Physiological Integrity

1313 soru

Soru 1121Soru →

Upon receiving a client who just completed a percutaneous liver biopsy, the practical nurse must ensure the client is safely situated in bed. To effectively compress the biopsy site and prevent internal bleeding, which position is most appropriate?

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Cevap: Right lateral position with a folded towel placed beneath the lower rib cage

Cevap

The right lateral position with a folded towel placed beneath the lower rib cage.
The liver is a highly vascular organ located on the right side of the body. After a percutaneous liver biopsy, the client is at a high risk for hemorrhage. Positioning the client in a right lateral (side-lying) position with a towel or small pillow under the puncture site uses the client's own body weight to apply direct, continuous pressure to the liver capsule. This mechanical compression is a fundamental care measure essential to promote hemostasis and prevent internal bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the anatomical location of the liver and the procedural entry point.
The liver is located on the right side of the abdomen, and the biopsy is typically performed through the right lower rib cage.
Understanding the procedural site is required to determine where external pressure must be applied.
2
Determine the primary post-procedure complication associated with a liver biopsy.
Hemorrhage is the major risk because the liver is a highly vascular organ.
Identifying the primary complication guides the selection of the correct nursing intervention.
3
Select the basic care intervention that directly mitigates this risk.
Applying direct, continuous pressure to the puncture site promotes hemostasis and prevents internal bleeding.
Mechanical compression is necessary to allow blood vessels at the puncture site to clot.
4
Evaluate the given positions to find the one that provides the necessary compression.
The right lateral position uses the client's own body weight to compress the liver against the abdominal wall.
Only this position effectively targets the right side of the body where the biopsy occurred.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure Client Positioning
Soru 1122Soru →

A practical nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is resting supine in bed. The client suddenly becomes restless and reports severe difficulty breathing. In what sequence should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the actions from first to last.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: assist the client into a high-Fowler's position, obtain vital signs and oxygen saturation, administer supplemental oxygen as prescribed, and finally report the change in condition to the charge nurse.
In any acute respiratory distress scenario, anatomical positioning to open the airway and facilitate lung expansion is the absolute first priority (Airway/Breathing). After the airway is physically optimized, the nurse collects necessary data (vital signs and oxygen saturation) to guide further intervention, administers prescribed physical treatments (oxygen), and finally communicates the status change to the broader healthcare team.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the immediate threat to the client's stability.
The client is experiencing sudden respiratory distress, making airway and breathing the absolute top priority.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, respiratory compromise must be addressed before other actions.
2
Select the quickest, most direct intervention to improve breathing.
Assisting the client to a high-Fowler's position is chosen as the first action.
Repositioning provides immediate relief for dyspnea by utilizing gravity to pull organs away from the diaphragm, requiring no equipment or orders to initiate.
3
Determine the next priority after optimizing the client's airway.
Obtaining vital signs and oxygen saturation is the second action.
Data collection is necessary to quantify the severity of the distress and guide further clinical decisions within the PN scope of practice.
4
Implement ordered therapies based on the newly collected data.
Administering prescribed supplemental oxygen is the third action.
Oxygen therapy directly treats the underlying hypoxia identified during the assessment phase.
5
Ensure the healthcare team is aware of the acute change.
Reporting to the charge nurse is the final action in this immediate sequence.
Once the client is stabilized and initial interventions are complete, the supervising nurse must be informed for further medical evaluation and potential modification of the care plan.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of airway and breathing management during acute respiratory distress
Soru 1123Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has limited mobility from a bed to a stretcher using a lateral transfer board (slide board). The nurse has already explained the procedure to the client, gathered an assistant, and performed hand hygiene. Arrange the following steps in the correct order to safely complete the transfer.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first level and lock the bed and stretcher, turn the client away, position the board under the draw sheet, roll the client supine onto the board, and finally slide them across.
A safe lateral transfer requires a systematic approach to prevent client injury and nurse strain. First, stabilizing and leveling the surfaces (bed and stretcher) is the fundamental safety priority. Next, the client must be turned away from the destination to expose the bed surface, allowing the transfer board to be placed safely under the draw sheet without shearing the skin. The client is then rolled back onto the board to secure their weight, followed by a coordinated slide using the draw sheet to move the client smoothly across the gap.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Adjust bed and stretcher height and lock wheels.
Both surfaces are level, stable, and secure.
This is the primary safety measure to prevent the bed or stretcher from separating or moving during the transfer.
2
Turn the client away from the stretcher.
The client is in a lateral position.
This exposes the bed surface and allows the nurse to position the board without forcing it roughly under the client.
3
Position the transfer board under the draw sheet.
The board bridges the gap between the bed and stretcher.
Placing it under the draw sheet protects the client's skin from friction and utilizes the sheet for the pulling action.
4
Return the client to a supine position.
The client is centered securely on the transfer board.
This properly distributes the client's weight and prepares their body alignment for the slide.
5
Slide the client across the board.
The client is successfully transferred to the stretcher.
Coordinating the pull with an assistant ensures proper ergonomics for the staff and a smooth, safe transfer for the client.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe client handling and mobility: lateral transfer techniques
Soru 1124Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The client reports a mild headache and increased thirst. The PN notes that the client has produced 900 mL of pale urine over the past 2 hours. Current vital signs are blood pressure 102/64 mmHg, heart rate 114 beats/min, and respiratory rate 18 breaths/min. Which of the following actions should the PN take FIRST?

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Cevap: Immediately report the urine output and vital signs to the registered nurse.

Cevap

The correct action is to immediately report the urine output and vital signs to the registered nurse.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of acute Diabetes Insipidus (DI), a common complication following pituitary surgery. The massive loss of dilute urine (900 mL in 2 hours) has led to a fluid volume deficit, evidenced by early signs of hypovolemic shock (heart rate of 114 beats/min and blood pressure of 102/64 mmHg). Immediate escalation to the registered nurse is the priority so that rapid intravenous fluid replacement and synthetic antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can be initiated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's surgical history.
The client had a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy.
This surgery involves the pituitary gland, placing the client at extremely high risk for developing Diabetes Insipidus (DI) due to a sudden decrease in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production.
2
Evaluate the current clinical findings.
The client has massive polyuria (900 mL in 2 hours), tachycardia (114 beats/min), and a borderline low blood pressure (102/64 mmHg).
These findings collectively indicate acute fluid volume depletion and the early stages of hypovolemic shock.
3
Determine the priority nursing action.
The practical nurse must escalate the findings immediately to the registered nurse.
The client requires urgent medical intervention (intravenous fluid resuscitation and synthetic ADH) to prevent severe cardiovascular collapse. Independent actions will delay life-saving care.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing early signs of hypovolemic shock secondary to postoperative Diabetes Insipidus
Soru 1125Soru →

A practical nurse working in a rehabilitation facility is reviewing the morning laboratory results for a resident who takes daily oral warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The resident's International Normalized Ratio (INR) is reported as 5.5. Which action is the most appropriate for the nurse to take?

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Cevap: Withhold any scheduled warfarin doses and notify the supervising registered nurse immediately.

Cevap

Withhold any scheduled warfarin doses and notify the supervising registered nurse immediately.
The therapeutic INR range for a client on warfarin therapy is generally 2.0 to 3.0. An INR of 5.5 is critically elevated and places the client at an immediate high risk for spontaneous bleeding. The nurse must withhold the medication to prevent further elevating the INR and notify the supervising nurse or healthcare provider immediately so that potential dosage adjustments or reversal orders can be managed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the provided laboratory value (INR of 5.5).
Recognize that the value is significantly above the standard therapeutic range for warfarin (typically 2.0 to 3.0).
Identifying abnormal laboratory data is essential for determining medication safety.
2
Identify the primary risk associated with the abnormal finding.
Determine that a supratherapeutic INR places the client at a high risk for spontaneous and severe hemorrhage.
Understanding the clinical implication of the lab value guides prioritization.
3
Select the safest nursing intervention within the practical nurse scope of practice.
Decide to withhold the medication and escalate the critical finding to the RN or healthcare provider.
Preventing harm by stopping the causative agent and communicating with the care team is the priority for risk reduction.

Anahtar Kavram

Critical Laboratory Escalation and Risk Mitigation
Soru 1126Soru →

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is assisting a healthcare provider with a bedside thoracentesis for a client who has a pleural effusion. In what order should the LPN perform the following actions to reduce the client's risk of potential complications? (Arrange the steps from first to last.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Verify identity and consent, position the client upright over a table, instruct the client to remain still, apply a sterile dressing, and finally auscultate breath sounds.
To reduce the risk of complications during a thoracentesis, the practical nurse must follow a logical sequence from pre-procedure preparation to post-procedure monitoring. First, safety protocols require verifying identity and informed consent. Next, optimal positioning is required to safely access the pleural space. Once positioned, instructing the client to remain still prevents accidental lung puncture during the procedure. Immediately after the procedure, a sterile dressing prevents air entry and infection. Finally, the nurse monitors respiratory status to detect complications such as a pneumothorax.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Verify identity and informed consent.
The correct client is identified and legal permission is confirmed.
This is the primary safety check and must always precede any invasive procedure.
2
Position the client upright and leaning over an overbed table.
The client is in the optimal anatomical position.
This specific position expands the intercostal spaces, allowing safe access to the pleural fluid and reducing the risk of puncturing the lung.
3
Instruct the client to remain still and avoid coughing.
The client understands the critical need for immobility.
Sudden movements or coughing during needle insertion can cause a traumatic pneumothorax or liver/spleen puncture.
4
Apply a sterile dressing to the puncture site.
The puncture site is sealed immediately after needle removal.
This prompt action prevents ambient air from entering the pleural cavity (which could cause a pneumothorax) and reduces infection risk.
5
Auscultate breath sounds and monitor respiratory rate.
The client's post-procedure respiratory status is evaluated.
Continuous monitoring is necessary to detect early clinical signs of a pneumothorax, respiratory distress, or hypoxemia.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritizing nursing actions before, during, and after an invasive procedure to minimize the risk of complications such as organ puncture or pneumothorax.
Soru 1127Soru →

An older adult client with a history of mild dementia is receiving care for severe dehydration secondary to gastroenteritis. The client is usually cooperative but suddenly becomes extremely restless and begins pulling at their intravenous tubing. The practical nurse (PN) obtains a heart rate of 114 beats/min and a blood pressure of 94/56 mm Hg. What is the priority action for the PN?

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Cevap: Immediately report the altered mental status and vital sign changes to the registered nurse (RN).

Cevap

The priority action is to immediately report the altered mental status and vital sign changes to the registered nurse (RN).
The client is demonstrating classic signs of early hypovolemic shock caused by dehydration: tachycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status (restlessness due to decreased cerebral perfusion). Recognizing these subtle but critical changes and immediately notifying the RN is the priority action within the PN scope of practice to facilitate life-saving interventions, such as an intravenous fluid bolus.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and recent history.
The client has a history of severe fluid loss (gastroenteritis) and is now showing acute restlessness, tachycardia (114 beats/min), and hypotension (94/56 mm Hg).
Understanding the complete clinical picture is the first step in recognizing physiological deterioration.
2
Differentiate between the client's baseline cognitive status and acute changes.
The acute restlessness and pulling at tubes represent a significant change from their baseline 'mild dementia' and cooperative nature.
Sudden mental status changes (delirium) often indicate an underlying physiological problem, such as poor cerebral perfusion or hypoxia.
3
Prioritize nursing actions based on the severity of the findings and the PN scope of practice.
The findings indicate impending hypovolemic shock, requiring immediate escalation of care to the RN for rapid medical intervention.
Under the PN scope of practice, acute hemodynamic instability is a life-threatening priority that must be immediately reported.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock and acute delirium in older adults.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1128Soru →

An adult client is transferred to the medical-surgical unit 4 hours after a subtotal thyroidectomy. The client reports mild neck discomfort and difficulty swallowing. To promote comfort, minimize tissue swelling, and reduce tension on the surgical site, which position is most appropriate for the nurse to assist the client into?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Semi-Fowler's position with pillows supporting the head and neck in neutral alignment

Cevap

Semi-Fowler's position with pillows supporting the head and neck in neutral alignment
Following a thyroidectomy, placing the client in a Semi-Fowler's position (head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees) with the head and neck supported by pillows in a neutral position is the standard of care. The elevation minimizes tissue edema and swelling that could compromise the airway, while the neutral alignment prevents stretching or tension on the surgical incision, thereby reducing pain and the risk of wound separation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's postoperative status and the anatomical location of the surgery (subtotal thyroidectomy).
Recognize that the surgical site is in the anterior neck, making the airway highly vulnerable to compression from swelling.
Identifying the specific risks of the procedure (edema, airway compromise, and bleeding) is essential before selecting a comfort intervention.
2
Determine the optimal degree of bed elevation.
Select a Semi-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees).
Elevating the upper body uses gravity to promote venous return, which decreases tissue swelling and edema around the airway and incision.
3
Determine the optimal alignment for the cervical spine.
Ensure the head and neck are supported in a neutral alignment using pillows.
Maintaining a neutral position prevents neck flexion or hyperextension, both of which place dangerous tension on the fresh suture line and cause discomfort.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Positioning for Neck Surgery
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1129Soru →

A practical nurse is caring for a client who underwent a bowel resection 1212 hours ago. The client appears increasingly restless, reports an abdominal pain level of 88 on a 00 to 1010 scale, and requests a prescribed PRN dose of oral hydrocodone-acetaminophen. A routine dose of oral carvedilol is also due at this time. Current vital signs are blood pressure 86/5286/52 mmHg, apical heart rate 118118 beats/min, and respiratory rate 2222 breaths/min. Which of the following actions should the practical nurse take first?

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Cevap: Withhold both medications and immediately notify the registered nurse.

Cevap

The practical nurse should withhold both the hydrocodone-acetaminophen and the carvedilol, and immediately notify the registered nurse.
The client's presentation of low blood pressure, high heart rate, and restlessness 1212 hours post-surgery indicates potential hemorrhage or hypovolemic shock. Carvedilol (a beta-blocker) lowers blood pressure and heart rate, which would blunt the body's compensatory mechanisms. Hydrocodone-acetaminophen (an opioid analgesic) causes vasodilation, which would further decrease blood pressure. The safest and most appropriate action within the practical nurse scope of practice is to withhold both medications and immediately alert the registered nurse so that rapid interventions (such as fluid resuscitation or blood products) can be initiated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client has hypotension (86/5286/52 mmHg), tachycardia (118118 beats/min), and restlessness, which are classic signs of hypovolemia or early shock following abdominal surgery.
Identifying physiological instability is the first essential step before administering any pharmacological therapies.
2
Evaluate the pharmacological effects of the prescribed medications on the client's current state.
Carvedilol decreases blood pressure and heart rate. Hydrocodone causes vasodilation and can further decrease blood pressure.
Medications must be held if their therapeutic or adverse effects will worsen the client's compromised circulatory status.
3
Determine the appropriate action within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The nurse must withhold the contraindicated medications and escalate the situation to the registered nurse.
Practical nurses must immediately report acute, life-threatening changes in a client's condition to the RN or provider for advanced assessment and orders.

Anahtar Kavram

Pre-administration Assessment and Safe Medication Administration in Unstable Clients
Soru 1130Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing morning laboratory results for a client receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion. The client also began oral warfarin therapy 4848 hours ago. The client's baseline platelet count on admission was 250,000/mm3250,000/\text{mm}^3. The current laboratory results are as follows:

Laboratory TestCurrent ResultReference/Control
International Normalized Ratio (INR)1.41.42.02.0 - 3.03.0 (Target)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)6868 seconds3030 seconds (Control)
Platelet count82,000/mm382,000/\text{mm}^3150,000150,000 - 400,000/mm3400,000/\text{mm}^3

The PN is preparing to administer the scheduled morning dose of oral warfarin. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority action by the PN?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the scheduled warfarin and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN) of the platelet count.

Cevap

Withhold the scheduled warfarin and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN) of the platelet count.
The correct action is to withhold the warfarin and notify the RN immediately. The significant drop in platelets (greater than 50%50\% from baseline) indicates a high probability of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT), a paradoxical, life-threatening clotting disorder caused by heparin exposure. In acute HIT, administering oral warfarin is strictly contraindicated because it rapidly depletes Protein C, drastically increasing the risk of microvascular thrombosis and venous limb gangrene. The practical nurse must prioritize client safety by withholding the medication and escalating this critical laboratory finding so the healthcare team can halt the heparin infusion and initiate a non-heparin anticoagulant.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the INR result.
An INR of 1.41.4 is expected after 4848 hours of warfarin therapy, as it typically takes 33 to 55 days to reach the therapeutic range of 2.02.0 to 3.03.0.
Understanding the expected timeline for oral anticoagulants prevents inappropriate dosage adjustments.
2
Analyze the aPTT result.
An aPTT of 6868 seconds is within the normal therapeutic range for a continuous heparin infusion (typically 1.51.5 to 2.52.5 times the control value).
Verifying that the heparin infusion is therapeutic rules out overt toxicity as the primary issue.
3
Analyze the platelet count trend.
The platelet count has dropped from 250,000/mm3250,000/\text{mm}^3 to 82,000/mm382,000/\text{mm}^3, representing a decrease of more than 50%50\%.
A severe drop in platelets during heparin therapy is the hallmark sign of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT).
4
Determine the safest clinical action based on the LPN scope of practice.
The PN must withhold the warfarin and immediately escalate the critical findings to the RN.
HIT is a life-threatening complication. Warfarin is contraindicated in acute HIT due to the high risk of venous limb gangrene, and the heparin infusion must be halted by the RN.

Anahtar Kavram

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) and Anticoagulant Safety

Alternatif Yöntem

While calculating the exact percentage drop in platelets is helpful, simply recognizing that the platelet count has plummeted from a normal baseline to well below the normal range during heparin therapy is sufficient to flag the finding as a critical adverse reaction requiring immediate escalation.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1131Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to administer a mixed dose of short-acting (Regular) and intermediate-acting (NPH) insulin to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Place the following steps for drawing up the insulins in the correct chronological order.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to roll the intermediate-acting insulin, inject air into the intermediate-acting insulin, inject air into the short-acting insulin, withdraw the short-acting insulin, and finally withdraw the intermediate-acting insulin.
When mixing insulins, the standard safety protocol is 'clear before cloudy' (short-acting before intermediate-acting). This prevents the intermediate-acting insulin from contaminating the short-acting vial. The sequence ensures proper mixing of the suspension (rolling), equalization of pressure in both vials (injecting air into cloudy, then clear), and safe withdrawal (drawing clear, then cloudy).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Roll the vial of intermediate-acting insulin between the palms of the hands.
The suspension is mixed evenly.
NPH insulin is a suspension that settles. Rolling mixes it without creating bubbles that could lead to inaccurate dosing.
2
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the intermediate-acting insulin vial.
Pressure is equalized in the NPH vial.
Injecting air prevents a vacuum, making it easier to withdraw the medication later. Doing this first prevents contamination of the needle with clear insulin.
3
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the short-acting insulin vial.
Pressure is equalized in the Regular insulin vial.
Injecting air prepares the vial for withdrawal. Since the needle is already in this vial, the nurse can immediately proceed to the next step.
4
Invert the vial and withdraw the prescribed dose of short-acting insulin.
The clear insulin is drawn into the syringe first.
Drawing clear (short-acting) insulin before cloudy (intermediate-acting) insulin prevents the longer-acting insulin from contaminating the short-acting insulin vial.
5
Insert the syringe into the intermediate-acting insulin vial and withdraw the prescribed dose.
The total mixed dose is now in the syringe.
The cloudy insulin is drawn last to complete the mixture safely.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration and preparation of mixed insulins (Clear before Cloudy)
Soru 1132Soru →

A client is 6 hours postoperative following a partial colectomy. The client's indwelling urinary catheter has drained 20 mL over the past hour. Current vital signs reveal a heart rate of 112 beats/minute and a blood pressure of 102/64 mm Hg. A recently resulted hemoglobin level is 7.6 g/dL (76 g/L). The client also reports incisional pain rated 6 on a 0-to-10 scale. Which action is the priority for the practical nurse?

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Cevap: Notify the registered nurse immediately regarding the combination of clinical and laboratory findings.

Cevap

The priority action is to immediately notify the registered nurse about the combination of oliguria, tachycardia, hypotension, and critically low hemoglobin.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of hypovolemic shock due to postoperative hemorrhage, indicated by tachycardia, borderline hypotension, oliguria (less than 30 mL/hr), and a critically low hemoglobin level. The practical nurse must immediately escalate these findings to the registered nurse so that rapid medical interventions, such as intravenous fluid resuscitation or a blood transfusion, can be initiated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and urine output.
The heart rate is elevated (112 beats/minute), blood pressure is borderline low (102/64 mm Hg), and urine output is critically low (20 mL/hr).
To identify early signs of impaired systemic perfusion.
2
Evaluate the laboratory results.
The hemoglobin is critically low at 7.6 g/dL (76 g/L).
To correlate the vital signs with a potential underlying cause, such as acute hemorrhage.
3
Synthesize the findings and determine the clinical priority.
The combination of findings strongly indicates hypovolemic shock, which is a life-threatening emergency that supersedes the client's pain.
To establish whether the situation requires immediate escalation over routine interventions.
4
Select the appropriate nursing action based on scope of practice.
Notify the registered nurse immediately.
Because the client is unstable and requires complex interventions (like fluid resuscitation or blood products) that are beyond the practical nurse's independent scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing and Escalating Early Signs of Postoperative Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 1133Soru →

While assisting a client with a history of seizure disorders during their morning meal, the individual suddenly loses consciousness and begins exhibiting rhythmic, jerking muscle movements while seated in their chair. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Guide the client safely to the floor, place a pad beneath their head, turn them onto their side, loosen restrictive clothing, and finally note the time of onset and characteristics of the seizure.
In any acute medical emergency, nursing priorities dictate that immediate physical safety and airway protection come first. For a seizing client seated in a chair, the most imminent threat is a fall, requiring the nurse to first lower them to the floor. Once on the floor, the head is vulnerable to trauma from clonic jerking and must be padded. With gross physical safety secured, the priority shifts to airway management by rolling the client onto their side to prevent aspiration, followed by loosening restrictive clothing to optimize breathing. Only after these life-safety measures are established should the nurse focus on observing and timing the seizure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Ensure immediate physical safety from falls.
The client is guided from the chair to the floor.
The client has lost consciousness and is at severe risk for a traumatic fall from the chair.
2
Protect the head from traumatic injury.
A soft pad or blanket is placed beneath the head.
Tonic-clonic movements on a hard floor can cause severe head trauma if the head is not adequately cushioned.
3
Protect the airway from aspiration.
The client is turned onto their side.
The lateral position allows saliva and emesis to drain from the mouth, maintaining a patent airway during the event.
4
Remove mechanical restrictions to breathing.
Restrictive clothing around the neck and chest is loosened.
Tight clothing can impede respiratory effort and venous return during the intense physiological stress of a seizure.
5
Monitor and record the event details.
The time of onset and seizure characteristics are noted.
Accurate timing and observation are necessary for post-seizure medical management, but this must follow immediate safety interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Acute Seizure Management and Safety Prioritization
Soru 1134Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to measure the gastric residual volume for a client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to reduce the risk of aspiration and other clinical complications? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for checking gastric residual volume is: elevate the head of the bed, perform hand hygiene and don gloves, attach the syringe, aspirate and measure the contents, and finally reinstill the contents.
Evaluating gastric residual volume is a critical risk reduction intervention to prevent aspiration in clients receiving enteral feedings. The correct, safe sequence prioritizes airway protection first (elevating the head of the bed), followed by infection control (hand hygiene and gloves). Once safety parameters are set, the nurse attaches the syringe, withdraws the fluid to measure it, and finally reinstills the fluid to prevent dangerous electrolyte and fluid shifts.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the client's bed to at least 30 degrees.
The client is placed in a semi-Fowler's or higher position.
This utilizes gravity to keep gastric contents in the stomach, directly reducing the risk of aspiration when the tube is accessed.
2
Perform hand hygiene and put on clean gloves.
The nurse's hands are sanitized and protected.
Standard infection control practices must be established before touching the client's lines or equipment.
3
Attach a large-volume syringe to the port of the feeding tube.
The syringe is secured to the enteral access point.
A closed system must be created with the syringe to safely draw out the fluid without leakage.
4
Pull back on the syringe plunger gently to withdraw and measure the fluid.
Gastric contents are pulled into the syringe barrel and quantified.
Measuring the volume identifies whether the client is digesting the feeding properly or is at risk for regurgitation due to delayed emptying.
5
Reinstill the aspirated gastric contents back into the client's stomach.
The fluid is safely returned to the gastrointestinal tract.
Gastric aspirate contains essential electrolytes and digestive enzymes; discarding it can rapidly lead to metabolic alkalosis and fluid deficits.

Anahtar Kavram

Enteral Tube Feeding Safety and Complication Prevention
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1135Soru →

An adult client is recovering on the surgical unit 3 hours after a septoplasty and turbinate reduction. During a routine assessment, the practical nurse observes that the client is swallowing frequently. The client's heart rate has increased to 118 beats per minute from a preoperative baseline of 76 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 102/64 mmHg. Which action should the practical nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Immediately notify the registered nurse (RN) regarding the signs of potential bleeding.

Cevap

Immediately notify the registered nurse (RN) regarding the signs of potential bleeding.
The client's frequent swallowing, combined with an increasing heart rate and a decreasing blood pressure, strongly indicates active postoperative bleeding (hemorrhage) following nasal surgery. The priority action for the practical nurse is to immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider so that the client can be assessed for airway compromise and shock, and emergency interventions can be initiated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's postoperative clinical presentation.
The client exhibits frequent swallowing, new-onset tachycardia, and borderline hypotension.
Identifying abnormal assessment findings is the first step in recognizing postoperative complications.
2
Correlate the findings with the specific surgical procedure.
After nasal surgery (septoplasty), frequent swallowing indicates blood draining down the back of the throat, while the vital signs suggest early hypovolemic shock.
Connecting symptoms to the procedure context reveals an active hemorrhage.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the LPN scope of practice.
The situation requires immediate escalation to the RN or healthcare provider for emergency intervention.
Active hemorrhage and early shock are life-threatening complications that exceed the scope of independent LPN management.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition of Postoperative Hemorrhage
Soru 1136Soru →

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is providing care for a 52-year-old client admitted with an acute upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage. The client is receiving continuous intravenous (IV) fluids and is on bed rest. Which of the following actions by the LPN are essential to minimize the client's risk of further complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Notify the registered nurse promptly if the client's resting heart rate steadily increases from 82 to 110 beats per minute.; Verify the client's identity using two distinct identifiers prior to administering any prescribed oral medications.; Assist the client into a side-lying position immediately if they begin to experience active hematemesis.

Cevap

The essential actions are to notify the registered nurse of the increasing heart rate, verify the client's identity with two identifiers before medication administration, and place the client in a side-lying position during active hematemesis.
In a client with an acute gastrointestinal hemorrhage, the primary risks are hypovolemic shock and airway compromise. An increasing heart rate is an early compensatory sign of hypovolemia that must be escalated immediately. Verifying patient identity with two identifiers is a fundamental standard to prevent medication errors. Positioning a client in a side-lying position during active vomiting (hematemesis) uses gravity to drain emesis and prevents aspiration, thus protecting the airway.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario to identify the primary physiological risks for a client with an acute gastrointestinal hemorrhage.
The client is at high risk for hypovolemic shock due to blood loss and at risk for aspiration due to potential hematemesis.
Identifying the core physiological risks directs the prioritization of care and necessary risk reduction strategies.
2
Evaluate the assessment findings (heart rate and blood pressure) for early signs of hypovolemic shock.
An increasing heart rate (82 to 110 bpm) and a decreasing blood pressure (128/80 to 104/68 mm Hg) are compensatory mechanisms for blood loss and indicate impending shock.
Early recognition of subtle vital sign changes allows for prompt escalation and intervention before the client severely decompensates.
3
Assess the procedural and scope-of-practice actions for safety and legal compliance.
Verifying identity with two identifiers is a mandatory safety step. Administering IV push medications is outside the LPN scope of practice. Critical labs (hemoglobin 6.9 g/dL) require direct verbal reporting.
Adhering strictly to safety standards and the LPN scope of practice reduces the risk of iatrogenic injury and ensures appropriate care delivery.
4
Determine the correct physical positioning for a client experiencing active hematemesis.
The side-lying position is selected to allow emesis to drain from the mouth.
This position uses gravity to protect the airway and prevent aspiration of blood into the lungs.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Early Shock Recognition and Scope of Practice
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1137Soru →

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is preparing to collect an aerobic wound culture from a client's purulent abdominal surgical incision. In what order should the LPN perform the following steps to ensure an accurate specimen? Arrange the actions in the correct chronological sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to remove the soiled dressing, cleanse the wound with sterile normal saline, rotate the swab over clean granulation tissue, place the swab into the culture tube, and apply a new sterile dressing.
To collect an accurate wound culture that directs appropriate antibiotic therapy, the nurse must first remove the old dressing. Crucially, the wound must then be cleansed with sterile normal saline. Culturing uncleansed purulent drainage often yields resident skin flora or dead organisms, leading to inaccurate results. After cleansing, a sterile swab is rotated over clean, viable granulation tissue. The swab is then immediately placed into the sterile transport tube to prevent contamination, and finally, a new sterile dressing is applied to protect the wound.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Remove the soiled dressing and assess the appearance of the wound bed.
The wound is exposed and ready for evaluation.
The old dressing must be removed to access the site and determine where the culture should be taken.
2
Cleanse the wound bed with sterile normal saline.
Surface exudate, pus, and resident skin flora are washed away.
Culturing uncleansed surface pus yields inaccurate results; the goal is to identify the pathogen actively invading the tissue, not surface colonizers.
3
Rotate a sterile culture swab over an area of clean granulation tissue.
The pathogen causing the deep infection is collected.
Actively growing pathogens are concentrated in viable granulation tissue, providing the most accurate diagnostic specimen.
4
Place the swab securely into the sterile culture tube.
The specimen is secured in its transport medium.
Immediate placement prevents environmental contamination of the swab and protects the nurse from exposure.
5
Apply a new sterile dressing over the abdominal incision.
The wound is protected from the external environment.
Restoring the protective barrier is the final step after the procedure is complete.

Anahtar Kavram

Accurate wound culture collection requires cleansing the wound with sterile saline prior to swabbing to avoid capturing surface colonizers or old exudate.
Soru 1138Soru →

While preparing medications for a pediatric client weighing 37.4 lb37.4\text{ lb}, a practical nurse notes a new prescription for ibuprofen 8 mg/kg/dose8\text{ mg/kg/dose} every 66 hours as needed for fever. The medication is available as an oral suspension of 100 mg/5 mL100\text{ mg}/5\text{ mL}. How many mL\text{mL} should the nurse administer for one dose? (Record answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in answer.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 6.8

Cevap

6.8
Administering 6.8 mL6.8\text{ mL} provides exactly the prescribed 136 mg136\text{ mg} dose, which is correct and safe for a 17 kg17\text{ kg} pediatric client receiving 8 mg/kg8\text{ mg/kg}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
37.4 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=17 kg37.4\text{ lb} \div 2.2\text{ lb/kg} = 17\text{ kg}
The prescribed dosage is weight-based in kilograms, so the client's weight must be converted first.
2
Calculate the required medication dose in milligrams.
17 kg×8 mg/kg=136 mg17\text{ kg} \times 8\text{ mg/kg} = 136\text{ mg}
This determines the exact milligram amount of medication the client needs for one single dose.
3
Calculate the liquid volume to administer using the provided concentration.
(136 mg÷100 mg)×5 mL=6.8 mL(136\text{ mg} \div 100\text{ mg}) \times 5\text{ mL} = 6.8\text{ mL}
This converts the required milligram dose into a measurable liquid volume to be drawn up in a syringe.

Anahtar Kavram

Pediatric Weight-Based Dosage Calculation
Soru 1139Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who is 1212 hours postoperative following an open abdominal procedure. The client is scheduled to receive their routine morning dose of oral lisinopril. The client states, "I feel unusually thirsty and a bit dizzy when I move." The PN obtains the following vital signs: heart rate 112112 beats/minute, blood pressure 96/5896/58 mm Hg, respiratory rate 2020 breaths/minute, and oxygen saturation 97%97\% on room air. Which action should the PN take regarding the scheduled medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the scheduled dose of the medication and immediately report the client's vital signs and symptoms to the registered nurse (RN).

Cevap

Withhold the scheduled dose of the medication and immediately report the client's vital signs and symptoms to the registered nurse (RN).
The client's presentation of tachycardia, hypotension, dizziness, and thirst 1212 hours postoperatively strongly suggests early hypovolemic shock, potentially from occult bleeding or fluid shifts. Lisinopril is an antihypertensive medication. Administering it in this context would further lower the blood pressure, risking severe hypoperfusion and cardiovascular collapse. The safest and most appropriate action within the practical nurse scope of practice is to withhold the dose and immediately notify the registered nurse so a comprehensive assessment and medical interventions can be initiated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client exhibits tachycardia (112112 beats/minute), mild hypotension (96/5896/58 mm Hg), dizziness, and thirst.
These are early clinical indicators of hypovolemia or potential postoperative hemorrhage, which require immediate medical evaluation.
2
Evaluate the scheduled medication's mechanism of action.
Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that is designed to lower blood pressure.
Administering an antihypertensive medication to a client with borderline hypotension and signs of impending shock could precipitate severe cardiovascular collapse.
3
Determine the appropriate practical nursing action based on scope of practice.
The PN must withhold the medication and escalate the findings.
The PN scope of practice requires reporting unstable or significantly abnormal findings to the supervising RN for further assessment and advanced intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Medication Administration: Withholding Antihypertensives in Potential Shock
Soru 1140Soru →

A practical nurse is providing basic care for an older adult client who is completely immobile, has a high risk for pressure injuries, and is receiving continuous enteral tube feeding. The nurse is preparing to reposition the client to promote comfort and skin integrity. Which action is the most appropriate for the nurse to perform?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Turn the client to a 30-degree lateral position and maintain the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to turn the client to a 30-degree lateral position while maintaining the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.
Turning the client to a 30-degree lateral position effectively offloads the sacrum without placing excessive pressure on the greater trochanter. Simultaneously maintaining the head of the bed at 30 degrees prevents gastric reflux and aspiration of the continuous enteral feeding, while keeping it low enough to prevent the severe shearing forces associated with higher Fowler's positions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical profile.
Identified dual risks: high risk for pressure injuries due to immobility, and high risk for aspiration due to continuous enteral feeding.
Understanding these competing risks is essential for determining a safe positioning strategy.
2
Evaluate positioning requirements for continuous enteral feeding.
Determined that the head of the bed must remain elevated to at least 30 degrees.
Gravity is required to prevent gastric reflux and subsequent pulmonary aspiration of the continuous feeding formula.
3
Evaluate positioning requirements for pressure injury prevention.
Determined that a 30-degree lateral tilt is optimal, and high-Fowler's must be avoided.
A 30-degree tilt offloads the sacrum without crushing the trochanter. Head elevation above 30 degrees causes the body to slide, resulting in excessive tissue shearing.
4
Select the intervention that safely addresses both clinical requirements.
The 30-degree lateral position combined with a 30-degree head of bed elevation is selected.
This precise combination protects the airway while simultaneously minimizing pressure and shear forces on vulnerable skin.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe positioning strategies for clients with simultaneous aspiration and pressure injury risks
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