skin irritation. Fourth, the new patch is applied and secured. Finally, the nurse documents the procedure to ensure clear communication with the healthcare team.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Perform hand hygiene and put on clean gloves.
The nurse's hands are clean and protected.
This is always the first step to maintain infection control and prevent the nurse from accidentally absorbing the transdermal medication.
2
Remove the previously applied patch and cleanse the skin area.
The old patch and residual medication are removed.
Leaving an old patch on while applying a new one can lead to a dangerous medication overdose.
3
Select a new, clean, and hairless site for application.
A suitable site for the new patch is identified.
Site rotation prevents skin irritation and breakdown, while a hairless area ensures good adhesion.
4
Apply the new patch and press firmly to ensure adherence.
The new patch is securely attached to the client's skin.
Firm pressure ensures the patch will not fall off and the medication will be absorbed properly.
5
Document the administration, including the site, date, and time.
The medication administration record is updated.
Documentation must occur immediately after administration to maintain accurate health records and communicate with the care team.

Anahtar Kavram

The safe and systematic administration of transdermal medications requires preventing self-exposure, avoiding overdose by removing the old patch first, and ensuring proper site rotation.
Soru 718Soru →

An adult client is prescribed a 24-hour urine collection to evaluate kidney function and creatinine clearance. In which order should the nurse implement the steps of this procedure? Arrange the actions from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence begins with having the client void and discarding that urine, noting the exact time as the start, collecting all subsequent urine in a cooled container, and ending with one final void added exactly 24 hours later.
A 24-hour urine collection requires precise timing and strict collection protocols to yield accurate diagnostic results. The procedure mandates starting with an empty bladder (discarding the first void) to ensure only urine produced during the 24-hour timeframe is measured. The exact time of this first void marks the official start. From then on, every drop of urine must be collected and kept cool to preserve its chemical integrity. Finally, exactly 24 hours after the start time, the client must void one last time to complete the physiological sample window.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Empty the bladder and discard the initial void.
The bladder is completely empty, ensuring no urine produced prior to the 24-hour window is included.
Including prior urine falsely elevates the total 24-hour solute excretion measurement.
2
Record the start time.
A definitive timeline is established for the 24-hour window.
Diagnostic accuracy requires exactly 24 hours of physiological output; the start time dictates the end time.
3
Collect all subsequent urine and keep it cool.
All urine produced during the window is preserved.
Refrigeration or ice prevents degradation of the specimen and bacterial proliferation which could alter lab values.
4
Obtain a final void exactly 24 hours later.
The final urine produced within the testing window is captured.
This ensures the entire 24-hour physiological output is accounted for in the diagnostic test.

Anahtar Kavram

Specimen Collection Protocols for Accurate Diagnostics
Soru 719Soru →

A practical nurse is conducting a postoperative assessment on a 7272-year-old client who underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) three hours ago. The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). Which clinical finding requires the most immediate escalation to the supervising registered nurse?

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Cevap: A gradual increase in the client's resting heart rate from 7676 to 114114 beats per minute over the past hour.

Cevap

The correct answer is the gradual increase in the resting heart rate from 7676 to 114114 beats per minute, which is an early indicator of hypovolemic shock or severe hemorrhage.
A steadily increasing heart rate in a postoperative client is a classic early, compensatory sign of hypovolemia and potential hemorrhage. Because the client recently underwent a highly vascular prostate resection, this subtle cardiovascular change requires immediate escalation to the registered nurse for prompt intervention and evaluation of bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's postoperative timeframe and current therapy.
The client is three hours post-TURP receiving continuous bladder irrigation, making them at high risk for hemorrhage and fluid shifts.
Identifying the procedure context helps anticipate potential life-threatening complications.
2
Evaluate the vital sign trend.
A heart rate increase from 7676 to 114114 beats per minute is a significant physiological change.
Tachycardia is often the first subtle, compensatory sign of hypovolemia and hemorrhage before the blood pressure drops.
3
Review the remaining clinical findings for priority.
The serum sodium is normal, the medication technical issue is low acuity, and the UAP's action is within their scope of practice.
Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework confirms that the cardiovascular change is the highest priority requiring immediate escalation.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Complication Recognition and Prioritization
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 720Soru →

A practical nurse is caring for a toddler who weighs 1414 kg and is diagnosed with acute otitis media. The healthcare provider prescribes cefdinir 77 mg/kg PO every 1212 hours. The pharmacy dispenses cefdinir oral suspension labeled 125125 mg / 55 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer for one dose? (Record answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in answer.)

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Cevap: 3.9

Cevap

3.9
To determine the correct administration volume, first calculate the total desired dose for the child: 1414 kg ×7\times 7 mg/kg = 9898 mg. Next, calculate the volume using the medication concentration provided by the pharmacy. Divide the desired dose (9898 mg) by the available dose (125125 mg), and multiply by the available volume (55 mL): (98/125)×5=3.92(98 / 125) \times 5 = 3.92 mL. Rounding this value to the nearest tenth provides the final answer of 3.93.9.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the total milligrams required for a single dose.
14 kg×7 mg/kg=98 mg14 \text{ kg} \times 7 \text{ mg/kg} = 98 \text{ mg}
The prescription is weight-based, requiring the child's weight in kilograms to be multiplied by the ordered amount per kilogram.
2
Determine the volume of suspension needed to provide the desired dose.
98 mg125 mg×5 mL=3.92 mL\frac{98 \text{ mg}}{125 \text{ mg}} \times 5 \text{ mL} = 3.92 \text{ mL}
Applying the dimensional analysis or desired-over-have formula to calculate the liquid volume to administer.
3
Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.
3.93.9
The question explicitly requires rounding to the nearest tenth for administration.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based pediatric dosage calculation for oral liquid medications
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-PN — Sayfa 36 | Examkin