Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 2901Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) push medication through a client's peripheral IV saline lock. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to perform hand hygiene and don gloves, scrub the injection port, flush the line with normal saline to check patency, inject the medication over the prescribed time, and finally flush the line again with normal saline.
The standard and safest sequence for administering an IV push medication through a saline lock follows strict infection control protocols and the established SAS (Saline-Administer-Saline) method. The nurse must first perform hand hygiene and don gloves to protect both the patient and themselves. Next, the injection port is scrubbed to prevent introducing pathogens. The initial flush with normal saline is critical to confirm the line is patent and not infiltrated. After patency is established, the medication is safely injected at the prescribed rate. Finally, a subsequent saline flush is necessary to clear the medication from the line, ensuring the patient receives the complete dose and preventing catheter occlusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Ensure infection control.
Hand hygiene is performed and clean gloves are donned.
This is the fundamental first step in any invasive procedure to maintain standard precautions.
2
Disinfect the access point.
The IV injection port is scrubbed with an antiseptic swab.
Prevents the introduction of microorganisms into the patient's bloodstream.
3
Assess IV patency.
The IV catheter is flushed with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Ensures the vein is viable, the line is not occluded, and prevents administering medication into infiltrated tissue.
4
Administer the therapeutic agent.
The medication is injected over the recommended duration.
Delivers the required dose safely and minimizes the risk of speed shock or localized irritation.
5
Clear the line and ensure full dosing.
A final flush of 0.9% sodium chloride is administered.
Pushes the remaining medication in the extension tubing into the systemic circulation and locks the line to maintain future patency.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of IV push medications via a saline lock using the SAS (Saline-Administer-Saline) method.
Soru 2902Soru →

A nurse is receiving a client who just underwent a bedside thoracentesis for a large right-sided pleural effusion. Which of the following nursing actions are essential to monitor and reduce the risk of post-procedure complications? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Evaluate the client for tracheal deviation toward the unaffected side and sudden onset of dyspnea.; Auscultate bilateral breath sounds to detect diminished or absent aeration on the right side.; Instruct the client to immediately report any new onset of severe coughing or blood-tinged sputum.

Cevap

The essential actions are evaluating for tracheal deviation and dyspnea, auscultating bilateral breath sounds, and instructing the client to report severe coughing or blood-tinged sputum.
Following a thoracentesis, the nurse must prioritize assessments that detect potentially fatal complications such as a tension pneumothorax or hemothorax. Tracheal deviation, sudden dyspnea, absent breath sounds, severe coughing, and hemoptysis are critical indicators of lung puncture or pulmonary hemorrhage. Recognizing these findings immediately reduces the risk of severe physiological injury.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary risks associated with a thoracentesis.
The most significant post-procedure risks include pneumothorax, bleeding (hemothorax), infection, and re-expansion pulmonary edema.
Understanding the anatomical risks (puncture of lung tissue or vessels) directs the nurse's focused assessment.
2
Select interventions that actively monitor for or prevent these specific risks.
Assessing for tracheal deviation, absent breath sounds, and hemoptysis directly monitors for a pneumothorax or internal bleeding.
Prompt recognition of these adverse events allows for life-saving interventions.
3
Eliminate inappropriate or dangerous actions.
Dismissing early signs of shock, placing the patient flat, and delegating the initial critical assessment are eliminated.
These actions increase the client's risk of severe physiological decompensation and violate core safety standards.

Anahtar Kavram

Thoracentesis Post-Procedure Monitoring and Risk Reduction
Soru 2903Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client with severe hepatic cirrhosis who is undergoing a large-volume therapeutic paracentesis. After 3.5 liters of ascitic fluid have been drained, the client reports sudden dizziness and nausea. The client's heart rate increases from 82 to 124 beats per minute, and the blood pressure drops from 130/84 mm Hg to 92/58 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first to reduce the risk of further physiological deterioration?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Clamp the drainage tubing immediately to stop further fluid removal.

Cevap

Clamp the drainage tubing immediately to stop further fluid removal.
The correct action directly addresses the root cause of the client's hemodynamic instability. Rapid removal of large volumes of ascitic fluid can lead to a sudden shift of fluid from the intravascular space into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia and shock. Clamping the tube immediately stops this process, preventing further cardiovascular collapse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has tachycardia, hypotension, dizziness, and nausea after the removal of a large volume of ascitic fluid.
Identifying these signs indicates paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction, a form of hypovolemic shock caused by rapid fluid shifts from the intravascular space.
2
Determine the priority intervention.
The immediate priority is to halt the process causing the fluid shift.
Clamping the drainage tubing prevents further volume loss and allows the cardiovascular system to stabilize.

Anahtar Kavram

Paracentesis-Induced Circulatory Dysfunction and Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 2904Soru →

The nurse is preparing to obtain a capillary blood glucose measurement for a client with diabetes mellitus. To ensure accurate results and reduce the risk of infection, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first clean and dry the site, puncture the lateral fingertip, wipe away the first drop of blood, apply the second drop to the test strip, and finally apply pressure to the site.
Obtaining a capillary blood glucose measurement requires strict adherence to technique to ensure both client safety (infection prevention) and clinical accuracy (preventing altered readings). The site must first be cleaned and completely dried. Puncturing the lateral side of the finger minimizes pain. Wiping away the first drop of blood is a critical step because it may be diluted with serous fluid or remaining alcohol. The second drop is then applied to the test strip for a highly accurate reading, followed immediately by applying pressure to the site to stop bleeding and prevent bruising.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clean the selected puncture site with an alcohol swab and allow it to air dry.
The skin is sanitized and free of wet alcohol.
Reduces infection risk and prevents alcohol from chemically altering the glucose reading.
2
Puncture the lateral aspect of the fingertip with a sterile lancet.
A small capillary puncture is created.
The lateral side of the finger is less painful for the client due to fewer nerve endings.
3
Wipe away the first drop of blood using a clean, dry gauze pad.
The initial, potentially diluted blood drop is removed.
The first drop may contain interstitial fluid or alcohol residue, causing inaccurate glucose results.
4
Apply the second drop of blood to the reagent test strip.
An accurate blood sample is collected for testing.
The second drop provides a pure capillary sample for the most accurate measurement.
5
Apply direct pressure to the puncture site with a cotton ball or gauze pad.
Bleeding is stopped.
Maintains skin integrity and prevents continued bleeding or localized bruising.

Anahtar Kavram

Capillary Blood Glucose Monitoring and Risk Reduction
Soru 2905Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent secondary intravenous (IV) piggyback medication using a new sterile administration set. The client is currently receiving a continuous primary IV fluid infusion via an electronic pump. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to verify medication compatibility, close the secondary tubing's roller clamp, spike the bag and prime the tubing, cleanse the primary tubing's upper Y-port, and finally connect the secondary tubing while lowering the primary IV fluid bag.
Administering a secondary intravenous (IV) piggyback medication requires a systematic approach to ensure patient safety and medication efficacy. First, the nurse must verify the compatibility of the secondary medication with the continuous primary IV fluid to prevent dangerous precipitates from forming. Next, the nurse closes the roller clamp on the new secondary tubing to prevent fluid from freely flowing out when the bag is spiked. The bag is then spiked, and the tubing is primed to expel all air, which prevents an air embolism. Following preparation of the tubing, the nurse maintains strict asepsis by cleansing the upper Y-port (the port above the infusion pump) on the primary line with an antimicrobial swab. Finally, the secondary tubing is connected to the cleansed port, and the primary fluid bag is lowered using an extension hanger. Because the secondary bag is hung higher, gravity allows it to exert greater hydrostatic pressure, ensuring the secondary medication infuses first while temporarily halting the primary infusion until the secondary bag is empty.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Verify compatibility.
Ensures the secondary medication will not form a precipitate when it mixes with the primary IV fluid.
Patient safety is the highest priority; incompatible medications can cause life-threatening complications.
2
Close the roller clamp.
The secondary tubing is closed off to fluid flow.
Prevents the medication from immediately spilling out when the fluid bag is spiked.
3
Spike the bag and prime the tubing.
Air is completely removed from the secondary tubing.
Expelling air from the intravenous line prevents an air embolism from reaching the client's vascular system.
4
Cleanse the upper Y-port.
The connection site above the infusion pump is disinfected.
Vigorously scrubbing the needleless port maintains asepsis and prevents the introduction of pathogens into the bloodstream.
5
Connect the tubing and lower the primary bag.
The secondary medication is ready to infuse first.
Gravity causes the fluid in the higher bag (secondary) to exert greater hydrostatic pressure, allowing it to infuse while temporarily halting the flow of the lowered primary bag.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of intravenous piggyback (IVPB) medications
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2906Soru →

A nurse is receiving a client who has just returned to the clinical unit after undergoing a diagnostic lumbar puncture. The client reports the onset of a mild headache. Which of the following positioning interventions should the nurse implement?

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Cevap: Keep the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat.

Cevap

Keep the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat.
After a lumbar puncture, the client is at risk for developing a post-dural puncture headache (spinal headache) due to the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the puncture site. Keeping the client in a flat, supine position minimizes hydrostatic pressure and CSF leakage, which helps prevent or alleviate the headache.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's procedure and current symptom.
The client had a lumbar puncture and is now experiencing a mild headache.
Identifying the procedure and symptoms is essential to determine the appropriate post-procedure care.
2
Recall the pathophysiology of a post-lumbar puncture headache.
A headache following this procedure is typically caused by the continuous leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) through the dural puncture site.
Understanding the cause of the complication guides the nursing intervention.
3
Determine the optimal positioning to manage this complication.
A flat, supine position minimizes hydrostatic pressure on the dural tear and reduces CSF leakage.
Keeping the spine horizontal prevents gravity from exacerbating the fluid loss, thereby helping to relieve or prevent the headache.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning and Comfort
Soru 2907Soru →

A 52-year-old client is recovering on the medical-surgical unit 48 hours after an elective orthopedic surgery. The client suddenly becomes highly agitated, visibly diaphoretic, and exhibits a coarse bilateral hand tremor. Current vital signs reveal a heart rate of 124 bpm, blood pressure of 168/98 mm Hg, and temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C). The client's spouse arrives and states, "I forgot to bring the home pill bottles, including the clonazepam that my spouse takes three times every day." Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate seizure precautions and contact the healthcare provider to obtain a prescription for a withdrawal management protocol.

Cevap

The priority action is to initiate seizure precautions and contact the healthcare provider for a withdrawal management protocol.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of acute sedative-hypnotic (benzodiazepine) withdrawal, which typically begins 24 to 72 hours after the last dose. Because abrupt cessation of benzodiazepines can rapidly progress to life-threatening status epilepticus and delirium, the absolute priority is to ensure client safety by implementing seizure precautions and promptly obtaining medical treatment (such as a benzodiazepine taper) to manage the physiological withdrawal.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and timeline.
The client is 48 hours post-admission and exhibiting tachycardia, hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, and coarse tremors.
Establishing the timeline and symptoms helps differentiate between normal surgical recovery and acute complications.
2
Incorporate the collateral information provided by the spouse.
The spouse indicates the client missed their daily scheduled doses of clonazepam (a benzodiazepine).
Missing daily sedative-hypnotic medication aligns with the onset of acute withdrawal symptoms.
3
Determine the highest safety priority for this specific withdrawal syndrome.
Benzodiazepine withdrawal carries a high risk for life-threatening seizures and delirium tremens.
According to Maslow's hierarchy and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Safety), preventing physiological harm from seizures is the immediate priority.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and emergency management of sedative-hypnotic withdrawal
Soru 2908Soru →

A school nurse is finalizing a semester-long health initiative for high school adolescents aged 14 to 18. The initiative incorporates multiple interventions categorized by the levels of disease prevention. Which of the following planned activities should the nurse correctly identify as primary prevention strategies? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Administering the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine to eligible students with parental consent; Teaching a mandatory seminar on the physiological effects of vaping and substance use; Demonstrating proper helmet usage and bicycle safety techniques during a school-wide assembly

Cevap

The primary prevention strategies are administering the HPV vaccine, teaching the seminar on vaping, and demonstrating bicycle safety techniques.
Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs by preventing exposures to hazards, altering unhealthy behaviors, and increasing resistance to disease. Administering vaccines, providing education on the dangers of substance use, and teaching physical safety techniques all act proactively to prevent the onset of illness or injury, making them correct primary prevention strategies.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Define the goal of primary prevention.
Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by reducing risks and increasing resistance.
Establishing the definition is necessary to properly categorize clinical interventions.
2
Analyze the goal of each proposed activity.
Vaccines, education on vaping, and helmet safety aim to stop illness or injury before it starts. Scoliosis and BMI checks aim to detect issues early. Asthma support aims to manage an existing issue.
Matching the intervention's intent to the correct prevention level ensures accurate categorization.
3
Select the activities that strictly align with primary prevention.
The vaccine administration, vaping seminar, and helmet demonstration are selected.
These three actions meet the criteria of intervening before health effects occur.

Anahtar Kavram

Levels of Disease Prevention
Soru 2909Soru →

An older adult client with advanced Parkinson's disease is admitted for the management of severe dysphagia and a new sacral pressure injury. The client is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a gastrostomy tube. During the shift, the client becomes restless, repeatedly attempts to pull on their medical tubing, and experiences sudden new-onset urinary incontinence. Which basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Perform oral hygiene every 4 hours using a suction-equipped toothbrush and an alcohol-free moisturizing mouthwash.; Camouflage the gastrostomy tubing beneath loose clothing and provide a textured sensory blanket for the client to manipulate.

Cevap

The correct interventions are performing frequent oral hygiene using a suction toothbrush and camouflaging the gastrostomy tubing while providing a sensory distraction blanket.
Clients with dysphagia and enteral tubes require frequent oral hygiene with suction to maintain mucosal comfort and prevent the aspiration of colonized oral flora. Additionally, using sensory distractions and hiding medical tubing promotes comfort and safety by serving as a non-restrictive alternative to physical restraints for restless clients.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's physiological needs (dysphagia, enteral feeding) and comfort/safety needs (restlessness, pulling lines).
Identified the need for meticulous oral care to prevent aspiration and the need for safe, non-restrictive methods to manage the restlessness.
Basic care mandates proactive prevention of complications (like aspiration pneumonia) and prioritizing the least restrictive environment.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and delegation tasks.
Identified that lowering the bed while feeding infuses is dangerous, and delegating assessment to a UAP is outside their scope of practice.
Proper positioning is critical for airway protection, and proper delegation ensures safe care delivery.
3
Assess the approach to the client's new-onset incontinence and agitation.
Recognized that sudden incontinence is abnormal (not a product of aging) and that restraints cannot be used as a first-line intervention.
Distinguishing pathology from normal aging is crucial for prompt treatment, and restraint application has strict regulatory limitations.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care encompasses physiological maintenance (oral hygiene, safe positioning during feeding) and the implementation of non-pharmacological comfort measures to manage agitation without prematurely resorting to physical restraints.
Soru 2910Soru →

A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Which action regarding the client's positioning and basic care is correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Placing an abductor wedge between the client's legs while the client is resting in bed.

Cevap

Placing an abductor wedge between the client's legs while the client is resting in bed.
For a client who has undergone a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, maintaining the hip in a state of abduction is critical to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. Using an abductor wedge or pillows between the legs keeps the hip properly aligned and prevents accidental adduction.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and approach from the client's history.
The client underwent a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a posterior approach.
The specific surgical approach dictates the movement precautions necessary to maintain joint stability.
2
Determine the necessary positioning precautions for a posterior approach.
Standard precautions include avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, avoiding hip adduction (crossing the midline), and avoiding internal rotation.
These specific movements place excessive stress on the posterior joint capsule and can force the prosthetic head out of the socket.
3
Evaluate each nursing action against these safety precautions.
Using an abductor wedge maintains the required abduction and prevents adduction, making it the safe and correct nursing action.
The other proposed actions involve contraindicated movements (excessive flexion, adduction) or improper delegation of an initial nursing assessment.

Anahtar Kavram

Following a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, nursing care must focus on maintaining abduction and avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees to prevent prosthesis dislocation.
Soru 2911Soru →

During morning rounds, a client who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach the previous day informs the nurse of the need to have a bowel movement. The client is currently restricted to bed rest. Which intervention should the nurse implement to safely facilitate elimination?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the head of the bed at 30 degrees, ask the client to use an overhead trapeze to lift the pelvis, and slide a fracture bedpan underneath.

Cevap

The safest method is to keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees, utilize an overhead trapeze to elevate the client's pelvis, and use a fracture bedpan.
A fracture bedpan is specifically designed with a shallow end that requires minimal pelvic elevation, reducing stress on the hip joint. Concurrently, keeping the head of the bed at 30 degrees ensures the hip angle remains well below the 90-degree flexion limit required for a posterior approach arthroplasty, preventing dislocation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure and associated safety parameters.
The client had a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, which strictly requires avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, leg adduction, and internal rotation.
Recognizing specific surgical precautions is necessary to prevent severe complications like joint dislocation during routine basic care.
2
Evaluate the proposed interventions against the established safety parameters.
High-Fowler's position violates the flexion limit. Delegating a skin assessment violates the nursing scope of practice. Dismissing sudden severe pain ignores a potential joint dislocation.
Each intervention must be systematically ruled out if it poses a physiological or legal risk to the client.
3
Select the intervention that facilitates elimination while strictly maintaining joint alignment.
Using an overhead trapeze with the head of the bed at 30 degrees allows for the placement of a low-profile fracture pan without exceeding 90 degrees of hip flexion.
This method ensures the client's basic comfort and elimination needs are met without compromising the integrity of the surgical site.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Operative Total Hip Arthroplasty Comfort and Precautions
Soru 2912Soru →

A family practice nurse is providing education to a client regarding lifestyle choices and primary prevention strategies to reduce the risk of skin cancer. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

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Cevap: I will apply a broad-spectrum sunscreen with an SPF of at least 30 approximately 15 to 30 minutes before I go outdoors.

Cevap

The correct answer is the statement about applying a broad-spectrum sunscreen with an SPF of at least 30 approximately 15 to 30 minutes before going outdoors.
Applying a broad-spectrum sunscreen with an SPF of 30 or higher at least 15 to 30 minutes before sun exposure is an evidence-based lifestyle choice and primary prevention strategy. It protects the skin from both UVA and UVB damage, allowing the chemical barrier sufficient time to bind to the skin before exposure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the question requirements.
The question asks to identify a true statement that demonstrates accurate knowledge of primary prevention strategies and lifestyle choices regarding skin cancer.
To safely evaluate whether the client can apply health promotion education correctly.
2
Evaluate the option regarding monthly skin examinations.
This statement is incorrect because skin checks are a form of secondary prevention (early detection), not primary prevention (risk reduction).
Primary prevention aims to prevent the disease from occurring, whereas secondary prevention focuses on finding it early.
3
Evaluate the option regarding new, irregularly bordered moles in older age.
This statement is incorrect because new, irregular moles are a sign of pathology (potential melanoma), not a normal aging process.
Nurses must differentiate between normal age-related skin changes (like lentigines) and malignant lesions.
4
Evaluate the option regarding sunscreen use on a 3-month-old infant.
This statement is incorrect because chemical sunscreens are contraindicated for infants under 6 months.
Young infants have immature skin barriers and are at high risk for systemic absorption of chemicals; physical shade is required instead.
5
Evaluate the option regarding sunscreen application timing.
This statement is correct. Applying broad-spectrum SPF 30+ sunscreen 15-30 minutes before exposure is an evidence-based primary prevention strategy.
Chemical sunscreens require sufficient time to bind to the epidermis to provide maximum protection.

Anahtar Kavram

Primary Prevention and Sun Safety
Soru 2913Soru →

A 14-day-old neonate is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with suspected bacterial meningitis. The neonate has a single peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter infusing Lactated Ringer's solution at 10 mL/hr10 \text{ mL/hr}. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of intravenous ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg50 \text{ mg/kg}. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider to request an alternative antibiotic prescription.

Cevap

The priority action is to withhold the ceftriaxone and contact the healthcare provider for a different antibiotic.
Ceftriaxone is contraindicated in neonates (28 days of age or younger) if they are receiving any calcium-containing intravenous fluids, such as Lactated Ringer's or total parenteral nutrition (TPN). This is due to the high risk of fatal ceftriaxone-calcium precipitates forming in the neonate's lungs and kidneys. Unlike in older pediatric and adult populations, these solutions cannot be given sequentially or even through separate IV lines in neonates. The nurse must recognize this critical safety alert, withhold the medication, and contact the provider for an alternative antibiotic (such as cefotaxime).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the prescribed medication and the current continuous infusion.
The medication is ceftriaxone, and the continuous infusion is Lactated Ringer's, which contains calcium.
Identifying components of IV fluids is essential for determining drug-drug compatibilities.
2
Evaluate the patient's demographic information against medication safety alerts.
The patient is a 14-day-old neonate.
Age is a critical factor in pharmacokinetics and drug safety, particularly for neonates (28 days or younger).
3
Determine the specific contraindication related to this clinical scenario.
Ceftriaxone and calcium-containing solutions are strictly contraindicated in neonates due to the risk of fatal ceftriaxone-calcium precipitates in the lungs and kidneys.
Unlike older clients, neonates cannot receive these two solutions even through separate lines or sequentially.
4
Select the safest nursing intervention.
The nurse must withhold the dose and clarify the prescription with the provider to obtain a safe alternative.
Patient safety is the highest priority; administering the drug would cause severe harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Ceftriaxone Administration and Calcium Incompatibility in Neonates
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2914Soru →

A client with a complete T4 spinal cord injury suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache and profound nasal congestion. The nurse observes profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury and a suddenly elevated blood pressure of 218/114 mm Hg. Arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed. (Place the first action at the top and the final action at the bottom.)

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate mechanical reduction of blood pressure (elevating the head of the bed), followed by removing external triggers (loosening clothing), addressing internal triggers (checking the bladder/catheter), administering medications if needed, and finally documenting the event.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency characterized by uncontrolled sympathetic nervous system activation below the level of the spinal cord injury, leading to life-threatening hypertension. The immediate, first-line priority is to lower the blood pressure by utilizing orthostasis (raising the head of the bed). After this initial stabilizing action, the nurse should remove external restrictive stimuli, investigate and resolve the most common internal triggers (such as a kinked catheter or distended bladder), administer antihypertensives if the noxious stimulus cannot be found or resolved, and finally document the event.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the signs of an acute medical emergency.
Autonomic dysreflexia is identified.
A pounding headache, severe hypertension, and diaphoresis above the injury level in a client with a T4 spinal cord injury are classic indicators of a dysreflexic crisis.
2
Prioritize immediate physiological safety by altering the client's position.
The head of the bed is elevated to a high Fowler's position.
Sitting the client upright induces orthostatic hypotension, which rapidly lowers the dangerously high blood pressure and reduces stroke risk.
3
Remove secondary external triggers from the client.
Restrictive clothing and binders are loosened.
Cutaneous and tactile stimuli can further aggravate the uninhibited sympathetic response.
4
Identify and resolve the primary internal trigger.
The bladder and urinary catheter are assessed.
Bladder distention or a kinked catheter is the most common precipitating cause of autonomic dysreflexia.
5
Administer targeted pharmacological therapy if symptoms do not resolve.
Antihypertensive medication is given.
Medications are required if removing the noxious stimulus fails to lower the blood pressure safely.

Anahtar Kavram

Autonomic Dysreflexia Emergency Management
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2915Soru →

While conducting a shift assessment on a surgical unit, the nurse evaluates a client who is 6 hours post-operative following a total abdominal hysterectomy. The electronic health record shows the client's blood pressure was 134/76 mm Hg two hours ago, but it is currently 112/88 mm Hg. The apical pulse has risen from 82 to 116 beats per minute, and respirations are 26 per minute. The client's skin is cool to the touch, and they report feeling unusually anxious. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer a prescribed bolus of intravenous isotonic crystalloid fluids.

Cevap

Administer a prescribed bolus of intravenous isotonic crystalloid fluids.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of early compensatory hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock. The narrowing pulse pressure (decreasing from 58 to 24 mm Hg), tachycardia, tachypnea, cool skin, and new-onset anxiety indicate decreasing cardiac output and massive peripheral vasoconstriction. The immediate priority is to restore intravascular volume with isotonic fluids to maintain tissue perfusion while preparing to identify and treat the source of bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends to identify the underlying physiological process.
The blood pressure shows a narrowing pulse pressure (decreasing from 58 mm Hg to 24 mm Hg). Combined with tachycardia, tachypnea, cool skin, and anxiety, this indicates early compensatory hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock.
Recognizing early compensatory mechanisms is crucial before irreversible end-organ damage occurs.
2
Determine the highest priority need based on the pathophysiological state.
The primary issue is a critical loss of intravascular volume leading to decreased tissue perfusion.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), restoring circulating blood volume is the immediate circulatory priority in hypovolemic shock.
3
Select the appropriate nursing intervention to address the priority need.
Administering isotonic crystalloid fluids is the standard first-line treatment to expand intravascular volume and improve cardiac output.
Fluid resuscitation directly addresses the absolute hypovolemia caused by post-operative bleeding.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and management of hypovolemic shock
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2916Soru →

A 71-year-old client with a history of early-stage vascular dementia is 4 hours post-percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery. The client suddenly becomes highly agitated, reports vague lower abdominal pressure, and repeatedly attempts to sit upright and pull at the groin dressing. The client has not voided since before the procedure. Which action should the nurse take to safely address the client's basic care and comfort needs?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the head of the bed at 20 degrees, perform a bedside bladder ultrasound, and assist the client with using a fracture pan if retention is present.

Cevap

The safest action is to maintain the head of the bed at 20 degrees, perform a bedside bladder ultrasound, and assist the client with using a fracture pan if urinary retention is present.
The correct action synthesizes the need for elimination assistance with strict post-procedural safety. Agitation in this context points to a full bladder. A bedside ultrasound confirms retention, while keeping the head of the bed at 20 degrees and using a fracture pan prevents dangerous hip flexion, safeguarding the femoral arterial puncture site from rupture.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and recognize the primary problem.
The client's sudden agitation, lower abdominal pressure, and lack of voiding for over 4 hours strongly indicate acute urinary retention, rather than just confusion.
Agitation in older adults or clients with cognitive impairment is frequently the first sign of a physiological unmet need, such as a full bladder.
2
Identify the contraindications based on the recent medical procedure.
The client is 4 hours post-PCI via the right femoral artery, meaning the right leg must remain straight and the head of the bed (HOB) must not be elevated above 30 degrees.
Excessive hip flexion (such as sitting upright) drastically increases the risk of arterial bleeding or retroperitoneal hematoma at the femoral puncture site.
3
Select the nursing intervention that safely resolves the basic care need (elimination) while adhering to positioning constraints.
Using a fracture pan with the HOB at 20 degrees allows for elimination without requiring the client to bend the affected hip or sit upright.
A fracture pan has a lower profile than a standard bedpan, allowing it to be slipped under the client with minimal lifting or rolling, protecting the femoral access site.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care Positioning and Elimination for Post-Procedural Clients
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2917Soru →

A client on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a continuous peripheral infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride with added potassium chloride. The client's electronic health record indicates that a scheduled dose of intravenous famotidine is currently due. Which step is essential for the nurse to take before proceeding with the medication administration?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Consult a pharmacological resource to verify that famotidine is compatible with the primary continuous fluid.

Cevap

Consult a pharmacological resource to verify that famotidine is compatible with the primary continuous fluid.
Verifying compatibility is a fundamental safety requirement before administering any secondary intravenous medication into an existing continuous infusion. This action prevents potential chemical reactions, such as precipitation, which can cause severe harm like an embolism or render the medications completely ineffective.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary fluid currently infusing.
The client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride with potassium chloride.
Knowing the exact composition of the primary fluid is necessary to determine compatibility.
2
Identify the prescribed medication to be administered.
The prescribed medication is intravenous famotidine.
The nurse must know which new medication is being introduced into the system.
3
Check a reliable drug compatibility resource.
The nurse determines if the famotidine can safely mix with the primary fluid in the IV tubing.
Preventing drug-drug incompatibilities is a fundamental safety standard to avoid precipitation or toxicity.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Compatibility
Soru 2918Soru →

A client is 4 hours postoperative following a bowel resection. The surgical dressing is saturated with bright red blood, and the hemovac drain contains 300 mL of fresh sanguineous fluid. Which assessment findings indicate the client is developing early hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Heart rate of 118 beats per minute; New onset of restlessness; Capillary refill time of 5 seconds

Cevap

The assessment findings indicating early hypovolemic shock are a heart rate of 118 beats per minute, new onset of restlessness, and a capillary refill time of 5 seconds.
In early hypovolemic shock, the body's compensatory mechanisms activate the sympathetic nervous system to preserve tissue perfusion. This physiological response manifests as an increased heart rate (tachycardia) to boost cardiac output, peripheral vasoconstriction (prolonged capillary refill) to redirect blood flow to essential organs, and early signs of cerebral hypoxia such as restlessness or anxiety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary clinical risk presented in the scenario.
The client has acute blood loss, putting them at risk for hypovolemic shock.
Recognizing the risk guides the focus toward early signs of decreased perfusion.
2
Evaluate each option against the expected physiological changes in the compensatory stage of shock.
Tachycardia, delayed capillary refill, and altered mental status are early signs. Normal urine output and bounding pulses contradict the pathophysiology of hypovolemia.
Sympathetic nervous system activation causes specific, predictable vital sign and assessment changes to maintain blood pressure.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Indicators of Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 2919Soru →

During afternoon rounding on the cardiovascular progressive care unit, the charge nurse evaluates the status of a client who underwent a right femoral percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) two hours ago. Which specific finding necessitates an immediate interruption by the charge nurse to mitigate a severe physiological risk?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The client is sitting upright in bed at a 60-degree angle to comfortably consume a lunch tray.

Cevap

The finding that requires immediate intervention is the client sitting upright at a 60-degree angle to eat, as this positioning is heavily contraindicated following a femoral procedure.
Following a percutaneous coronary intervention via the femoral artery, standard risk-reduction protocols dictate that the client must remain supine or with the head of the bed elevated no more than 30 degrees. Elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees causes severe flexion at the groin. This flexion directly increases pressure on the femoral artery puncture site, which can dislodge the clot and lead to massive external arterial bleeding or a hidden, life-threatening retroperitoneal hemorrhage.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the critical physiological risk associated with a recent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the femoral artery approach.
The primary immediate risk is severe bleeding, hematoma formation, or retroperitoneal hemorrhage at the femoral puncture site.
Understanding the anatomical and procedural risks is necessary to guide safe post-operative care and positioning.
2
Analyze the provided clinical observations against evidence-based safety protocols to distinguish normal findings from dangerous deviations.
Elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees bends the hip and stresses the puncture site. Conversely, the ABG values are normal, the assessment sequence is clinically accurate, and the vital signs do not indicate impending shock.
Discriminating between expected clinical data and unsafe practices is essential for effective risk reduction.
3
Prioritize the finding that presents the most immediate threat to the client's physiological integrity.
The charge nurse must interrupt the client sitting at 60 degrees to immediately lower the bed.
Swift correction of contraindicated positioning is required to prevent a life-threatening arterial hemorrhage.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Procedure Client Positioning and Hemorrhage Prevention
Soru 2920Soru →

A nurse is preparing to discontinue an intravenous (IV) infusion of paclitaxel, an antineoplastic medication, for a client. The infusion has finished and the IV bag is empty. Which action by the nurse demonstrates the correct protocol for handling these hazardous materials?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Disposing of the intact IV bag and attached tubing directly into a designated trace chemotherapy waste receptacle.

Cevap

The correct protocol is disposing of the intact IV bag and attached tubing directly into a designated trace chemotherapy waste receptacle.
The correct action is to dispose of the intact IV bag and attached tubing in a designated trace chemotherapy waste receptacle (often yellow). Tubing should never be disconnected from the IV bag, as this can aerosolize residual antineoplastic medication and increase the risk of hazardous exposure to the nurse and the environment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the type of material being handled.
The material is an empty IV bag and tubing used for paclitaxel, a hazardous antineoplastic (chemotherapy) medication.
Different materials (infectious vs. hazardous chemical) require distinct disposal protocols to ensure environmental and personnel safety.
2
Determine the correct disposal container for trace chemotherapy waste.
Trace chemotherapy waste, such as empty bags and tubing, must go into a designated trace chemotherapy waste receptacle, typically a yellow rigid container.
Standard red biohazard bags are for infectious waste, not hazardous chemicals.
3
Determine the correct method for discarding the infusion setup.
The IV bag and tubing must be disposed of intact without disconnecting them.
Disconnecting the setup can aerosolize residual medication droplets, exposing the healthcare worker to hazardous chemicals.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe handling and disposal of hazardous antineoplastic (chemotherapy) materials
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Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-RN | Examkin