Physiological Integrity

1313 soru

Soru 901Soru →

A client who underwent a lumbar laminectomy the previous day requires morning care. To ensure safety and comfort, which actions should the practical nurse incorporate into the care plan? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Turn the client as a single unit using the logrolling method.; Place a pillow between the client's knees when lying on their side.; Maintain the client's spinal alignment when assisting with bed mobility.

Cevap

The correct actions include turning the client as a single unit, placing a pillow between the knees when side-lying, and maintaining spinal alignment during mobility.
Following a lumbar laminectomy, the primary goal of basic care is to maintain the spine in a neutral position to facilitate healing and prevent injury. Logrolling, keeping a pillow between the legs to prevent hip rotation, and generally maintaining strict spinal alignment are all essential, safe practices that accomplish this goal.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its implications for basic care.
The client had a lumbar laminectomy, meaning the lower spine requires strict alignment and protection from stress.
Understanding the anatomical site of surgery dictates safe mobility and positioning.
2
Evaluate each intervention for its effect on spinal alignment.
Logrolling, using a pillow between the knees, and general spinal alignment protect the back. High-Fowler's position and twisting put dangerous stress on the lumbar region.
Nursing actions must prevent complications and promote healing.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative spinal precautions and proper positioning
Soru 902Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is observing a client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings. The client suddenly begins coughing forcefully and appears dyspneic. Arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order the PN should perform them.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the feeding, then position the client, check respiratory status, and finally notify the RN.
In any acute respiratory event during a continuous feeding, the immediate priority is to stop the feeding to prevent further aspiration. Next, the airway must be protected by positioning the client appropriately. Once the immediate threat is mitigated, the nurse gathers data on the client's respiratory status to determine the severity of the event. Finally, the nurse reports the findings and actions to the RN.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the continuous enteral feeding pump.
Further risk of aspiration is immediately halted.
According to the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) priority framework, removing the source of airway compromise is the most critical first action.
2
Position the client on their side or in high Fowler's position.
The airway is cleared and protected.
This positioning utilizes gravity to prevent aspiration of any remaining fluids in the oropharynx.
3
Check the client's oxygen saturation level and count the respiratory rate.
The client's clinical status is evaluated.
Data collection determines the severity of the respiratory compromise and guides further interventions.
4
Notify the registered nurse (RN).
Higher-level care is initiated.
The PN must report acute changes in condition to the RN for potential modifications to the plan of care.

Anahtar Kavram

Airway and breathing prioritization during continuous enteral feeding complications
Soru 903Soru →

A 45-year-old client on a medical unit is prescribed antibiotic ear drops for an acute outer ear infection. Which of the following techniques should the practical nurse use when administering this medication?

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Cevap: Pull the client's pinna upward and backward before instilling the drops.

Cevap

The practical nurse should pull the pinna upward and backward to straighten the ear canal for an adult client.
For clients older than 3 years of age and adults, the ear canal is straightened by gently pulling the pinna upward and backward. This essential anatomical adjustment ensures the medication flows deeply into the ear canal to treat the infection effectively.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the age of the client.
The client is 45 years old (an adult).
Ear drop administration techniques differ based on whether the client is an adult or a child under 3 years old.
2
Determine the correct anatomical maneuver to straighten the ear canal for this age group.
The pinna must be pulled upward and backward.
In adults, pulling the pinna upward and backward aligns the ear canal so that the medication can reach the affected area effectively.
3
Evaluate the other administration safety principles.
Medication should be room temperature and the client should be side-lying.
These steps prevent adverse vestibular reactions (vertigo) and ensure the medication remains in the ear.

Anahtar Kavram

Otic Medication Administration in Adults
Soru 904Soru →

During morning rounds, a client is scheduled to receive a daily dose of levothyroxine 75 mcg75\text{ mcg} PO. The practical nurse accesses the automated dispensing cabinet and retrieves a scored tablet labeled 0.15 mg0.15\text{ mg}. Upon seeing the prepared medication, the client remarks, 'I always take a pink pill for my thyroid, but this one is white. Is there a mistake?' Which action should the practical nurse take next?

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Cevap: Withhold the medication and perform a complete verification of the prescription, the medication label, and the dosage calculation.

Cevap

The practical nurse should withhold the medication and perform a complete verification of the prescription, the medication label, and the dosage calculation.
When a client questions a medication's appearance or dosage, it is a critical safety alert. The practical nurse must immediately withhold the medication and re-verify the original prescription, the pharmacy label, and the dosage calculation to ensure the 'right drug' and 'right dose' before proceeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Listen to the client's concern regarding the medication's appearance.
The client actively questions the color of the pill, indicating it differs from their usual home medication.
Client statements about unfamiliar medications are a primary safeguard against medication administration errors.
2
Withhold the scheduled medication.
The administration is safely paused.
The nurse must never administer a medication when there is an unresolved question about its identity or dosage.
3
Re-verify the medication rights.
The prescription, MAR, medication label, and dosage calculation are checked again.
This confirms whether the medication provided is correct (e.g., a generic substitution) or if a dispensing error occurred.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe medication administration and client advocacy
Soru 905Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is evaluating a client two hours after a percutaneous liver biopsy. Which assessment finding requires immediate notification to the registered nurse (RN)?

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Cevap: A heart rate of 115 beats/min and a blood pressure of 88/56 mm Hg

Cevap

The finding of a heart rate of 115 beats/min and a blood pressure of 88/56 mm Hg requires immediate reporting to the RN.
The correct answer identifies tachycardia and hypotension as early signs of hypovolemic shock. Hemorrhage is a major life-threatening complication of a liver biopsy. These vital signs demand immediate escalation to the registered nurse to prevent further decompensation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's recent procedure.
The client underwent a percutaneous liver biopsy, a procedure with a high risk of hemorrhage because the liver is extremely vascular.
Identifying the specific procedure helps anticipate the most dangerous potential complications.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against expected post-procedure outcomes.
Mild referred pain, slight temperature elevation, and a dry spot of blood are expected or non-emergent findings. The elevated heart rate and low blood pressure indicate cardiovascular compromise.
Differentiating between expected benign findings and signs of clinical deterioration is essential for prioritizing nursing care.
3
Determine the priority action based on the findings.
The abnormal vital signs indicate early hypovolemic shock, requiring immediate escalation to the registered nurse or healthcare provider.
Early intervention in shock prevents severe client harm and potential mortality.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock following vascular procedures
Soru 906Soru →

An older adult client is recovering on the surgical unit 1212 hours after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) with ongoing continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). While performing a focused assessment, the practical nurse (PN) notes several clinical changes. Which of the following findings represent emergent complications that must be immediately reported to the registered nurse (RN)? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: The client demonstrates a sudden, new-onset inability to state their location or the current year.; The client's apical pulse gradually rises to 108108 beats per minute with a simultaneous blood pressure reading of 94/5694/56 mmHg.; The morning laboratory report indicates a serum sodium concentration of 120120 mEq/L.

Cevap

The findings requiring immediate escalation are the sudden inability to state location/year, the rising heart rate with falling blood pressure, and the critically low serum sodium of 120 mEq/L.
The correct choices identify emergent, life-threatening complications of a TURP procedure. A sudden change in mental status and a critically low serum sodium level (120120 mEq/L) are classic indicators of TURP syndrome, caused by the systemic absorption of irrigation fluid leading to dilutional hyponatremia and potential cerebral edema. Additionally, the development of borderline tachycardia (108108 bpm) and mild hypotension (94/5694/56 mmHg) are early, subtle signs of hypovolemic shock secondary to postoperative hemorrhage. These findings necessitate immediate escalation to the RN for rapid medical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate neurological and laboratory findings for signs of TURP syndrome.
The acute confusion and sodium of 120 mEq/L indicate severe dilutional hyponatremia.
Irrigation fluid can be absorbed into the systemic circulation, causing life-threatening water intoxication.
2
Analyze the vital sign trends.
A rising heart rate (108 bpm) and decreasing blood pressure (94/56 mmHg) are identified.
These are classic early indicators of hypovolemic shock, likely from postoperative hemorrhage.
3
Assess the urinary output and client comfort reports.
The net urine output is 400 mL, and the urge to void is related to expected bladder spasms.
Expected postoperative findings must be differentiated from true medical emergencies to prioritize care appropriately.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of TURP syndrome (dilutional hyponatremia) and hypovolemic shock during continuous bladder irrigation.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 907Soru →

A practical nurse is monitoring a client who underwent a percutaneous liver biopsy 3 hours ago. The client's current vital signs are blood pressure 102/64 mm Hg, pulse 98 beats/minute, and respirations 20 breaths/minute. Two hours ago, the blood pressure was 126/78 mm Hg and the pulse was 72 beats/minute. The client now reports a new onset of dull right shoulder pain. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Report the findings to the supervising registered nurse immediately.

Cevap

The correct action is to report the findings to the supervising registered nurse immediately.
The client is exhibiting a classic presentation of internal bleeding following a liver biopsy. The trend of an increasing heart rate and decreasing blood pressure indicates early hypovolemic shock, even if the current numbers do not yet meet the strict criteria for severe hypotension. Additionally, blood pooling under the diaphragm irritates the phrenic nerve, causing referred pain to the right shoulder. Because this represents an acute, life-threatening physiological alteration, the practical nurse's immediate priority is to notify the registered nurse so that rapid medical intervention can be initiated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends.
The blood pressure has dropped significantly (from 126/78 to 102/64 mm Hg) and the heart rate has increased (from 72 to 98 beats/minute) over a short period.
Identifying trends in vital signs helps detect early hemodynamic instability before the client enters uncompensated shock.
2
Evaluate the new onset of right shoulder pain.
The pain is identified as referred pain caused by blood accumulating under the diaphragm, irritating the phrenic nerve.
Understanding complication-specific symptoms is critical for safe post-procedure monitoring.
3
Determine the priority practical nursing intervention.
The findings indicate active internal hemorrhage, which requires immediate escalation to the registered nurse.
Internal bleeding is an emergency that requires interventions beyond the practical nurse's scope of practice, making rapid reporting the highest priority.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of internal hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock following invasive procedures
Soru 908Soru →

During bedside handoff in a surgical step-down unit, a practical nurse reviews the clinical data of a young adult client who underwent a laparoscopic splenectomy earlier in the day. The client is drowsy but rouses to verbal stimuli. The flow sheet indicates that over the past three hours, the client's heart rate has climbed from 82 to 118 beats per minute, and blood pressure has narrowed from 120/78 to 106/82 mmHg. The client reports new, mild left shoulder pain and slight abdominal fullness. Based on these clinical findings, which action is the priority for the practical nurse to implement?

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Cevap: Notify the supervising registered nurse immediately regarding the vital sign trends and shoulder pain.

Cevap

Notify the supervising registered nurse immediately regarding the vital sign trends and shoulder pain.
The correct action is to immediately notify the registered nurse because the combination of a narrowing pulse pressure, progressive tachycardia, and left shoulder pain (Kehr's sign) strongly suggests acute internal hemorrhage following a highly vascular surgery like a splenectomy. This is a medical emergency requiring rapid intervention beyond independent practical nursing actions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the trend in the client's vital signs over the past three hours.
The heart rate increased significantly to 118 bpm, and the pulse pressure narrowed from 42 mmHg to 24 mmHg.
Recognizing a narrowing pulse pressure combined with tachycardia is critical, as these are early, subtle indicators of compensatory hypovolemic shock.
2
Correlate the physical symptoms with the surgical history and physiological changes.
The client is experiencing new left shoulder pain and abdominal fullness following a splenectomy.
The spleen is a highly vascular organ. Left shoulder pain (Kehr's sign) indicates diaphragmatic irritation from internal abdominal bleeding, rather than routine post-laparoscopic gas pain.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the practical nursing scope of practice.
The priority action is to escalate these findings to the supervising registered nurse or provider without delay.
The client is exhibiting signs of active internal hemorrhage, a life-threatening medical emergency requiring rapid collaborative intervention and potential surgical revision.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition of early hemorrhagic shock and appropriate clinical escalation
Soru 909Soru →

A practical nurse is assigned to care for a client who receives continuous medical nutrition via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. The client recently underwent a complex lumbar laminectomy that was complicated by a dural tear. The surgeon has prescribed strict bed rest in a completely flat (0-degree) supine position to prevent a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Which action should the practical nurse implement to safely manage this client's basic care needs?

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Cevap: Pause the continuous PEG feeding immediately and report the conflicting positional requirements to the registered nurse.

Cevap

The correct action is to pause the continuous PEG feeding immediately and report the conflicting positional requirements to the registered nurse.
The correct answer identifies a direct and dangerous conflict between standard nutritional care and post-operative safety. Standard practice dictates that continuous enteral feedings require the head of the bed to be elevated at least 30 degrees to prevent aspiration. However, a dural tear strictly requires a flat, 0-degree supine position to prevent a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Because it is physically impossible to safely accommodate both fundamental requirements, the practical nurse must prioritize immediate physiological safety by pausing the feeding and escalating the conflict to the registered nurse or provider for an alternative nutritional or hydration plan.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the surgical prescription.
The client must remain completely flat (0-degree elevation) to prevent a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from the dural tear.
Post-operative positioning requirements for a dural tear are absolute to ensure proper healing and prevent neurological complications.
2
Evaluate the basic care intervention (enteral feeding).
Continuous PEG feedings require the head of the bed to be elevated to at least 30 to 45 degrees.
Elevation utilizes gravity to prevent gastric reflux and life-threatening aspiration of the formula into the lungs.
3
Synthesize the findings to identify the conflict.
A direct physiological contraindication exists between the required flat position for the dural tear and the required elevated position for the enteral feeding.
The nurse cannot safely implement both interventions simultaneously.
4
Determine the priority nursing action.
The nurse must pause the feeding and notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider.
Operating within the practical nurse scope of practice requires halting unsafe interventions and escalating conflicting orders for resolution (e.g., initiating temporary IV fluids or total parenteral nutrition).

Anahtar Kavram

Synthesis of enteral nutrition safety, post-operative positioning constraints, and scope of practice prioritization.
Soru 910Soru →

An older adult client with a history of heart failure suddenly becomes highly restless, confused, and demonstrates a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. Which intervention should be prioritized immediately?

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to an upright sitting position

Cevap

Elevate the head of the bed to an upright sitting position
Elevating the head of the bed expands lung capacity and improves oxygenation, addressing the immediate physiological need. Sudden restlessness and confusion combined with tachypnea are early signs of hypoxia, so stabilizing the airway and breathing takes priority over all other interventions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's presenting symptoms.
The combination of sudden restlessness, confusion, and tachypnea (30 breaths/min) indicates acute hypoxia and respiratory distress.
Identifying the physiological meaning of the symptoms determines the level of urgency.
2
Apply the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework.
Breathing is significantly compromised, meaning respiratory support is the most critical need.
Life-threatening issues must be addressed before secondary symptoms like confusion or potential pain.
3
Select the most immediate and effective nursing intervention.
Placing the client in an upright sitting position facilitates immediate lung expansion.
Gravity pulls the diaphragm downward, increasing chest cavity volume and improving oxygenation.

Anahtar Kavram

Hypoxia Recognition and Airway Prioritization
Soru 911Soru →

A practical nurse is providing care for a client who has just returned to the unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The nurse is preparing to assist the client into a resting position. Which position is most appropriate to promote client safety and prevent bleeding complications?

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Cevap: Right side-lying position with a small towel roll placed under the puncture site

Cevap

The client should be placed in a right side-lying position with a small towel roll beneath the puncture site.
After a percutaneous liver biopsy, the most critical intervention is preventing hemorrhage because the liver is highly vascular. The liver is located on the right side of the body. Placing the client in a right side-lying (lateral) position uses their own body weight to apply direct, continuous pressure to the puncture site. A small towel or pillow placed directly under the site provides additional localized compression to promote hemostasis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the procedure performed and its anatomical location.
The client had a liver biopsy. The liver is located on the right side of the upper abdomen.
Understanding the anatomy is essential to determine where direct pressure must be applied.
2
Determine the primary post-procedure risk.
The greatest risk following a percutaneous liver biopsy is internal bleeding (hemorrhage) from the puncture site.
The liver is a highly vascular organ and bleeds easily when punctured.
3
Select the position that best mitigates this risk.
The right side-lying position applies the client's own body weight against the bed to create direct pressure on the liver.
Continuous direct pressure promotes hemostasis and prevents bleeding complications.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure positioning to prevent hemorrhage following a liver biopsy.
Soru 912Soru →

An older adult client is 24 hours24\text{ hours} postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. The client is prescribed scheduled subcutaneous dalteparin for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Morning laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin decrease from 14.1 g/dL14.1\text{ g/dL} (141 g/L141\text{ g/L}) to 10.2 g/dL10.2\text{ g/dL} (102 g/L102\text{ g/L}). During morning rounds, the client appears restless. The automated vital signs are: temperature 98.6∘F98.6^\circ\text{F} (37.0∘C37.0^\circ\text{C}), heart rate 116 beats/min116\text{ beats/min}, respiratory rate 22 breaths/min22\text{ breaths/min}, and blood pressure 98/62 mmHg98/62\text{ mmHg}. The registered nurse (RN) directs the practical nurse to administer the scheduled dalteparin. Which action should the practical nurse take?

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Cevap: Withhold the dalteparin and immediately notify the registered nurse of the assessment findings and laboratory trends.

Cevap

The practical nurse must withhold the scheduled dalteparin and immediately report the vital signs and hemoglobin drop to the registered nurse.
The correct action is to withhold the dalteparin and notify the RN. The combination of a sudden hemoglobin drop, tachycardia, borderline hypotension, and new-onset restlessness are classic early signs of hypovolemic shock secondary to internal bleeding. Administering an anticoagulant in this physiological state is extremely dangerous. The practical nurse must advocate for the client's safety by utilizing clinical judgment to withhold the dose and rapidly escalating the condition.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client presents with a newly elevated heart rate, borderline low blood pressure, and restlessness.
These findings are classic early compensatory mechanisms indicating hypovolemic shock.
2
Correlate the clinical presentation with the diagnostic laboratory data.
The hemoglobin has dropped significantly by nearly 4 g/dL4\text{ g/dL} within a 24-hour24\text{-hour} postoperative window.
A rapid decrease in hemoglobin combined with shock symptoms strongly confirms the likelihood of active internal hemorrhage.
3
Evaluate the prescribed pharmacological therapy against the client's acute physiological status.
Dalteparin is a low molecular weight heparin (anticoagulant).
Administering any anticoagulant to a client experiencing active internal bleeding will exacerbate the hemorrhage and further compromise circulation.
4
Determine the appropriate nursing action within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The practical nurse must withhold the medication and immediately escalate the clinical findings to the RN.
The practical nurse is responsible for ensuring medication safety and communicating critical physiological changes that require RN or provider intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe medication administration requires evaluating physiological status; anticoagulants are contraindicated during active internal hemorrhage.
Soru 913Soru →

A practical nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who receives enteral nutrition and medications via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. The client's current weight is 73 kg73\text{ kg}. The health care provider prescribes a maintenance dose of digoxin oral solution at 6 mcg/kg6\text{ mcg/kg} daily. The pharmacy dispenses digoxin liquid with a concentration of 0.05 mg/mL0.05\text{ mg/mL}. Prior to administration, the nurse notes a regular apical pulse of 68 beats/min68\text{ beats/min} and a serum potassium level of 4.3 mEq/L4.3\text{ mEq/L}. How many milliliters will the nurse administer? Record answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in answer.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 8.8

Cevap

8.8
To safely administer this medication, the practical nurse must first verify that the apical pulse and potassium levels are within safe parameters. After verifying safety, the weight-based dose (438 mcg438\text{ mcg}) is calculated. Because the supplied liquid is measured in mg (0.05 mg/mL0.05\text{ mg/mL}), it must be converted to mcg (50 mcg/mL50\text{ mcg/mL}). Finally, dividing the needed dose by the concentration yields 8.76 mL8.76\text{ mL}, which rounds appropriately to 8.88.8.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate pre-administration assessment data.
The nurse determines it is safe to proceed with administration.
Digoxin requires an apical pulse of at least 60 beats/min in adults and normal potassium levels (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) to prevent toxicity.
2
Calculate the total required dose in micrograms (mcg).
73 kg×6 mcg/kg=438 mcg73\text{ kg} \times 6\text{ mcg/kg} = 438\text{ mcg}
The prescription is weight-based, requiring multiplication of the client's weight in kg by the prescribed mcg/kg dose.
3
Convert the available concentration to matching units (mcg).
0.05 mg=50 mcg0.05\text{ mg} = 50\text{ mcg}, making the concentration 50 mcg/mL50\text{ mcg/mL}.
Dosage calculations require the ordered dose and the available dose to be in the same unit of measurement before division.
4
Calculate the volume in milliliters (mL).
438 mcg÷50 mcg/mL=8.76 mL438\text{ mcg} \div 50\text{ mcg/mL} = 8.76\text{ mL}
Dividing the desired dose by the available concentration yields the required liquid volume.
5
Round to the nearest tenth.
8.8
The question specifically requests the final answer to be recorded to the nearest tenth without units.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based dosage calculations, unit conversions, and pre-administration safety checks for cardiac glycosides.
Soru 914Soru →

A practical nurse is managing care for multiple clients on an acute medical-surgical unit. Which of the following independent or collaborative actions by the practical nurse demonstrate the correct application of risk reduction principles? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Questions a prescription to administer a continuous intravenous infusion of 0.45% sodium chloride to a client admitted with a severe traumatic brain injury.; Withholds a scheduled oral dose of spironolactone and alerts the registered nurse upon noting a client's morning serum potassium level is 5.8 mEq/L.

Cevap

The correct actions are questioning the hypotonic fluid prescription for the traumatic brain injury client, and withholding the potassium-sparing diuretic for the hyperkalemic client.
Effective risk reduction requires the practical nurse to synthesize pharmacology, pathology, and laboratory data to prevent harm. Questioning a hypotonic intravenous fluid in a traumatic brain injury prevents lethal exacerbation of cerebral edema. Withholding spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, in a client with an already elevated potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L prevents potentially fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the fluid tonicity prescribed for the traumatic brain injury (TBI) client.
Identified that 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution.
Hypotonic solutions cause fluid shifts into cells, increasing cerebral edema. Questioning this order prevents neurological deterioration.
2
Analyze the laboratory values against the prescribed medications.
Identified that the client has hyperkalemia (5.8 mEq/L) and is prescribed spironolactone.
Spironolactone retains potassium. Giving it would dangerously elevate potassium levels further, risking cardiac arrest. Withholding it is essential.
3
Review the remaining actions to identify breaches in risk reduction or scope of practice.
Identified that options involving delayed reporting of borderline shock, ignoring critical hypocalcemia, accepting a vasoactive drip assignment, and bypassing medication scanning are all unsafe.
Risk reduction requires immediate escalation of critical clinical changes, operating strictly within the legal scope of practice, and adhering to strict medication safety protocols.

Anahtar Kavram

Clinical Judgement and Risk Mitigation in the Practical Nurse Scope of Practice
Soru 915Soru →

A practical nurse is caring for a client who has a T4 spinal cord injury. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache. The nurse notes profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury and measures a blood pressure of 210/110 mm Hg. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the items in the correct sequence, starting with the most immediate priority).

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct priority sequence is to first elevate the client's head to a high-Fowler's position, then assess for a triggering stimulus such as a kinked catheter, followed by notifying the registered nurse, and finally documenting the event.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening neurological emergency that affects clients with spinal cord injuries at or above the T6 level. The sudden, massive sympathetic response causes severe hypertension. The nurse's absolute first action must be to sit the client upright, which uses gravity to pool blood in the lower extremities and rapidly decrease blood pressure. The next priority is to find and eliminate the cause, which is most often a distended bladder or impacted bowel. Therefore, checking the catheter is the second step. After independent nursing actions are taken to stabilize the client and gather data, the RN is notified. Documentation is always the final step after the emergency is managed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Place the client in a high-Fowler's (sitting) position.
Induces orthostatic hypotension.
Immediately lowers the dangerously high blood pressure to prevent a cerebral vascular accident (stroke).
2
Inspect the indwelling urinary catheter tubing for kinks or obstruction.
Identifies potential noxious stimuli.
Bladder distention is the most common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia. Identifying and resolving it stops the abnormal sympathetic response.
3
Notify the registered nurse (RN) of the assessment findings.
Activates the broader healthcare team.
The RN and healthcare provider must be aware of the emergency to prescribe or administer rapid-acting antihypertensive medications if necessary.
4
Document the acute event and the client's response to interventions.
Maintains the legal and medical record.
Documentation must reflect the exact sequence of events, vital signs, and interventions, but it is always performed after client stabilization.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of interventions for a client experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, focusing on immediate risk reduction followed by identifying the triggering stimulus.
Soru 916Soru →

An 80-year-old client with a history of mild cognitive impairment and chronic bronchitis is admitted for a suspected urinary tract infection. Upon entering the room, the practical nurse observes the client is highly restless, picking at the bedsheets, and speaking incoherently. Current vital signs are: temperature 99.1°F (37.3°C), heart rate 112 beats/min, respiratory rate 26 breaths/min, blood pressure 102/60 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation 89% on room air. Which action should the practical nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed, apply supplemental oxygen, and notify the registered nurse.

Cevap

Elevate the head of the bed, apply supplemental oxygen, and notify the registered nurse.
The client is demonstrating signs of acute hypoxia (oxygen saturation of 89%, tachypnea, and new-onset restlessness). According to the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework, the nurse must first address the compromised breathing and oxygenation by positioning the client to optimize lung expansion, applying oxygen, and immediately escalating the critical findings to the registered nurse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
Identified oxygen saturation of 89%, tachypnea, tachycardia, and sudden acute agitation.
To establish the client's current physiological status and identify any immediate life-threatening abnormalities.
2
Apply a clinical prioritization framework.
Determined that Breathing (oxygenation) is severely compromised and is the likely cause of the acute restlessness.
The ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework dictates that respiratory deficits must be addressed before secondary safety or psychosocial concerns.
3
Determine the most appropriate immediate nursing intervention.
Selected interventions to improve oxygenation (head elevation, oxygen application) and escalate care.
Immediate correction of hypoxia is required to prevent further physiological deterioration, and critical vital signs must be reported to the RN.

Anahtar Kavram

Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABC) prioritization in acute physiological deterioration
Soru 917Soru →

A client is receiving continuous nasogastric (NG) suctioning for a small bowel obstruction. While reviewing the morning electronic health record, the practical nurse (PN) notes a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L2.8 \text{ mEq/L} (2.8 mmol/L2.8 \text{ mmol/L}) and a current apical pulse of 105 beats/min105 \text{ beats/min}. Which action should the PN take first?

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Cevap: Notify the registered nurse (RN) immediately about the laboratory value and the elevated heart rate.

Cevap

Notify the registered nurse (RN) immediately about the laboratory value and the elevated heart rate.
The correct answer involves immediately notifying the RN. A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L2.8 \text{ mEq/L} is critically low (normal is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L3.5 \text{ to } 5.0 \text{ mEq/L}) and places the client at severe risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. The mild tachycardia (105 beats/min105 \text{ beats/min}) may be an early sign of cardiac irritability. The PN must escalate these findings to the RN so that prompt medical intervention, such as electrolyte replacement, can be initiated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the morning laboratory result.
The serum potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L2.8 \text{ mEq/L}, which is significantly below the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L3.5 \text{ to } 5.0 \text{ mEq/L}.
Identifying critical laboratory values is essential for recognizing risk potential.
2
Evaluate the current vital signs in the context of the laboratory result.
The apical pulse is 105 beats/min105 \text{ beats/min}, indicating mild tachycardia.
Hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, and tachycardia may be an early indicator of cardiovascular compromise.
3
Determine the appropriate scope of practice for the practical nurse (PN).
The PN must report these critical findings to the RN for further assessment and to receive new orders.
Initiating intravenous electrolyte replacement or performing advanced cardiac assessments falls outside the PN scope, requiring immediate escalation.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Recognizing critical laboratory values and escalating to the RN.
Soru 918Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled oral antihypertensive medication. The barcode scanner on the medication cart is temporarily broken. Which action is the most appropriate for the PN to take before administering the medication?

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Cevap: Ask the client to state their full name and date of birth while verifying this information against the client's printed identification band.

Cevap

The nurse should ask the client to explicitly state their full name and date of birth while verifying the information on the printed identification band.
The standard of care for safe medication administration requires the nurse to verify at least two distinct client identifiers. Having the client actively state their name and date of birth, and cross-checking this against the identification band, is the safest manual method when electronic barcode scanning is unavailable.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize that barcode scanning is a safety tool, but its absence does not eliminate the requirement to verify patient identity.
The nurse must use a manual, two-identifier verification method.
Safe medication administration requires strict adherence to the 'rights' of medication administration.
2
Select two acceptable, independent client identifiers.
The client's full name and date of birth are standard, approved identifiers.
Using objective, verifiable personal data prevents administering medications to the wrong client.
3
Actively involve the client in the identification process while cross-referencing with official documentation.
The nurse asks the client to state their information and checks the printed identification band.
This confirms the information verbally while validating it against the facility's official identification tool.

Anahtar Kavram

Medication Rights and Safe Client Identification
Soru 919Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who is 1818 hours postoperative following a partial bowel resection. The client is scheduled to receive a routine dose of oral furosemide for a history of heart failure. The client's admission baseline blood pressure was 142/86 mmHg142/86\text{ mmHg}. The current vital signs are blood pressure 98/64 mmHg98/64\text{ mmHg}, heart rate 108 beats per minute108\text{ beats per minute}, and respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute20\text{ breaths per minute}. The morning comprehensive metabolic panel indicates a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L2.8\text{ mEq/L} (2.8 mmol/L2.8\text{ mmol/L}). Which action should the PN take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the furosemide and immediately notify the registered nurse of the client's vital signs and laboratory results.

Cevap

The practical nurse should withhold the furosemide and immediately notify the registered nurse of the client's unstable vital signs and critical laboratory results.
Furosemide is a potassium-wasting loop diuretic that reduces fluid volume. Administering this medication to a client with a critically low potassium level (2.8 mEq/L2.8\text{ mEq/L}) and borderline vital signs indicating potential early shock (hypotension and tachycardia) could precipitate cardiovascular collapse or lethal dysrhythmias. The practical nurse must withhold the dose to reduce the risk of harm and immediately escalate these findings to the registered nurse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and compare them to the admission baseline.
The blood pressure has dropped significantly from 142/86 mmHg142/86\text{ mmHg} to 98/64 mmHg98/64\text{ mmHg}, and the heart rate is elevated at 108 beats per minute108\text{ beats per minute}.
Recognizing a downward trend in blood pressure combined with tachycardia is essential to identifying potential early hypovolemic shock or hemorrhage in a postoperative client.
2
Evaluate the morning laboratory results.
The serum potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L2.8\text{ mEq/L}, which is critically low (normal is typically 3.53.5 to 5.0 mEq/L5.0\text{ mEq/L}).
Hypokalemia increases the risk of life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and must be identified before administering medications that affect electrolyte balance.
3
Determine the pharmacological impact of the prescribed medication.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes fluid excretion and potassium loss.
Administering furosemide would exacerbate both the client's hypovolemia (worsening the shock state) and hypokalemia (increasing dysrhythmia risk).
4
Apply the practical nurse's scope of practice to the situation.
The medication must be withheld, and the findings must be urgently escalated to the registered nurse.
The PN cannot independently alter the medical plan or perform a comprehensive assessment, but must intervene by holding harmful medications and reporting critical changes.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Recognizing and Escaping Clinical Deterioration
Soru 920Soru →

An uncircumcised adult client requires assistance with personal hygiene while on strict bed rest. In what sequence should the practical nurse execute the steps for male perineal care? Arrange the actions from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first position and drape the client, retract the prepuce, cleanse the glans from the meatus outward, dry the glans and immediately replace the prepuce, and finally wash the shaft and scrotum.
The principles of medical asepsis require cleaning from the least contaminated area to the most contaminated. For an uncircumcised male, the sequence begins with proper positioning and draping to respect dignity. Next, the prepuce (foreskin) is retracted to expose the meatus. The glans is washed from the meatus outward to prevent introducing microorganisms into the urethra. Crucially, the prepuce must be immediately returned to its natural position after drying the glans to prevent paraphimosis (swelling and compromised circulation). Finally, the shaft and scrotum, which are considered more contaminated, are washed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position and drape the client.
Exposes only the necessary area.
Maintains client dignity and provides a clear workspace.
2
Retract the prepuce (foreskin).
Exposes the glans penis and urethral meatus.
Allows for the removal of smegma and bacteria that collect under the foreskin.
3
Cleanse the glans from the meatus outward.
Removes secretions without pushing bacteria into the urethra.
Follows the medical asepsis principle of cleaning from the least to most contaminated area.
4
Dry the glans and replace the prepuce.
Restores normal anatomical position.
Prevents paraphimosis, a medical emergency that can cause severe edema and tissue ischemia if the foreskin is left retracted.
5
Wash the penile shaft and scrotum.
Cleans the remaining external genitalia.
These areas are considered more contaminated than the meatus and are therefore washed last using downward strokes.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Hygiene and Infection Control: Male Perineal Care
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-PN — Sayfa 46 | Examkin