A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client admitted with a severe lower respiratory tract infection. The client is scheduled to receive a newly prescribed dose of intravenous (IV) ceftriaxone. During the pre-administration assessment, the nurse notes that the client has a documented allergy to amoxicillin, with the reaction listed as anaphylactic shock. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse?
- Withhold the scheduled ceftriaxone dose and immediately notify the prescribing healthcare provider.Cevap
- BDecrease the intravenous infusion rate by half to carefully observe the client for hypersensitivity.
- CAdminister a prophylactic dose of diphenhydramine before hanging the antibiotic infusion.
- DEnsure the intravenous tubing is thoroughly flushed with normal saline to prevent any drug-drug incompatibilities.
Cevap
The nurse must withhold the scheduled ceftriaxone dose and immediately notify the prescribing healthcare provider.
Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin. Because cephalosporins and penicillins (like amoxicillin) share a structural component known as a beta-lactam ring, there is a recognized risk of cross-reactivity. For a client who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin, cephalosporins are generally contraindicated. The safest and most appropriate action is to withhold the dose and contact the healthcare provider for an alternative prescription.
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Anahtar Kavram
Cross-sensitivity between penicillins and cephalosporins