Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 2701Soru →

Two hours following a diagnostic lumbar puncture, a client reports intense hunger and requests the lunch tray that was just delivered. The provider has prescribed strict flat bed rest for six hours. Which action is the most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Log-roll the client into a lateral position while maintaining a flat spinal alignment to assist with the meal.

Cevap

Log-roll the client into a lateral position while maintaining a flat spinal alignment to assist with the meal.
After a lumbar puncture, clients must remain flat (zero-degree elevation) for several hours to prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from leaking at the puncture site, which can cause a severe post-dural puncture headache. However, eating while flat and supine poses a critical aspiration risk. The safest nursing intervention is to log-roll the client into a lateral (side-lying) position. This maintains the required flat spinal alignment to protect the dural puncture site while utilizing gravity to clear the airway and facilitate safer swallowing, thus addressing both safety constraints simultaneously.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current procedural restrictions based on the recent intervention.
The client had a lumbar puncture and is prescribed strict flat bed rest to prevent a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
Hydrostatic pressure on the dural puncture site increases when the head is elevated above the spine, which can cause a severe spinal headache.
2
Evaluate the competing physiological need and its associated risks.
The client is hungry and needs to eat, which introduces a severe aspiration risk if oral intake occurs while lying flat in a supine position.
Swallowing against gravity in a supine position impairs airway protection.
3
Synthesize a nursing intervention that safely addresses both the procedural constraint and the physiological need.
Positioning the client in a lateral (side-lying) position without head elevation maintains the required flat spinal alignment while facilitating safer swallowing.
The lateral position keeps the dural puncture site protected at zero degrees of elevation while using gravity to keep the airway clear of pooled food or liquids.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning and Aspiration Precautions
Soru 2702Soru →

A nurse is providing care for an older adult client who has just returned to the unit following a diagnostic lumbar puncture. The client reports a headache, and family members express concern that the client is suddenly exhibiting mild confusion. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the prescribed duration.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the prescribed duration to prevent or manage a post-dural puncture headache.
Following a lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can leak from the dural puncture site, leading to decreased intracranial pressure and a severe post-dural puncture (spinal) headache. Maintaining the client in a flat, supine (or prone) position for a prescribed period—typically 4 to 8 hours—minimizes this fluid leakage. This promotes comfort, stabilizes CSF pressure, and is a foundational basic care intervention following this specific procedure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the physiological risks associated with the recent procedure.
The client has undergone a lumbar puncture, which carries a primary risk of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage leading to a severe spinal headache.
Understanding the procedure dictates the necessary positioning interventions for patient comfort and safety.
2
Evaluate the significance of the new onset of confusion.
Sudden confusion is identified as an acute change in mental status, not a normal aspect of aging.
Acute neurological changes require prompt assessment by the registered nurse to rule out serious complications.
3
Determine the appropriate delegation of post-procedure care.
Assessing the puncture site for bleeding or hematoma formation must be done by the RN and cannot be delegated.
Initial evaluations require professional nursing judgment, which is outside the unlicensed assistive personnel's scope of practice.
4
Select the safest and most effective nursing intervention from the available choices.
Maintaining a flat, supine position is chosen as the correct intervention.
Lying flat minimizes CSF pressure at the puncture site, directly addressing the client's risk for a worsening post-procedure headache.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-lumbar puncture positioning and basic care
Soru 2703Soru →

A nurse is establishing a plan of care for an older adult client who requires bilateral eye patches and strict bed rest following complex ophthalmic surgery. The client reports feeling highly anxious and "disconnected from reality." Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care to address the client's sensory and perceptual alterations? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: State the nurse's name and the purpose of the interaction immediately upon entering the client's room.; Explain the source of unfamiliar environmental noises to the client as they occur.; Provide varying tactile stimulation by offering a warm washcloth or encouraging the use of a stress ball.

Cevap

The correct interventions involve orienting the client through verbal identification, explaining environmental stimuli, and providing meaningful tactile stimulation.
Clients with bilateral eye patches are at high risk for sensory deprivation and anxiety due to the sudden loss of visual input. The correct interventions focus on compensating for this loss by providing meaningful stimulation through other senses. Stating the nurse's name and explaining the source of environmental noises helps orient the client, reduces fear of the unknown, and provides necessary auditory context. Offering tactile stimulation provides alternative sensory input to prevent deprivation and maintain the client's connection to their environment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary physiological and psychological stressor affecting the client.
The client is experiencing sudden, complete visual loss due to bilateral eye patches, placing them at high risk for sensory deprivation, disorientation, and anxiety.
Understanding the root cause of the perceptual alteration is necessary to select appropriate compensating interventions.
2
Evaluate each option based on its ability to provide safe, meaningful sensory stimulation or maintain therapeutic communication.
Auditory orientation (identifying oneself, explaining noises) and tactile stimulation (using a warm washcloth or stress ball) appropriately compensate for visual loss.
Sensory deprivation is effectively managed by safely increasing meaningful input to intact sensory modalities.
3
Identify and eliminate options that violate nursing practice standards or therapeutic communication principles.
False reassurance, delegating nursing assessments to a UAP, and attributing acute confusion to normal aging are incorrect and unsafe actions.
Nursing interventions must consistently adhere to therapeutic communication guidelines, legal scope of practice, and accurate pathophysiological knowledge.

Anahtar Kavram

Sensory Deprivation Management and Therapeutic Communication
Soru 2704Soru →

An occupational health nurse evaluates a 48-year-old manufacturing worker who reports waking up multiple times nightly to urinate and experiencing continuous excessive thirst. The worker dismisses these symptoms, stating, "My body is just changing as I get older." Based on the epidemiological framework of prevention, which nursing action represents the priority secondary prevention strategy?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Perform a point-of-care capillary blood glucose test to evaluate the presenting symptoms.

Cevap

Perform a point-of-care capillary blood glucose test to evaluate the presenting symptoms.
Secondary prevention focuses on early disease detection and screening to halt disease progression. The client is presenting with classic signs of hyperglycemia (polyuria and polydipsia) but incorrectly attributing them to normal aging. Performing a point-of-care blood glucose test is a targeted screening measure (secondary prevention) that directly addresses the client's symptoms and allows for early diagnosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client reports polyuria (frequent nighttime urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst). The client incorrectly attributes these symptoms to normal aging.
Recognizing pathological symptoms versus normal age-related changes is the critical first step in clinical decision-making.
2
Define the requested level of prevention.
Secondary prevention focuses on screening, early detection, and prompt intervention to halt the progression of a disease in its early stages.
The question specifically asks for a secondary prevention strategy.
3
Evaluate the options against the definition of secondary prevention.
A blood glucose test serves as a screening tool (secondary prevention) to investigate the symptoms. Education on diet is primary prevention, and medication administration is tertiary prevention.
Matching the clinical intervention to the correct level of prevention ensures appropriate care planning.

Anahtar Kavram

Levels of Disease Prevention and Pathology Identification
Soru 2705Soru →

Following a diagnostic lumbar puncture, a client is transferred back to the clinical unit. Which action should the nurse implement to reduce the client's risk of developing a post-dural puncture headache?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for several hours.

Cevap

The nurse should maintain the client in a flat, supine position for several hours.
Maintaining a flat, supine position for several hours minimizes the hydrostatic pressure of cerebrospinal fluid at the lumbar puncture site. This prevents CSF leakage, which is the underlying cause of a post-dural puncture headache.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary complication associated with a lumbar puncture.
The most common complication is a post-dural puncture headache, caused by the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the puncture site.
Understanding the pathophysiology of the complication dictates the appropriate nursing intervention.
2
Determine the optimal intervention to prevent this complication.
Keeping the client flat and supine minimizes hydrostatic pressure on the dura mater.
Reduced pressure allows the puncture site to heal and prevents further CSF leakage.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning
Soru 2706Soru →

A clinic nurse is providing education to a pregnant client at 10 weeks of gestation who reports using cannabis daily to manage severe morning sickness. The client states, "It is a natural plant, so I feel it is much safer for my baby than taking prescription chemicals." Which of the following responses by the nurse are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Although cannabis is a natural plant, smoking it exposes your fetus to carbon monoxide, which decreases the oxygen supply.; The active compound in cannabis crosses the placenta and can negatively affect your baby's brain development.; Let's explore FDA-approved medications and dietary changes that are proven safe for managing nausea during pregnancy.

Cevap

The appropriate responses include explaining that smoking exposes the fetus to carbon monoxide, noting that active compounds cross the placenta to affect brain development, and offering to explore FDA-approved safe alternatives for nausea.
The correct statements prioritize evidence-based harm reduction and therapeutic communication. Cannabis is contraindicated during pregnancy. Smoking introduces carbon monoxide into the maternal bloodstream, which readily crosses the placenta and decreases fetal oxygenation. Furthermore, THC crosses the placental barrier and has been linked to long-term cognitive and neurodevelopmental issues. Offering safe, FDA-approved pharmacological and non-pharmacological alternatives for hyperemesis gravidarum addresses the client's underlying symptom while maintaining a supportive, non-judgmental environment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's statement and underlying need.
The client is experiencing severe nausea and using a potentially harmful substance due to a misconception that 'natural' means 'safe' for the fetus.
Understanding the client's rationale is necessary to provide targeted harm-reduction education without judgment.
2
Evaluate the physiological risks of the high-risk behavior.
Cannabis use during pregnancy, regardless of route, introduces THC to the fetus, impacting neurodevelopment. Smoking specifically adds the risk of carbon monoxide exposure, leading to fetal hypoxia.
Accurate, evidence-based facts must be used to correct the client's misconception.
3
Select interventions that maintain therapeutic communication and promote maternal-fetal safety.
Providing factual education about fetal risks while offering safe, medical alternatives addresses the problem constructively.
Punitive responses or false reassurances break trust and violate the principles of therapeutic communication and health promotion.

Anahtar Kavram

Harm Reduction and Substance Use During Pregnancy
Soru 2707Soru →

A nurse at a university health clinic is evaluating a 20-year-old client who requests a prescription for HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP). During the risk assessment, the client discloses engaging in condomless transactional sex and sharing needles for unlicensed cosmetic injections. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer a rapid point-of-care HIV test and collect specimens for comprehensive STI screening.

Cevap

The priority action is to administer a rapid HIV test and collect specimens for comprehensive STI screening.
Before initiating pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP), it is a critical safety protocol to confirm the client is HIV-negative. Administering PrEP to an individual who is already HIV-positive can rapidly lead to drug-resistant strains of the virus. Therefore, obtaining a rapid HIV test and screening for other STIs is the immediate clinical priority before addressing psychosocial needs or long-term harm reduction strategies.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's primary clinical request and evaluate the associated medical requirements.
The client is requesting PrEP for HIV prevention, which requires strict pharmacological safety protocols.
Determining the primary clinical goal guides the prioritization of immediate nursing interventions.
2
Assess prerequisites and contraindications for the requested intervention.
PrEP is strictly contraindicated in individuals who are already HIV-positive due to the high risk of developing drug-resistant viral mutations.
Ensuring medication safety is a physiological priority.
3
Select the intervention that addresses the immediate physiological and safety requirements.
Performing a rapid HIV test and STI screening is chosen as the highest priority action.
Clinical safety and pharmacological prerequisites take precedence over long-term harm reduction education and psychosocial referrals.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in PrEP Initiation and High-Risk Behaviors
Soru 2708Soru →

During a mealtime on a secure mental health unit, a client becomes suddenly hostile, throws a food tray across the room, points aggressively at the wall, and yells about the food being poisoned by spies. Which of the following initial actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Direct the remaining clients to safely exit the dining area immediately.; Stand at an angle to the client while keeping a physical distance of at least two arm's lengths.; Speak in a calm, low-pitched voice while acknowledging the client's visible distress.

Cevap

The nurse should direct the remaining clients to safely exit the dining area, stand at an angle while maintaining at least two arm's lengths of distance, and speak in a calm, low-pitched voice while acknowledging the client's distress.
The correct initial interventions prioritize milieu safety and utilize least-restrictive de-escalation techniques. Removing other clients from the area prevents bystander injury and reduces environmental stimulation, which can help calm the agitated client. Approaching the client at an angle and maintaining physical distance ensures nurse safety while appearing non-confrontational. Speaking calmly and acknowledging distress helps validate the client's feelings without agreeing with the underlying delusion, fostering a therapeutic environment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the immediate safety of the milieu and the level of the client's agitation.
Identify that bystanders are at risk and the client requires immediate, least-restrictive de-escalation.
Ensuring physical safety of both clients and staff is the absolute highest priority in any behavioral crisis.
2
Implement milieu management and verbal de-escalation techniques.
Other clients are removed, and the nurse establishes a safe, non-threatening posture and communication style.
These represent the least restrictive behavioral interventions required to manage acute agitation before considering medications or physical restraints.
3
Evaluate the appropriateness of delegating tasks and using physical containment measures.
Determine that restraints are premature and UAPs should not independently manage acute psychiatric crises.
Nursing judgment is required to maintain legal and ethical standards of care, adhering strictly to the hierarchy of least-restrictive interventions and safe scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Least Restrictive Behavioral Interventions and Milieu Safety
Soru 2709Soru →

During bedside shift report, the nurse assesses a client who underwent a percutaneous coronary intervention via the right femoral artery four hours ago. The client suddenly reports acute, deep lower back pain. The nurse notes a heart rate of 118 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg, compared to baseline vital signs of 78 beats per minute and 124/76 mm Hg. The right groin dressing remains dry and intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare to administer intravenous fluids.

Cevap

Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare to administer intravenous fluids.
The correct answer identifies that the client is experiencing a retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Tachycardia, hypotension, and severe lower back pain after a femoral catheterization are hallmark signs of this concealed bleeding. Immediate notification of the provider and preparation for fluid resuscitation are critical risk reduction measures to prevent severe shock.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital sign trends.
The client has new-onset severe back pain, tachycardia, and hypotension four hours after a femoral arterial procedure.
Identifying acute changes from baseline is essential for early complication detection.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with potential procedural complications.
The combination of symptoms strongly indicates a retroperitoneal hemorrhage, despite a dry external dressing.
Blood from the femoral artery can leak backward into the retroperitoneal space, causing flank or back pain and concealed hypovolemia.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must immediately alert the healthcare provider and prepare to restore intravascular volume.
Rapid medical intervention and fluid resuscitation are required to mitigate the risk of severe hemorrhagic shock and potential cardiovascular collapse.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and mitigation of retroperitoneal hemorrhage following femoral arterial catheterization.
Soru 2710Soru →

Prior to an endoscopic procedure, a client requires the administration of a large-volume cleansing enema. The supplies are at the bedside, and the client's identity has been verified. In what sequence should the nurse perform the administration steps? Arrange the actions from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first position the client in the left lateral Sims position, then place a protective pad and don gloves, lubricate the tip of the enema tubing, safely insert the tube into the rectum, and finally release the clamp while elevating the container to the correct height.
Safe enema administration requires following a logical sequence that prioritizes anatomical alignment, infection control, and trauma prevention. Positioning the client properly on the left side ensures gravity assists the fluid. Once positioned, the nurse ensures hygiene and lubricates the tubing to protect the mucosa. After safely inserting the tube following the bowel's anatomical curve, the nurse initiates the fluid flow at a controlled height to prevent sudden cramping and maximize retention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assist the client into the left lateral Sims position.
The client's descending and sigmoid colon are optimally oriented for gravity-assisted fluid flow.
This anatomical positioning prevents fluid from immediately returning to the rectum and being prematurely expelled.
2
Place a waterproof pad under the buttocks and put on clean examination gloves.
The immediate environment is protected, and standard infection control precautions are implemented.
Maintaining hygiene and protecting linens is essential before initiating the invasive portion of the procedure.
3
Lubricate the distal 5 to 7.5 cm (2 to 3 inches) of the enema tubing tip.
The insertion tip is prepared for smooth entry into the anal sphincter.
A lubricated tip prevents mucosal tearing, pain, and vagal nerve stimulation during insertion.
4
Gently insert the tube 7.5 to 10 cm (3 to 4 inches) into the anal canal, directing it toward the umbilicus.
The tube rests safely in the rectum without penetrating too deeply.
Directing toward the umbilicus aligns with the natural curvature of the rectum, preventing bowel wall injury.
5
Release the tubing clamp and elevate the solution container 30 to 45 cm (12 to 18 inches) above the client's anus.
The enema solution flows steadily into the lower gastrointestinal tract at a safe pressure.
Proper height management prevents rapid fluid instillation, which can cause severe cramping, fluid expulsion, or tissue damage.

Anahtar Kavram

Procedural safety and client positioning for large-volume enema administration
Soru 2711Soru →

A client is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a single-lumen central venous catheter. The healthcare provider issues a new prescription for an intravenous (IV) antibiotic. What is the safest action for the nurse to take regarding the administration of this new medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Insert a separate peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the antibiotic.

Cevap

The nurse should insert a separate peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the antibiotic.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has high osmolarity and complex nutrient concentrations, making it highly susceptible to chemical incompatibilities and bacterial growth. Standard nursing practice requires a strictly dedicated line or a dedicated lumen for TPN administration. Because the client currently has a single-lumen catheter, the nurse must establish a new peripheral access site to safely administer the antibiotic.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the current infusion and its requirements.
The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a single-lumen central line.
TPN contains high concentrations of glucose, amino acids, and potentially lipids, requiring specific administration protocols.
2
Evaluate the compatibility of the new medication with the existing line.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated line.
Administering medications through a TPN line increases the risk of chemical incompatibility, precipitation, and serious systemic infection.
3
Determine the safest alternative route for the new IV medication.
A new, separate peripheral IV site must be established.
Because the central line is a single lumen currently dedicated to TPN, the antibiotic cannot share this access point.

Anahtar Kavram

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a strictly dedicated intravenous line.
Soru 2712Soru →

A nurse is planning basic care and comfort measures for an older adult client receiving palliative care who has severe cachexia, intractable bone pain, and a stage 3 sacral pressure injury. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Utilize a 30-degree lateral tilted position when turning the client in bed.; Implement guided imagery and provide a preferred music playlist to serve as an adjunct to prescribed analgesics.; Cleanse the perineal area with a pH-balanced cleanser and apply a moisture barrier ointment after each incontinence episode.

Cevap

The correct interventions include utilizing a 30-degree lateral tilted position, implementing guided imagery and music therapy, and cleansing the perineal area while applying a moisture barrier after incontinence episodes.
The correct interventions prioritize skin preservation and holistic comfort. A 30-degree lateral tilt safely offloads the sacrum without shifting excessive pressure to the greater trochanter, which is crucial for a cachectic client. Guided imagery and music are evidence-based non-pharmacologic adjuncts for intractable pain. Prompt cleaning with pH-balanced cleansers and application of barrier ointments prevent moisture-associated skin damage, which is vital for preventing the deterioration of the existing pressure injury.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical profile and identified risks.
The client has severe cachexia, intractable pain, and an existing stage 3 sacral pressure injury, creating a high risk for further skin breakdown and discomfort.
To determine which basic care interventions are safe and effective for this specific presentation.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and hygiene strategies.
The 30-degree lateral tilt offloads the sacrum safely. Barrier creams protect compromised skin from moisture. Conversely, a continuous high Fowler's position is contraindicated due to sacral shearing forces.
To select interventions that promote skin integrity and reject those that cause harm.
3
Identify appropriate non-pharmacological comfort measures.
Guided imagery and familiar music are valid, evidence-based adjuncts for pain management in palliative care.
To provide holistic comfort alongside pharmacological treatments.
4
Assess the delegation and education interventions for safety and accuracy.
Wound assessment cannot be delegated to UAPs, and sudden confusion is acute delirium, not normal aging.
To eliminate unsafe delegation practices and incorrect clinical education.

Anahtar Kavram

Comprehensive basic care for clients with severe immobility and altered skin integrity involves specific offloading techniques (30-degree lateral tilt), non-pharmacologic pain adjuncts, and diligent moisture management, while avoiding contraindicated positioning and improper delegation.
Soru 2713Soru →

An older adult client is prescribed strict supine bed rest following a diagnostic lumbar puncture. When assisting the client with basic comfort and daily needs, which actions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Offer oral fluids frequently, such as water and juices.; Use a fracture bedpan to assist the client with elimination.; Maintain a quiet, dimly lit environment to promote comfort and rest.

Cevap

The correct actions include offering frequent oral fluids, using a fracture bedpan for elimination, and maintaining a quiet, dim environment.
Following a lumbar puncture, the client must remain flat to prevent a spinal headache. Providing oral fluids helps replenish cerebrospinal fluid. A fracture bedpan allows for safe elimination without significantly elevating the hips or head, maintaining the required supine position. A quiet, dim environment promotes comfort and rest.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's specific positional and safety requirements following a lumbar puncture.
The client requires a flat, supine position to prevent cerebrospinal fluid leakage and a subsequent spinal headache.
Maintaining the correct position dictates how basic care and comfort measures must be delivered.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety, correct positioning, and appropriate scope of practice.
Providing fluids, using a fracture bedpan, and keeping the environment quiet align with safe care principles for a client who must remain flat.
Basic care must adapt to the client's medical restrictions without causing harm or violating delegation rules.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care adaptations for clients on strict supine bed rest
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 2714Soru →

An educator is evaluating a group of newly hired nurses on the safe handling of hazardous antineoplastic medications. Which statements by the orientees indicate a correct understanding of the safety protocols? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: I will flush the toilet twice after disposing of the client's body fluids for 48 hours following the medication administration.; I must discard my specialized protective gown and outer gloves in a designated trace chemotherapy waste container before leaving the room.; I should wear two pairs of chemotherapy-tested gloves when connecting or disconnecting the intravenous infusion tubing.

Cevap

The correct statements involve double-flushing the toilet after disposing of body fluids, discarding protective gear in designated trace chemotherapy waste containers, and wearing double chemotherapy-tested gloves when manipulating intravenous tubing.
Safe handling of antineoplastic agents requires rigorous measures to prevent occupational exposure. Wearing double chemotherapy-tested gloves during high-risk tubing manipulations and disposing of PPE in designated trace waste containers protects the nurse from residual drug contact. Because these hazardous drugs are excreted in body fluids, double-flushing toilets for 48 hours post-administration safely minimizes environmental contamination.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the core hazard in the scenario.
The hazard is exposure to antineoplastic (chemotherapy) agents, which are highly toxic, mutagenic, and carcinogenic.
Understanding the hazard defines the necessary level of personal and environmental protection required.
2
Evaluate the statements regarding environmental and personal protection.
Double-flushing excreta for 48 hours, discarding PPE in specialized trace waste bins, and double-gloving during tubing connections are all standard, approved safety measures.
These actions directly minimize the risk of occupational exposure through aerosolization, skin contact, and environmental contamination.
3
Analyze the statements regarding exposure response and medication administration.
Using alcohol rub on a skin splash is dangerous because it can increase absorption; soap and water is required. Crushing tablets causes aerosolization and is contraindicated. Delegating spill cleanup to assistive personnel is unsafe.
Recognizing contraindicated actions prevents severe injury to staff and ensures safe delegation practices.

Anahtar Kavram

Handling Hazardous and Infectious Materials (Antineoplastic Precautions)
Soru 2715Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2424 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a right femoral shaft fracture. The client suddenly becomes intensely restless and confused. Assessment reveals a respiratory rate of 3232 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 122122 bpm, and a pinpoint red rash over the anterior chest. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results on room air are as follows:

ParameterResultReference Range
pH\text{pH}7.487.487.35−7.457.35 - 7.45
PaCO2\text{PaCO}_229 mm Hg29\text{ mm Hg}35−45 mm Hg35 - 45\text{ mm Hg}
PaO2\text{PaO}_254 mm Hg54\text{ mm Hg}80−100 mm Hg80 - 100\text{ mm Hg}
HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^-22 mEq/L22\text{ mEq/L}22−26 mEq/L22 - 26\text{ mEq/L}

Which action should the nurse perform FIRST to reduce the risk of severe physiological deterioration?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask and activate the rapid response team

Cevap

The correct action is to administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask and activate the rapid response team.
The correct answer addresses the immediate life-threatening crisis. The client is exhibiting the classic triad of fat embolism syndrome (FES): severe hypoxemia, neurological changes, and a petechial rash following a long bone fracture. The arterial blood gas reveals profound hypoxemia (PaO2\text{PaO}_2 of 54 mm Hg54\text{ mm Hg}). The immediate priority is to maximize oxygenation to prevent ischemic brain injury and cardiac arrest, which requires high-flow oxygen and emergency team assistance.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and surgical history.
The client had a long bone fracture 2424 hours ago and now presents with confusion, dyspnea, and a petechial rash. This is the classic clinical triad of Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES).
Identifying the underlying pathophysiological crisis dictates the required emergency response and helps anticipate complications.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG demonstrates uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.48\text{pH } 7.48, PaCO2 29\text{PaCO}_2\text{ } 29) secondary to severe hypoxemia (PaO2 54\text{PaO}_2\text{ } 54).
The profound lack of oxygen in the blood is the primary threat to life. The low carbon dioxide is merely a compensatory physiological response (hyperventilation) driven by the hypoxia.
3
Prioritize nursing interventions based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
Applying high-flow oxygen and calling for emergency assistance is the absolute first priority.
Without immediate correction of the severe hypoxemia, the client will rapidly progress to anoxic brain injury or cardiac arrest. Other assessments and standard orthopedic interventions must be deferred.

Anahtar Kavram

Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) Triad and Priority ABC Interventions
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 2716Soru →

A critical care nurse is evaluating a client who has been receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside at 3 mcg/kg/min3\text{ mcg/kg/min} for the management of a hypertensive emergency. The client's renal function has deteriorated over the last 4848 hours, evidenced by a urine output of 15 mL/hr15\text{ mL/hr} and a serum creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dL3.1\text{ mg/dL}. The client now presents with profound confusion, muscle twitching, and a mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2SvO_2) of 88%88\% (normal range: 60%−80%60\% - 80\%). Based on these assessment data, which of the following pharmacological interventions should the nurse anticipate immediately?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Discontinue the sodium nitroprusside and administer intravenous sodium thiosulfate.

Cevap

Discontinue the sodium nitroprusside and administer intravenous sodium thiosulfate.
The client's presentation of altered mental status, muscle twitching, and an elevated SvO2SvO_2 in the setting of prolonged sodium nitroprusside use and renal failure indicates cyanide toxicity. The definitive treatment requires immediately discontinuing the nitroprusside and administering sodium thiosulfate, which converts the cyanide into thiocyanate to be safely excreted.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current clinical presentation and medication history.
The client is receiving sodium nitroprusside, has acute kidney injury (oliguria, elevated creatinine), and presents with neurotoxicity alongside an abnormally high SvO2SvO_2.
Identifying the correlation between the continuous infusion, compromised renal clearance, and specific toxic symptoms is the first critical step in clinical reasoning.
2
Differentiate the physiological cause of the abnormally high SvO2SvO_2 and neurological symptoms.
Sodium nitroprusside metabolizes into cyanide and thiocyanate, which require renal excretion. The high SvO2SvO_2 indicates cells are unable to extract oxygen from the blood.
Cyanide toxicity inhibits cytochrome c oxidase in the cellular electron transport chain, halting aerobic respiration and causing oxygen to bypass the tissues entirely.
3
Determine the highest priority pharmacological intervention based on the identified toxicity.
The offending medication must be stopped immediately, and the specific antidote (sodium thiosulfate) must be administered.
Sodium thiosulfate acts as a sulfur donor, accelerating the conversion of toxic cyanide into less toxic thiocyanate for eventual elimination.

Anahtar Kavram

Sodium nitroprusside-induced cyanide toxicity and pharmacological antidotes
Tahmini Süre:2m 30s
Soru 2717Soru →

During an annual wellness visit at a primary care clinic, a nurse evaluates a septuagenarian client who reports several new physical changes over the past six months. Which documented finding indicates an abnormal pathological process that requires prompt provider evaluation, rather than an expected age-related physiological change?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Progressive blurring of central vision where straight vertical lines, such as door frames, appear wavy or distorted

Cevap

The finding of progressive central vision loss and the perception of straight lines appearing wavy or distorted.
Progressive loss of central vision and the perception of straight lines appearing wavy (metamorphopsia) are cardinal signs of age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). While ARMD incidence increases with age, it is a pathological disease process that causes irreversible damage to the macula. Expected physiological visual changes of aging include presbyopia (decreased near vision accommodation) and increased sensitivity to glare, but central vision loss is always abnormal and requires prompt ophthalmologic referral.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the question requirements.
Identify a finding that represents a pathological disease process needing referral, differentiating it from normal physiological changes of aging.
To correctly prioritize interventions and referrals for older adult clients.
2
Evaluate the sensory and cardiovascular findings provided in the distractors.
Recognize that high-frequency hearing loss (presbycusis), diminished taste sensation, and a widened pulse pressure are normal, expected adaptations caused by cellular aging and tissue stiffness.
Understanding expected baselines prevents unnecessary medical interventions for normal aging processes.
3
Analyze the visual symptom of wavy lines and central vision loss.
Identify this symptom as metamorphopsia, a hallmark sign of age-related macular degeneration (ARMD).
ARMD is a specific pathological disease of the retina, not a normal consequence of aging, and requires urgent ophthalmologic treatment.

Anahtar Kavram

Differentiating normal physiological aging adaptations from pathological disease processes.
Soru 2718Soru →

An adult client is recovering on the medical-surgical unit two hours after a percutaneous liver biopsy. The nurse observes that over the last hour, the client's heart rate has increased from 76 to 114 bpm, and the blood pressure has shifted from 128/80 mm Hg to 110/88 mm Hg. The client reports feeling "restless" and has mild right upper quadrant discomfort. Which action should the nurse take immediately to minimize the risk of a severe complication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assess the abdomen for distention or rigidity and immediately notify the healthcare provider.

Cevap

Assess the abdomen for distention or rigidity and immediately notify the healthcare provider.
The correct answer addresses the highest physiological priority: identifying and managing internal hemorrhage. A narrowing pulse pressure (systolic minus diastolic) combined with tachycardia and restlessness are classic early signs of hypovolemic shock. Because the liver is a highly vascular organ, bleeding is a primary risk after a biopsy. The nurse must assess for abdominal rigidity, which indicates intraperitoneal blood accumulation, and alert the provider immediately to prevent cardiovascular collapse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the trending vital signs.
The pulse pressure has narrowed significantly (from 48 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg) and the heart rate has increased significantly.
Identifying subtle vital sign trends is crucial for detecting early physiological decompensation.
2
Relate the findings to the specific procedure and client symptoms.
The liver is highly vascular; the vital sign changes combined with restlessness indicate early hemorrhagic shock from internal bleeding.
Linking procedure-specific risks to clinical manifestations guides appropriate nursing interventions.
3
Select the intervention that addresses the highest priority risk.
The nurse must assess for signs of intra-abdominal hemorrhage (rigidity) and escalate the findings to the provider.
Circulatory collapse is an immediate life threat requiring rapid medical management.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock and internal hemorrhage post-procedure
Soru 2719Soru →

A client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit directly after undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to minimize the risk of post-procedure complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Place the client in a right lateral position with a small towel or pillow under the puncture site.; Instruct the client to maintain strict bed rest for the duration prescribed by the healthcare provider.; Assess vital signs every 15 minutes during the initial post-procedure hour.

Cevap

The correct interventions include placing the client in a right lateral position, instructing them to maintain strict bed rest, and assessing vital signs every 15 minutes initially.
The correct interventions for a client following a percutaneous liver biopsy focus heavily on preventing and detecting hemorrhage. Placing the client in a right lateral position applies direct, necessary pressure to the liver capsule at the puncture site. Maintaining strict bed rest minimizes movement that could easily dislodge a fragile clot. Additionally, frequent vital sign monitoring ensures that subtle changes, which could indicate internal bleeding, are detected immediately.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary physiological risks associated with the specific procedure.
A percutaneous liver biopsy involves puncturing a highly vascular organ, making hemorrhage the most significant and immediate complication.
Understanding the most dangerous potential complications directs the focus of the nursing care plan toward risk reduction.
2
Select interventions that mechanically and physically prevent bleeding.
Positioning the client on the right side applies direct pressure, and maintaining bed rest prevents clot disruption.
Direct pressure and immobility are standard, evidence-based measures to achieve hemostasis after a percutaneous puncture of an internal organ.
3
Select interventions that allow for the early detection of complications.
Frequent vital sign monitoring is prioritized to catch subtle physiological changes.
Early indicators of shock, such as mild tachycardia, must be recognized immediately rather than dismissed as benign anxiety.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure care for a liver biopsy prioritizes the prevention and early detection of hemorrhage through targeted positioning (right side-lying), immobility, and frequent physiological monitoring.
Soru 2720Soru →

An oncology client with severe mucositis has developed distributive shock secondary to a suspected bloodstream infection. The client has a double-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) in place with the following active infusions:

- Distal port: Continuous infusion of norepinephrine to sustain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) above 65 mm Hg.
- Proximal port: Continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with added regular insulin.

The provider issues a stat order to administer a 100 mL intravenous bag of a broad-spectrum antibiotic over 30 minutes. Which intervention demonstrates the most appropriate clinical judgment regarding the administration of this antibiotic?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Obtain a new peripheral intravenous access site and administer the antibiotic through the independent line.

Cevap

The correct action is to obtain a new peripheral intravenous access site and administer the antibiotic through the independent line.
The correct action is to establish new peripheral access. TPN must always have a strictly dedicated line to minimize central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) risk. Furthermore, pausing TPN that contains regular insulin places the client at high risk for acute rebound hypoglycemia, eliminating the proximal port as an option. The distal port cannot be used because it contains a life-sustaining vasopressor. Connecting a secondary piggyback would automatically pause the primary pressor on a smart pump, causing lethal hypotension. Alternatively, infusing the antibiotic concurrently through the same lumen at a rapid rate (100 mL over 30 minutes = 200 mL/hr) acts as a massive physical flush. This forcibly pushes the highly concentrated norepinephrine residing in the catheter's internal dead space directly into the client's systemic circulation, precipitating a dangerous hypertensive crisis. Therefore, initiating an independent peripheral line is the only safe clinical decision.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the proximal port for safe medication administration.
The port is dedicated to TPN with insulin.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated line due to high infection and precipitation risks. Furthermore, pausing insulin-containing TPN abruptly causes severe rebound hypoglycemia.
2
Evaluate the distal port for safe medication administration.
The port is actively infusing norepinephrine.
Norepinephrine is a life-sustaining continuous vasopressor. Piggybacking would pause it, causing lethal hypotension.
3
Analyze the hemodynamic impact of concurrent infusion into the vasopressor line.
Infusing a 100 mL bag over 30 minutes (200 mL/hr) into the same lumen will rapidly flush the norepinephrine resting in the catheter's internal dead space into the client.
This 'speed shock' flush causes a dangerous hypertensive crisis, making concurrent infusion completely unsafe.
4
Determine the safest alternative route for the antibiotic.
A new peripheral intravenous line must be established.
It is the only physiological and mechanical way to deliver the antibiotic without compromising the TPN or triggering hemodynamic collapse.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of intermittent IV medications in critically ill clients requires strictly preserving dedicated TPN lines and understanding the fatal hemodynamic consequences of flushing catheter dead space in vasopressor lines.
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Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-RN | Examkin