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3881 soru

Soru 381Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client with severe bilateral macular degeneration who is struggling to navigate their meal tray due to visual impairment. The client is alert and oriented with no history of swallowing difficulties. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate to promote the client's independence and adequate nutritional intake?

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Cevap: Describe the location of the food items on the plate using the numbers on a clock face.

Cevap

Describe the location of the food items on the plate using the numbers on a clock face.
For a client with severe visual impairment who is otherwise alert and able to swallow, the goal is to provide environmental accommodations that promote self-care. Describing the food arrangement using the numbers on a clock face (e.g., 'chicken is at 6 o'clock, peas are at 2 o'clock') provides clear spatial orientation, allowing the client to feed themselves safely and maintain their dignity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's barriers to adequate nutritional intake.
The primary barrier is identified as visual impairment due to macular degeneration, not cognitive decline or dysphagia.
Accurate identification of the barrier determines the appropriate nursing intervention.
2
Select an intervention that addresses the visual deficit while maintaining client autonomy.
The clock face method is chosen as the optimal communication tool.
This method provides a universal spatial reference that allows the client to locate food independently without taking away their ability to feed themselves.
3
Ensure safe positioning and appropriate delegation during the meal.
The client is placed in a high-Fowler's position, and the RN conducts any necessary swallowing assessments.
Proper positioning prevents aspiration, and RNs must perform all initial clinical assessments.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Nutrition and Visual Impairment
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 382Soru →

A nurse is caring for an oliguric client diagnosed with an acute kidney injury. The laboratory reports a stat serum potassium level of 8.28.2 mEq/L (8.28.2 mmol/L). The continuous bedside cardiac monitor suddenly displays widening QRS complexes and absent P waves. Arrange the following collaborative interventions in the priority sequence they should be implemented. (Place the most immediate life-saving action first and the final evaluative action last.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate life safety, followed by myocardial stabilization, intracellular potassium shifting, potassium elimination, and therapeutic evaluation.
The correct sequence is rooted in the physiological principles of resuscitation and prioritization. Activating the emergency response system is the first step for any client facing imminent arrest. Following this, the absolute priority in severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes is preventing ventricular fibrillation; intravenous calcium gluconate achieves this within minutes by raising the threshold potential of the myocardium. Once the heart is protected, intravenous insulin and dextrose are administered to rapidly shift potassium out of the serum and into the cells, temporarily resolving the critical serum concentration. Because the potassium is still in the body, sodium polystyrene sulfonate is then administered to bind potassium in the gut for permanent excretion. Finally, drawing a follow-up serum potassium level evaluates the effectiveness of the entire intervention cascade.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Call for the rapid response team while remaining at the client's bedside.
Additional medical personnel and resuscitation equipment are mobilized.
Severe hyperkalemia with widening QRS complexes indicates imminent cardiac arrest; the nurse must secure help without abandoning the unstable client.
2
Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
The myocardial threshold potential is stabilized.
Calcium acts immediately to antagonize the toxic effects of potassium on the heart, preventing lethal dysrhythmias. It does not lower serum potassium but buys time for other treatments.
3
Administer intravenous regular insulin concurrently with 50% dextrose.
Potassium is forced from the bloodstream into the intracellular space.
This intervention rapidly but temporarily lowers the serum potassium level, reducing the immediate metabolic threat.
4
Administer oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
Potassium is bound in the intestines and excreted in the stool.
Because insulin only temporarily shifts potassium, a removal mechanism is required to permanently eliminate the excess total body potassium.
5
Obtain a follow-up serum potassium level.
Current laboratory values are collected.
The final step of the nursing process is evaluation, ensuring the interventions successfully corrected the severe hyperkalemia.

Anahtar Kavram

The emergency management of severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes follows a strict physiological priority: stabilize the myocardium (calcium), shift potassium intracellularly (insulin/dextrose), excrete potassium from the body (cation-exchange resins/dialysis), and evaluate the response.
Soru 383Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following open abdominal surgery. The client coughs forcefully, and the nurse observes that the surgical incision has completely separated with loops of bowel protruding from the wound. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stay with the client and call for assistance, then place the client in a low Fowler's position with knees flexed, cover the viscera with sterile saline-moistened dressings, obtain vital signs, and finally prepare the client for surgery.
Wound evisceration is an acute medical emergency. The priority is to maintain patient safety by staying with them and calling for help. Immediately reducing intra-abdominal pressure by bending the knees and raising the head slightly prevents further organ protrusion. Protecting the exposed tissue with moist, sterile dressings prevents irreversible necrosis. Once the tissue is stabilized, monitoring for shock via vital signs and preparing for definitive surgical repair follow in logical sequence.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stay with the client and call for assistance.
Help is summoned while the client remains under continuous observation.
Leaving the client could result in severe anxiety or further mechanical injury to the protruding bowel.
2
Place the client in a low Fowler's position with knees flexed.
Abdominal muscle tension is significantly reduced.
This physical maneuver minimizes intra-abdominal pressure, effectively halting further evisceration.
3
Cover the protruding viscera with sterile dressings moistened with sterile normal saline.
The exposed bowel is protected from drying out and potential infection.
Tissue necrosis can occur rapidly if the highly vascular bowel tissue becomes dry.
4
Obtain vital signs.
The client's current hemodynamic status is established.
Evisceration can lead to rapid third-spacing of fluids and shock, requiring careful cardiovascular monitoring.
5
Prepare the client for surgery.
The client is readied for definitive surgical repair.
This is a life-threatening surgical emergency that cannot be resolved at the bedside.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Wound Evisceration
Soru 384Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a continuous intravenous infusion of dobutamine to a client with severe heart failure. The healthcare provider prescribes dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min5\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 176 lbs176\text{ lbs}. The pharmacy supplies a premixed intravenous bag containing 500 mg500\text{ mg} of dobutamine in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water5\%\text{ dextrose in water} (D5WD_5W). What rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse program into the infusion pump to deliver the prescribed dose?

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Cevap: 12 mL/hr12\text{ mL/hr}

Cevap

The correct infusion rate is 12 mL/hr.
To calculate the correct infusion rate, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (176÷2.2=80 kg176 \div 2.2 = 80\text{ kg}). Next, the per-minute dose is calculated (80 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=400 mcg/min80\text{ kg} \times 5\text{ mcg/kg/min} = 400\text{ mcg/min}) and converted to an hourly rate (400×60=24,000 mcg/hr400 \times 60 = 24,000\text{ mcg/hr}). Since the bag is labeled in milligrams, micrograms must be converted to milligrams (24,000÷1,000=24 mg/hr24,000 \div 1,000 = 24\text{ mg/hr}). The concentration of the intravenous bag is 2 mg/mL2\text{ mg/mL} (500 mg÷250 mL500\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mL}). Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the final pump rate (24 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=12 mL/hr24\text{ mg/hr} \div 2\text{ mg/mL} = 12\text{ mL/hr}).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=80 kg176\text{ lbs} \div 2.2\text{ lbs/kg} = 80\text{ kg}
The medication is prescribed based on kilograms of body weight.
2
Calculate the total prescribed dose per minute.
80 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=400 mcg/min80\text{ kg} \times 5\text{ mcg/kg/min} = 400\text{ mcg/min}
To determine the exact amount of medication the client requires each minute.
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
400 mcg/min×60 min/hr=24,000 mcg/hr400\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 24,000\text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL per hour, requiring the dose to be on an hourly basis.
4
Convert micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg).
24,000 mcg/hr÷1,000 mcg/mg=24 mg/hr24,000\text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000\text{ mcg/mg} = 24\text{ mg/hr}
The supplied medication is measured in milligrams, so the units must match before calculating volume.
5
Determine the medication concentration.
500 mg÷250 mL=2 mg/mL500\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 2\text{ mg/mL}
To find out how many milligrams are in each milliliter of the intravenous fluid.
6
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr.
24 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=12 mL/hr24\text{ mg/hr} \div 2\text{ mg/mL} = 12\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration provides the volume to be infused per hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based intravenous medication dosage calculation
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 385Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a mixed dose of NPH insulin and regular insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus. Arrange the steps of the medication preparation procedure in the correct chronological order.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first roll the NPH vial, then inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the regular insulin vial, withdraw the regular insulin, and finally withdraw the NPH insulin.
When mixing NPH (intermediate-acting) and regular (short-acting) insulin, the standard safety protocol is 'clear before cloudy' for drawing up the medication, while injecting air follows the 'cloudy before clear' sequence. Rolling the NPH vial first safely suspends the particles. Injecting air into the NPH vial first, followed by the regular vial, ensures pressure is equalized without transferring medication. Withdrawing the regular insulin first ensures that if any accidental transfer occurs, the short-acting regular insulin remains uncontaminated, preventing dangerous alterations to its rapid onset and peak times.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Roll the NPH insulin vial.
The NPH suspension is evenly mixed.
Mixing ensures accurate dosing, and rolling (instead of shaking) prevents the formation of air bubbles.
2
Inject air into the NPH vial.
Air is added to the NPH vial without insulin touching the needle.
Prevents a vacuum from forming later. It is done first so the needle is still completely clean and empty.
3
Inject air into the regular insulin vial.
Air is added to the regular insulin vial.
Equalizes pressure in the vial to make withdrawing the medication easier.
4
Withdraw the regular insulin.
The correct dose of regular insulin is drawn into the syringe.
Drawing the clear (regular) insulin first prevents it from being contaminated by the cloudy (NPH) insulin.
5
Withdraw the NPH insulin.
The correct dose of NPH insulin is added to the syringe.
Completes the mixture. The exact dose must be drawn carefully, as you cannot push mixed insulin back into the vial.

Anahtar Kavram

Insulin Mixing Sequence (Clear before Cloudy)
Soru 386Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client at 35 weeks of gestation who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. During the hourly assessment, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, absent patellar deep tendon reflexes, and a urine output of 12 mL over the past hour. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

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Cevap: Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately.; Prepare to administer intravenous calcium gluconate.; Ensure a bag-valve-mask resuscitator and emergency equipment are readily available at the bedside.

Cevap

The correct actions are to stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately, prepare to administer intravenous calcium gluconate, and ensure a bag-valve-mask resuscitator and emergency equipment are readily available at the bedside.
The assessment findings of bradypnea (respiratory rate less than 12 breaths/min), absent patellar deep tendon reflexes, and severe oliguria indicate clinical magnesium sulfate toxicity. The immediate priority is to stop the infusion to prevent respiratory or cardiac arrest. Calcium gluconate is the specific pharmacological antidote and must be prepared for intravenous administration. Because the client is exhibiting severe respiratory depression, having a bag-valve-mask resuscitator and emergency equipment at the bedside is critical to support the airway and ventilation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's assessment findings.
The client has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, absent deep tendon reflexes, and severe oliguria (12 mL/hr).
These are classic, critical signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity requiring immediate life-saving intervention.
2
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The continuous magnesium sulfate infusion must be stopped immediately.
Removing the source of the toxicity is the first step in the chain of survival to prevent cardiac and respiratory arrest.
3
Identify the necessary pharmacological and supportive treatments.
Prepare calcium gluconate and ensure emergency airway equipment is at the bedside.
Calcium gluconate acts as the direct antidote to magnesium toxicity, and airway equipment is required due to the active respiratory depression.
4
Evaluate the safety of parenteral administration routes and delegation.
Do not mix the antidote with the existing magnesium line, do not aggressively hydrate, and do not delegate assessments.
Magnesium and calcium are incompatible. The client is highly unstable, requiring RN-level care and strict fluid management to prevent pulmonary edema.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Magnesium Sulfate Toxicity and Parenteral Safety
Soru 387Soru →

A young adult client arrives at the emergency department lethargic and exhibiting shallow breathing at a rate of 77 breaths per minute following a suspected narcotic overdose. The laboratory reports the following arterial blood gas values: pH 7.267.26, PaCO2PaCO_2 5858 mm Hg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- 2424 mEq/L. Based on these findings, which acid-base imbalance is the client experiencing?

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Cevap: Respiratory acidosis

Cevap

Respiratory acidosis
The client's arterial blood gas results show a pH below 7.357.35, defining an acidotic state. The elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 (greater than 4545 mm Hg) aligns with the acidosis, indicating that the respiratory system is the source of the disturbance due to hypoventilation from the suspected narcotic overdose. The normal bicarbonate (HCO3−HCO_3^-) level confirms it is uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pH value to determine the primary state of the blood.
The pH is 7.267.26, which is lower than the normal range of 7.357.35 to 7.457.45, indicating acidemia.
Determining whether the blood is acidic or alkalotic is the fundamental first step in interpreting arterial blood gases.
2
Evaluate the PaCO2PaCO_2 level to check for a respiratory component.
The PaCO2PaCO_2 is 5858 mm Hg, which is higher than the normal range of 3535 to 4545 mm Hg.
An elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 in the presence of an acidic pH indicates that the lungs are retaining carbon dioxide, pointing to a respiratory cause for the acidosis.
3
Examine the HCO3−HCO_3^- level to check for metabolic involvement or compensation.
The HCO3−HCO_3^- is 2424 mEq/L, which falls squarely within the normal range of 2222 to 2626 mEq/L.
A normal bicarbonate level confirms that the acidosis is strictly respiratory in origin and that the kidneys have not yet begun to compensate for the imbalance.

Anahtar Kavram

Interpretation of uncompensated respiratory acidosis resulting from hypoventilation.
Soru 388Soru →

A nurse enters a client's room and discovers a small fire in the wastebasket. The client is resting in bed, receiving intravenous fluids, and is physically unharmed but highly anxious. According to standard internal disaster protocols, arrange the nurse's immediate actions in the correct priority sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence adheres to the RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish) and PASS (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep) protocols: First, rescue the client; second, activate the alarm; third, confine the fire by closing the door; fourth, prepare the extinguisher by pulling the pin; and finally, aim and sweep at the base of the fire.
The correct sequence strictly follows the universally accepted nursing emergency response protocols for a fire: RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish) and PASS (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep). The nurse must prioritize human life above all else by rescuing the client first. Activating the alarm follows immediately to ensure hospital-wide response. Confining the fire by closing the door limits damage and smoke spread. Only after these steps are complete should the nurse attempt to extinguish the fire using the proper mechanical technique.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Relocate the client from the room to a designated safe area beyond the fire doors.
The client is removed from immediate danger.
Life safety is the highest priority. The 'Rescue' phase must occur before any other action to prevent injury or fatality.
2
Trigger the facility's emergency fire alarm system to alert emergency services.
Facility staff and local fire departments are mobilized.
The 'Alarm' phase ensures that additional resources and personnel are deployed to manage the disaster.
3
Shut the door to the client's room tightly to restrict oxygen flow and contain smoke.
The fire is isolated to its room of origin.
The 'Confine' phase minimizes oxygen supply to the fire and protects the rest of the unit from toxic smoke inhalation.
4
Obtain a fire extinguisher from the corridor and pull the safety pin from the handle.
The fire extinguisher is unlocked and ready to discharge.
Once the area is secure and alarms are active, the 'Extinguish' phase begins by applying the first step of the PASS technique.
5
Aim the extinguisher nozzle at the base of the flames and sweep from side to side.
The extinguishing agent targets the fuel source, suppressing the fire.
Proper extinguisher technique is essential to successfully put out a small fire without spreading the flames.

Anahtar Kavram

Internal Disaster Management: Fire Emergency Response (RACE and PASS protocols)
Soru 389Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who has experienced significant blood loss following a traumatic injury. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as early indicators of hypovolemic shock? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: Heart rate of 118 beats/min; Restlessness and anxiety

Cevap

The early indicators of hypovolemic shock are a heart rate of 118 beats/min and restlessness and anxiety.
The correct answers identify the compensatory mechanisms that occur during early hypovolemic shock. As blood volume decreases, the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated. This leads to early tachycardia to maintain cardiac output. Additionally, early decreases in cerebral blood flow and oxygenation cause subtle neurological alterations, presenting as restlessness, agitation, or anxiety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the underlying physiological process of early hypovolemic shock.
The body attempts to compensate for decreased circulating blood volume by activating the sympathetic nervous system.
Understanding compensatory mechanisms is essential for predicting early clinical manifestations before profound hypotension occurs.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against the expected sympathetic nervous system response.
Tachycardia and neurological changes (restlessness) match the compensatory response, while bounding pulses and warm skin do not.
Sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and causes peripheral vasoconstriction, which shunts blood away from the skin and extremities.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Indicators of Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 390Soru →

A 48-year-old client is 12 hours post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy for a pituitary adenoma. The nurse is evaluating the client's current clinical data and physical assessment. Which of the following findings require immediate follow-up by the nurse? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Urine output totals 850 mL over the past 2 hours with a specific gravity of 1.002.; The client exhibits frequent, continuous swallowing while dozing.; The client reports a new onset of peripheral visual field deficits.

Cevap

The findings that require immediate follow-up are the highly dilute polyuria (850 mL over 2 hours), the frequent swallowing while dozing, and the new onset of peripheral visual field deficits.
Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the client is at immense risk for life-threatening complications that require rapid intervention. A massive urine output (850 mL over two hours) with a low specific gravity (1.002) is a definitive indicator of Diabetes Insipidus (DI) due to a lack of antidiuretic hormone, which will rapidly lead to hypovolemic shock if untreated. Frequent, continuous swallowing is a subtle but highly concerning indicator of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak or hemorrhage draining down the pharynx. Furthermore, because the optic chiasm sits directly superior to the pituitary gland, a new onset of peripheral visual deficits indicates an expanding hematoma or severe edema compressing the optic nerve—a surgical emergency that can result in permanent blindness.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the surgical procedure and its associated high-risk complications.
Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves removing a pituitary tumor via the sphenoid sinus, creating specific risks for Diabetes Insipidus (DI), cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks, and optic nerve compression.
Understanding the anatomical approach and the endocrine function of the pituitary gland is essential to anticipate postoperative physiological decompensation.
2
Evaluate the assessment findings for signs of endocrine failure.
A urine output of 850 mL over 2 hours with a specific gravity of 1.002 indicates massive fluid loss and dilute urine, classic signs of Diabetes Insipidus requiring immediate intervention.
Surgical trauma can disrupt the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to rapid, life-threatening hypovolemia.
3
Assess for subtle indicators of structural damage or fluid leaks.
Frequent, continuous swallowing while resting is a critical sign that fluid (such as CSF or blood) is leaking from the surgical site and draining down the back of the pharynx.
A dural tear during surgery allows CSF to leak, placing the client at severe risk for ascending meningitis.
4
Assess for neurological complications related to the surgical site anatomy.
New onset of peripheral visual field deficits indicates expanding edema or a hematoma compressing the optic chiasm.
The optic chiasm sits directly above the pituitary gland; unchecked pressure here can lead to permanent blindness.
5
Differentiate these critical complications from expected postoperative findings.
Normal ABG values, a semi-Fowler's position, and a small amount of dark serosanguineous drainage without a halo are all expected or appropriate findings.
Safe prioritization requires the nurse to act decisively on physiological decompensation while recognizing and monitoring expected postoperative variations.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritizing severe postoperative complications (Diabetes Insipidus, CSF leak, Optic nerve compression) following transsphenoidal hypophysectomy.
Soru 391Soru →

A client with a systemic fungal infection is prescribed an intravenous infusion of amphotericin B. The client currently has a continuous intravenous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride running through a single-lumen central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to safely administer the prescribed medication?

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Cevap: Stop the primary infusion, flush the catheter with 5% dextrose in water, infuse the medication, and flush again with 5% dextrose in water.

Cevap

The nurse should stop the primary 0.9% sodium chloride infusion, flush the line with 5% dextrose in water (D5W), administer the amphotericin B, and then flush the line again with D5W.
Amphotericin B is highly incompatible with 0.9% sodium chloride and other electrolyte solutions. Mixing the two causes the medication to precipitate, which can lead to catheter occlusion or dangerous systemic emboli. To safely administer the drug through a line containing normal saline, the nurse must pause the primary infusion and flush the line with an inert, compatible solution like 5% dextrose in water (D5W) before and after the medication infusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the compatibility of the prescribed medication (amphotericin B) with the primary continuous intravenous fluid (0.9% sodium chloride).
Amphotericin B is incompatible with saline solutions and will precipitate if mixed.
Verifying intravenous fluid and medication compatibility is a critical safety check prior to administration to prevent patient harm and catheter occlusion.
2
Determine the appropriate flush solution and administration technique to safely deliver the medication through the existing single-lumen catheter.
The intravenous line must be cleared of the 0.9% sodium chloride using a compatible inert solution, which is 5% dextrose in water (D5W), before and after the medication is infused.
Using D5W creates a safe barrier between the incompatible saline solution and the amphotericin B.

Anahtar Kavram

Amphotericin B is incompatible with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) and will precipitate; it must only be mixed and flushed with 5% dextrose in water (D5W).
Soru 392Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with severe acute pancreatitis in the intensive care unit. Over the past two hours, the nurse notes the client's heart rate has increased from 92 to 124 bpm, and blood pressure has changed from 120/78 mm Hg to 106/84 mm Hg. Urine output for the past hour was 15 mL. The client's respiratory rate is 28/min. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.29, PaCO2PaCO_2 30 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 14 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 94 mm Hg on room air. Based on these findings, which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate implementing? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of a prescribed isotonic crystalloid solution; Obtain a blood sample to evaluate the client's current serum lactate level

Cevap

The correct interventions are to initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of a prescribed isotonic crystalloid solution and to obtain a blood sample to evaluate the client's current serum lactate level.
The client is exhibiting early (compensatory) signs of hypovolemic and distributive shock due to massive fluid shifts (third-spacing) associated with severe acute pancreatitis. The significantly narrowed pulse pressure (changing from 42 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg), tachycardia, and oliguria are critical early indicators of decreased cardiac output and poor tissue perfusion, occurring before profound systolic hypotension manifests. The ABG reveals partially compensated metabolic acidosis, which in this clinical context is lactic acidosis from cellular hypoxia. The immediate priority is restoring intravascular volume and tissue perfusion through rapid isotonic crystalloid fluid resuscitation. Additionally, evaluating the serum lactate level is essential to quantify the degree of tissue hypoperfusion and to monitor the effectiveness of the fluid therapy.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends to identify the primary physiological problem.
The narrowed pulse pressure (from 42 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg), tachycardia (124 bpm), and oliguria (15 mL/hr) indicate early compensatory hypovolemic/distributive shock.
Recognizing early shock is critical before the client decompensates into profound, irreversible hypotension.
2
Interpret the ABG results in the context of the client's clinical presentation.
A pH of 7.29, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 14 mEq/L indicate partially compensated metabolic acidosis.
In the setting of shock and third-spacing from severe pancreatitis, this is recognized as lactic acidosis due to tissue hypoperfusion, which requires aggressive volume resuscitation rather than chemical buffering.
3
Evaluate the respiratory status and compensatory mechanisms.
The tachypnea (28/min) and lowered PaCO2PaCO_2 are identified as Kussmaul respirations (compensatory hyperventilation), not impending respiratory failure, since the PaO2PaO_2 is 94 mm Hg.
Distinguishing between compensatory hyperventilation and primary respiratory failure prevents inappropriate and potentially harmful interventions like premature intubation.
4
Select priority nursing interventions that address the root cause without suppressing vital compensatory mechanisms.
Rapid fluid resuscitation and lactate monitoring are selected. Interventions targeting compensatory symptoms (bicarbonate, beta-blockers) or those worsening venous return (high-Fowler's) are rejected.
Effective shock management requires treating the underlying hypoperfusion without blunting the body's natural sympathetic and respiratory compensatory efforts.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of compensatory shock, narrowed pulse pressure, and appropriate management of resulting lactic acidosis.
Soru 393Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who underwent a partial hepatectomy 6 hours ago. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the development of early (compensatory) hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Narrowing of the pulse pressure; Heart rate increasing from 84 to 118 beats per minute; New-onset restlessness and anxiety

Cevap

The findings that indicate early hypovolemic shock are a narrowing pulse pressure, an increasing heart rate, and new-onset restlessness and anxiety.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion. This results in an increased heart rate (tachycardia) and vasoconstriction, which raises the diastolic blood pressure and leads to a narrowing pulse pressure. Additionally, subtle decreases in cerebral perfusion trigger early neurological changes such as restlessness, anxiety, and mild confusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the phase of shock being assessed.
The question asks for the early (compensatory) phase of hypovolemic shock.
During the early phase, the body activates compensatory mechanisms to maintain cardiac output and vital organ perfusion despite volume loss.
2
Analyze the physiological compensatory mechanisms associated with early hypovolemia.
Sympathetic nervous system activation causes tachycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction.
These mechanisms attempt to preserve blood flow to the heart and brain.
3
Correlate these mechanisms to the clinical manifestations presented in the options.
Vasoconstriction increases diastolic pressure, leading to a narrowing pulse pressure. Tachycardia manifests as an increased heart rate. Decreased cerebral oxygenation causes early restlessness and anxiety.
These are the direct observable effects of the body's compensatory responses.
4
Differentiate these early signs from late signs or other types of shock.
Hypotension is identified as a late (progressive) sign of shock. Bounding pulses are ruled out, as they occur in early distributive (septic) shock, whereas hypovolemic shock presents with weak, thready pulses.
Accurate clinical judgment requires distinguishing between different stages and etiologies of shock to prevent delayed interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition of Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 394Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous infusion of amphotericin B deoxycholate to a client with a severe systemic fungal infection. Upon reviewing the client's medical record, laboratory results, and the medication preparation, which of the following findings requires the nurse to withhold the infusion and contact the healthcare provider?

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Cevap: The client's most recent serum potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L3.1 \text{ mEq/L} (3.1 mmol/L3.1 \text{ mmol/L}).

Cevap

The most recent serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L3.1 \text{ mEq/L} requires the nurse to withhold the infusion.
The correct answer is the potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L3.1 \text{ mEq/L}. Amphotericin B is a high-alert medication known for its significant nephrotoxicity, which often leads to severe renal wasting of potassium and magnesium. A normal serum potassium level is 3.53.5 to 5.0 mEq/L5.0 \text{ mEq/L}. Administering this medication to a client who already has hypokalemia could result in a critical, life-threatening exacerbation of the electrolyte imbalance, potentially leading to fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. The provider must prescribe potassium replacement therapy before the infusion can safely begin.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the potential adverse effects of amphotericin B deoxycholate.
Identify that amphotericin B is highly nephrotoxic and commonly causes severe hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia.
Understanding the drug's toxicity profile is necessary to evaluate the safety of the client's baseline laboratory values.
2
Evaluate the client's current serum potassium level.
Determine that 3.1 mEq/L3.1 \text{ mEq/L} is below the normal range of 3.53.5 to 5.0 mEq/L5.0 \text{ mEq/L}.
Identifying pre-existing hypokalemia is critical because administering a potassium-depleting medication will worsen the deficit.
3
Determine the necessary nursing intervention based on the findings.
Conclude that the infusion must be withheld and the provider notified to correct the potassium level prior to administration.
Proceeding with the infusion could precipitate severe or fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritizing patient safety by recognizing contraindications and severe adverse effects of high-risk intravenous medications.
Soru 395Soru →

An agricultural transport vehicle carrying toxic organophosphate pesticides overturns on a highway near a local hospital. Ten minutes later, four exposed individuals who bypassed emergency medical services arrive on foot at the emergency department (ED) main entrance, requesting immediate help. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse take? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Instruct the individuals to remain outside and direct them to the facility's designated external decontamination area.; Instruct facility security personnel to temporarily lock down the main ED doors to prevent contamination of the interior environment.; Ensure that any staff assisting the clients don chemical-resistant personal protective equipment (PPE) prior to rendering aid.

Cevap

The correct actions are to instruct the individuals to remain outside for external decontamination, lock down the main ED doors via security, and ensure staff don chemical-resistant PPE.
In any hazardous materials event, the overarching priority of the emergency response plan is to prevent secondary contamination. This is achieved by locking down the facility to control access, directing self-presenting clients to designated external decontamination areas, and ensuring that all responding personnel wear specialized chemical-resistant PPE before interacting with the clients.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the nature of the emergency situation.
The scenario involves a hazardous materials (hazmat) chemical exposure with self-presenting 'walk-in' clients.
Recognizing the incident type dictates the specific emergency response protocol to follow.
2
Determine the primary goal in a hazmat incident.
The absolute priority is to protect the healthcare facility, staff, and other patients from secondary contamination.
If the facility becomes contaminated or staff become incapacitated, the hospital cannot provide care to any victims.
3
Evaluate the options against hazmat protocols.
Keeping clients outside, securing the building, and using specialized PPE align with safety protocols. Escorting them inside, delegating initial assessments, or assessing before decontamination violates safety guidelines.
Applying the correct protocols ensures the safety of the care environment.

Anahtar Kavram

Hazmat Event Emergency Response and Secondary Exposure Prevention
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 396Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who sustained a complete spinal cord transection at the T2 level 18 hours ago. Which of the following concurrent clinical indicators should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing neurogenic shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 52 mm Hg; Apical pulse of 46 beats/minute; Warm, flushed skin below the level of the transection

Cevap

The clinical indicators of neurogenic shock are a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 52 mm Hg, an apical pulse of 46 beats/minute, and warm, flushed skin below the level of the transection.
Neurogenic shock is a type of distributive shock that occurs following spinal cord injuries typically above the T6 level. The injury disrupts sympathetic nervous system pathways, leaving the parasympathetic (vagal) nervous system unopposed. This pathophysiology produces a distinct triad of clinical signs: massive vasodilation leading to severe hypotension (e.g., MAP of 52 mm Hg), unopposed vagal tone resulting in profound bradycardia (e.g., pulse of 46 beats/minute), and peripheral pooling of blood causing the skin below the injury to become warm, flushed, and dry (anhidrosis).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's risk factors based on the clinical presentation.
The client has a T2 spinal cord transection, placing them at high risk for neurogenic shock due to disruption of sympathetic pathways.
Injuries above the T6 level can sever the descending sympathetic pathways from the brainstem to the thoracolumbar blood vessels and heart.
2
Differentiate the hemodynamic profile of neurogenic shock from other forms of shock.
Neurogenic shock is characterized by loss of sympathetic tone, leading to massive vasodilation and unopposed vagal tone, unlike hypovolemic or cardiogenic shock which feature sympathetic compensation.
Understanding the underlying pathophysiology prevents confusing compensatory signs (tachycardia, vasoconstriction) with true neurogenic signs.
3
Evaluate each clinical indicator against the pathophysiology of neurogenic shock.
Hypotension (MAP of 52 mm Hg), bradycardia (pulse of 46 beats/minute), and warm/flushed skin perfectly match the profile. Narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia are compensatory responses seen in other shock states.
Accurate identification of specific vital sign trends is required to diagnose the exact type of distributive shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Neurogenic shock presents with a unique triad of hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, dry skin due to the loss of sympathetic nervous system tone and unopposed parasympathetic stimulation following a high spinal cord injury.
Soru 397Soru →

A mechanically ventilated client in the intensive care unit requires continuous sedation. The healthcare provider's order reads: dexmedetomidine 0.8 mcg/kg/hr0.8\text{ mcg/kg/hr} continuous IV infusion. The client weighs 154 lb154\text{ lb}. The pharmacy dispenses a pre-mixed solution containing 200 mcg200\text{ mcg} of dexmedetomidine in 50 mL50\text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.

At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the infusion pump be programmed? Record your answer using a whole number.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 14

Cevap

14
To determine the correct infusion rate, first convert the client's weight to kilograms (154÷2.2=70 kg154 \div 2.2 = 70\text{ kg}). Next, calculate the prescribed hourly dose by multiplying the weight by the ordered rate (70×0.8=56 mcg/hr70 \times 0.8 = 56\text{ mcg/hr}). Then, find the concentration of the supplied IV bag by dividing the total micrograms by the total milliliters (200 mcg÷50 mL=4 mcg/mL200\text{ mcg} \div 50\text{ mL} = 4\text{ mcg/mL}). Finally, divide the required hourly dose by the concentration to find the pump rate (56÷4=14 mL/hr56 \div 4 = 14\text{ mL/hr}). Since 14 is already a whole number, no rounding is necessary.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
154 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=70 kg154\text{ lb} \div 2.2\text{ lb/kg} = 70\text{ kg}
The medication dosing is weight-based and requires the weight to be in kilograms.
2
Calculate the total required hourly dose of dexmedetomidine.
70 kg×0.8 mcg/kg/hr=56 mcg/hr70\text{ kg} \times 0.8\text{ mcg/kg/hr} = 56\text{ mcg/hr}
This establishes the exact amount of medication the client needs to receive every hour.
3
Determine the concentration of the supplied dexmedetomidine solution.
200 mcg÷50 mL=4 mcg/mL200\text{ mcg} \div 50\text{ mL} = 4\text{ mcg/mL}
Finding the concentration is necessary to convert the ordered dose in micrograms into a liquid volume in milliliters.
4
Calculate the final infusion rate.
56 mcg/hr÷4 mcg/mL=14 mL/hr56\text{ mcg/hr} \div 4\text{ mcg/mL} = 14\text{ mL/hr}
This determines the exact volumetric rate to program into the intravenous infusion pump.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous IV infusion calculation
Soru 398Soru →

A nurse is planning positioning and mobility interventions for a client who is recovering from a right total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

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Cevap: Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs when turning them to the unaffected side.

Cevap

The correct action is to place an abduction pillow between the client's legs when turning them to the unaffected side.
An abduction pillow or wedge keeps the legs slightly apart and prevents the operative leg from crossing the midline of the body (adduction). This is a critical intervention for basic care and mobility after a posterior total hip arthroplasty to prevent prosthesis dislocation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific mobility precautions.
The client had a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a posterior approach.
Different surgical approaches dictate different post-operative movement restrictions to ensure joint stability.
2
Determine the contraindicated movements for a posterior hip approach.
Hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction across the midline, and internal rotation are contraindicated.
These specific movements force the head of the femur backward and can cause it to dislocate from the acetabulum.
3
Evaluate the nursing interventions in the options against these restrictions and general safety guidelines.
Using an abduction pillow safely prevents adduction. Conversely, elevating the head to 90 degrees violates the flexion restriction. Delegating assessment and using restraints inappropriately violate safety and scope of practice guidelines.
This ensures the selected intervention promotes basic care, comfort, and safety without risking prosthesis dislocation.

Anahtar Kavram

Following a posterior total hip arthroplasty, the nurse must prevent hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, internal rotation, and adduction to maintain joint stability.
Soru 399Soru →

The nurse is receiving the shift report for four clients on a progressive care step-down unit. Which client should the nurse assess FIRST?

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Cevap: A client 48 hours post-myocardial infarction who reports mild agitation, has a blood pressure of 102/86 mm Hg, and a newly auscultated holosystolic murmur at the apex

Cevap

The client who is 48 hours post-myocardial infarction with a blood pressure of 102/86 mm Hg and a new holosystolic murmur
The client who is 48 hours post-myocardial infarction is exhibiting early signs of acute papillary muscle rupture, a catastrophic mechanical complication. The newly auscultated holosystolic murmur indicates severe, acute mitral regurgitation. The exceedingly narrow pulse pressure of 16 mm Hg (102 - 86) combined with mild agitation are compensatory sympathetic responses to rapidly plummeting cardiac output. This client is in impending cardiogenic shock and requires immediate echocardiography, hemodynamic support, and emergency surgical intervention to survive.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical data for the post-myocardial infarction client.
The client has a new holosystolic murmur, mild agitation, and a severely narrowed pulse pressure of 16 mm Hg (102 - 86).
A new murmur post-MI strongly suggests a mechanical complication like papillary muscle rupture. The narrow pulse pressure indicates severe compensatory vasoconstriction due to plummeting cardiac output.
2
Evaluate the arterial blood gas values for the client with end-stage renal disease.
pH is 7.29 (acidosis), HCO3 is 14 mEq/L (metabolic cause), and PaCO2 is 31 mm Hg (respiratory compensation).
This is a predicted physiological adaptation (metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation) for missed dialysis, making it less acutely life-threatening than a mechanical cardiac failure.
3
Assess the symptoms of the client receiving vancomycin.
Facial erythema and mild tachycardia with a stable blood pressure (110/64 mm Hg).
These are classic signs of Red Man syndrome, a non-allergic histamine release that is managed simply by slowing the infusion, rather than a true anaphylactic shock.
4
Review the vital signs for the post-craniotomy client.
Heart rate is 62 bpm, respiratory rate is 16, and blood pressure is 138/84 mm Hg.
These findings do not constitute Cushing's triad (widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respirations), meaning a life-threatening increase in intracranial pressure is not currently evident.
5
Prioritize the clients based on the immediate risk to life.
The post-MI client is entering rapidly fatal cardiogenic shock and requires immediate life-saving intervention.
Acute papillary muscle rupture is a critical emergency that will swiftly progress to cardiovascular collapse without immediate hemodynamic support and surgery.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of Acute Hemodynamic Compromise and Shock
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 400Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who sustained a complete cervical spinal cord injury at the C6 level two months ago. The client suddenly reports an intense, pounding headache and blurred vision. The nurse notes profound diaphoresis on the client's face and neck, nasal congestion, and a blood pressure reading of 214/112 mm Hg. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct priority order from first to last to mitigate the risk of severe complications.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate physiological safety using gravity to lower blood pressure, followed by the systematic removal of the most statistically probable noxious stimuli, and finally escalating to pharmacological intervention.
In autonomic dysreflexia, a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury causes an uninhibited sympathetic response, leading to severe hypertension. The nurse must first lower the blood pressure immediately by sitting the client upright. Next, the nurse must systematically search for and eliminate the trigger, starting with external factors (tight clothing), then the most common internal factor (bladder distention), followed by the next most common (bowel impaction). Antihypertensive medications are a last resort if the trigger cannot be found or resolving it does not lower the blood pressure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position.
Immediate induction of orthostatic hypotension.
Rapidly decreases blood pressure to mitigate the immediate risk of stroke or hemorrhage.
2
Loosen any constrictive clothing or tight devices.
Removal of external sensory triggers.
Tight clothing is a common, easily reversible noxious stimulus that triggers sympathetic surging.
3
Assess the urinary drainage system for kinks or obstruction.
Identification or resolution of bladder distention.
A distended bladder is the leading cause of autonomic dysreflexia and must be addressed before invasive measures.
4
Evaluate the rectum for fecal impaction using a topical anesthetic.
Identification of bowel distention.
Bowel impaction is the second most common trigger; anesthetic ointment prevents further sympathetic stimulation during the exam.
5
Administer the prescribed as-needed intravenous antihypertensive agent.
Pharmacological reduction of blood pressure.
Used only when non-invasive removal of noxious stimuli fails to lower the life-threatening blood pressure.

Anahtar Kavram

Autonomic Dysreflexia Emergency Management
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
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Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-RN | Examkin