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3881 soru

Soru 521Soru →

Following an emergent bronchoscopy with a transbronchial lung biopsy, a 65-year-old client is transferred to the progressive care unit for continuous monitoring. Which of the following assessment findings indicate that the client is experiencing a severe post-procedure complication requiring immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion with absent breath sounds on the biopsied side; A steady increase in heart rate to 118 beats/min accompanied by a narrowing pulse pressure; Expectoration of copious amounts of frank, bright red blood

Cevap

The findings that indicate a severe complication are asymmetrical chest wall expansion with absent breath sounds, tachycardia with a narrowing pulse pressure, and the expectoration of copious frank blood.
Following a transbronchial biopsy, the client is at severe risk for airway compromise, pneumothorax, and internal bleeding. Asymmetrical chest wall expansion with absent breath sounds is the hallmark presentation of a pneumothorax, meaning air has leaked into the pleural space. A steadily increasing heart rate combined with a narrowing pulse pressure represents the classic early compensatory mechanisms of hypovolemic shock, likely due to internal hemorrhage. Lastly, while minor blood-streaked sputum is expected as the biopsy site oozes slightly, expectorating copious amounts of frank, bright red blood indicates an active, uncontrolled airway hemorrhage that can quickly lead to asphyxiation and death.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary physiological risks associated with the procedure.
A transbronchial biopsy involves puncturing lung tissue, which places the client at a high risk for pneumothorax and severe hemorrhage.
Understanding procedure-specific risks directs the nurse to assess for the most lethal complications.
2
Evaluate the clinical findings for signs of respiratory or hemodynamic instability.
Absent breath sounds with asymmetrical chest expansion point to a pneumothorax. Tachycardia with narrowing pulse pressure points to hypovolemic shock. Copious bright red blood indicates active airway hemorrhage.
Recognizing these acute deviations allows for rapid intervention in life-threatening scenarios.
3
Differentiate expected post-procedure effects from true emergencies.
Normal arterial blood gases, an absent gag reflex at 30 minutes, a semi-Fowler's position, and a scratchy throat are all expected or appropriate findings.
Recognizing expected outcomes prevents unnecessary interventions and alarm, allowing the nurse to focus on true physiological deterioration.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Bronchoscopy Complication Recognition and Priority Action
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 522Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous peripheral intravenous (IV) infusion of a vesicant antineoplastic agent. The client suddenly reports severe burning pain at the IV insertion site. The nurse observes local swelling, erythema, and a lack of blood return upon aspiration. In what order should the nurse perform the following interventions? Arrange the actions in the correct sequence.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the infusion, disconnect the tubing, attempt to aspirate residual drug through the existing catheter, remove the catheter, and finally elevate the extremity and apply a thermal compress.
When extravasation of a vesicant occurs, the immediate priority is to stop the infusion to prevent further tissue damage. The tubing should then be disconnected from the hub. Crucially, the catheter must be left in place temporarily so the nurse can attach a syringe and aspirate any residual medication from the line and subcutaneous tissue. Only after aspiration is attempted should the catheter be removed. Finally, the extremity is elevated to reduce edema, and the appropriate thermal compress is applied based on the specific pharmacological properties of the vesicant involved.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the continuous intravenous infusion immediately.
The flow of the vesicant medication into the tissue is halted.
The primary initial action is to prevent any additional tissue exposure to the highly toxic vesicant.
2
Disconnect the administration set from the peripheral catheter hub.
The primary source of the vesicant is completely separated from the client.
Disconnecting the tubing ensures that no additional medication remaining in the line can be inadvertently pushed into the tissue during subsequent steps.
3
Attach a sterile syringe to the catheter and attempt to aspirate residual drug.
Remaining vesicant medication is withdrawn from the catheter and surrounding subcutaneous tissue.
Aspirating before removing the catheter minimizes the amount of vesicant left in the tissue, significantly reducing the risk of severe local necrosis.
4
Remove the peripheral intravenous catheter from the client's arm.
The intravenous access device is successfully removed.
Once all possible residual medication has been aspirated, the catheter is removed to prevent further mechanical irritation and allow for external site care.
5
Elevate the affected extremity and apply the indicated thermal compress.
Edema is reduced and the local tissue reaction is managed.
Elevation promotes venous return and decreases swelling, while thermal compresses alter local blood flow to mitigate tissue damage based on the specific vesicant's properties.

Anahtar Kavram

Extravasation Management of Vesicant Medications
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 523Soru →

A patient admitted with a hypertensive emergency requires a continuous intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin. The provider orders a rate of 25 \mug/min25 \text{ \mu g/min}. The pharmacy delivers a standard premixed glass bottle containing 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of nitroglycerin in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride}.

Calculate the correct electronic infusion pump setting in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}. (Record your answer rounding to the nearest tenth.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 7.5

Cevap

The infusion pump should be set to deliver 7.5 mL/hr7.5 \text{ mL/hr}.
To find the correct infusion rate, the nurse must ensure all units of measurement align. First, convert the prescribed per-minute dose to an hourly rate: 25 \mug/min×60 min/hr=1500 \mug/hr25 \text{ \mu g/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 1500 \text{ \mu g/hr}. Next, determine the concentration of the available IV bag. Convert the 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of nitroglycerin to micrograms (50 mg×1000=50,000 \mug50 \text{ mg} \times 1000 = 50,000 \text{ \mu g}) and divide by the total volume of 250 mL250 \text{ mL}, which equals 200 \mug/mL200 \text{ \mu g/mL}. Finally, divide the required hourly dose by the concentration: 1500 \mug/hr÷200 \mug/mL=7.5 mL/hr1500 \text{ \mu g/hr} \div 200 \text{ \mu g/mL} = 7.5 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the total dose required per hour.
1500 \mug/hr1500 \text{ \mu g/hr}
The prescribed rate is per minute, but the infusion pump requires an hourly rate.
2
Convert the total amount of medication in the IV bottle to micrograms.
50,000 \mug50,000 \text{ \mu g}
To ensure units match the prescribed dose before determining the concentration.
3
Determine the concentration of the medication in the IV fluid.
200 \mug/mL200 \text{ \mu g/mL}
This establishes how much medication is contained in each milliliter of the solution.
4
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr.
7.5 mL/hr7.5 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the volume required per hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous medication dosage calculation requiring unit conversions
Soru 524Soru →

A client in the intensive care unit is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine hydrochloride via a peripheral venous catheter. The client reports a severe, stinging pain at the insertion site. Upon assessment, the nurse observes that the surrounding tissue is blanched, edematous, and cold to the touch. Which of the following is the nurse's most appropriate initial action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the medication infusion immediately and leave the intravenous catheter in place.

Cevap

The correct action is to immediately stop the dopamine infusion while keeping the IV catheter in place.
The assessment findings indicate extravasation of dopamine, which is a potent vesicant. The immediate priority is to stop the infusion to prevent any further medication from entering and damaging the subcutaneous tissue. The intravenous catheter must be left in place because it provides the most direct access route for the healthcare provider to aspirate residual medication and for the nurse to administer the prescribed antidote, phentolamine (an alpha-adrenergic blocker), directly into the infiltrated area.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical assessment findings presented in the scenario.
The client has pain, blanching, edema, and coldness at the IV site while receiving dopamine, which clearly indicates extravasation.
Dopamine is a vesicant medication that causes severe local vasoconstriction and rapid tissue necrosis if it leaks into the surrounding subcutaneous tissue.
2
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention for a vesicant extravasation.
The absolute first action is to stop the infusion to halt any further infiltration of the tissue-damaging medication.
Stopping the source of harm is the foundational principle of patient safety and priority-setting frameworks.
3
Evaluate the subsequent steps in the standard extravasation protocol.
The IV catheter must be left in place rather than removed immediately.
Leaving the catheter intact provides direct venous and tissue access to aspirate residual drug and administer the specific pharmacological antidote (phentolamine) directly to the affected area.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of vesicant extravasation requires immediately stopping the infusion and retaining the catheter to administer the localized antidote.
Soru 525Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving an intravenous transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Fifteen minutes after the transfusion is initiated, the client suddenly reports severe lower back pain, shortness of breath, and a feeling of impending doom. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence. All options must be used.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence of actions for a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction is to first stop the transfusion, maintain IV access with new tubing and normal saline, assess the client's clinical status, notify the provider and blood bank, and finally return the blood products for analysis.
A hemolytic transfusion reaction is a life-threatening emergency characterized by flank pain, dyspnea, and hypotension. The first step is always to stop the infusion of the incompatible blood. Second, the nurse must maintain patent IV access for emergency drugs by using entirely new tubing primed with normal saline, because using the old tubing would flush more blood into the client. Third, the nurse conducts a rapid assessment to determine hemodynamic stability. Fourth, the nurse notifies the healthcare provider with the assessment data to obtain emergency prescriptions. Finally, the blood bag and tubing are sent to the blood bank for investigation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
Halts the administration of incompatible blood.
Preventing further exposure to the offending antigens is the absolute first priority in any hypersensitivity or hemolytic reaction to minimize systemic damage.
2
Disconnect the blood administration set and initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride using new tubing.
Maintains patent venous access without infusing more blood.
Using the existing tubing would flush the remaining blood into the client. New tubing ensures only normal saline is administered to keep the vein open for life-saving emergency drugs.
3
Assess the client's vital signs, respiratory status, and hemodynamic stability.
Provides objective baseline data regarding the severity of the reaction.
The nurse must gather accurate clinical data (e.g., degree of hypotension or hypoxia) to report to the provider for targeted interventions.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and the blood bank.
Activates the medical response and institutional protocols.
The provider must prescribe emergency treatments (e.g., vasopressors, antihistamines, diuretics), and the blood bank must initiate a mismatch investigation.
5
Return the remaining blood product, bag, and attached tubing to the blood bank.
Provides physical evidence for laboratory analysis.
The blood bank needs the original bag and tubing to re-crossmatch the blood and determine the exact cause of the hemolytic reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions requires immediately halting the offending agent, maintaining venous access with new equipment, and rapidly assessing the client before notifying the provider.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 526Soru →

A client presents to the emergency department in status epilepticus. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate intravenous loading dose of phenytoin. The client has one established 20-gauge peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter, which is currently infusing a continuous solution of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 75 mL/hr. Which action outlines the safest and most appropriate method for the nurse to administer the prescribed medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Pause the primary D5W infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the medication at a rate not exceeding 50 mg/minute, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

The correct action is to pause the incompatible dextrose solution, flush the line with normal saline, administer the phenytoin at a maximum rate of 50 mg/minute, and flush with normal saline again.
Phenytoin is highly alkaline and incompatible with solutions containing dextrose, which causes the drug to rapidly precipitate and form crystals. Therefore, the D5W infusion must be stopped, and the line must be flushed exclusively with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administration. Furthermore, rapid intravenous administration of phenytoin is associated with severe cardiovascular collapse (hypotension and bradycardia); the infusion rate must never exceed 50 mg/minute in an adult client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the compatibility of intravenous phenytoin with the primary infusing solution.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose solutions (D5W) and will quickly precipitate and form crystals.
Phenytoin must only be mixed or flushed with 0.9% sodium chloride.
2
Determine the safe administration rate for intravenous phenytoin.
The maximum safe infusion rate for adults is 50 mg/minute.
Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause severe hypotension, bradycardia, and cardiovascular collapse due to the diluent (propylene glycol) and the drug's properties.
3
Evaluate the vascular access site and prioritize emergency care.
A 20-gauge peripheral IV is acceptable for emergency administration, provided the site is closely monitored for extravasation.
While central access is preferred due to the drug's high alkalinity and vesicant properties, delaying treatment in status epilepticus to place a central line is life-threatening.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of intravenous phenytoin (Dilantin)
Soru 527Soru →

An adult client is treated in the emergency department for a severe asthma attack. Following one hour of continuous bronchodilator therapy, the client becomes markedly lethargic. Assessment reveals a "silent chest" with absent wheezing on auscultation and a respiratory rate that has decreased to 1010 breaths/minute. Laboratory analysis shows an arterial pHpH of 7.287.28, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 60 mm Hg60 \text{ mm Hg}, PaO2PaO_2 of 62 mm Hg62 \text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 24 mEq/L24 \text{ mEq/L}. Based on these clinical findings, which action is the priority?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Gather equipment for rapid sequence intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Cevap

The priority action is to gather equipment for rapid sequence intubation and mechanical ventilation.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of impending respiratory failure. In the context of a severe asthma attack, a transition from wheezing and tachypnea to a "silent chest," lethargy, and a dropping respiratory rate indicates that the client is exhausted and no longer moving enough air. The arterial blood gas values confirm acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis. The absolute priority is to secure the airway and initiate mechanical ventilation to restore gas exchange.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's physical assessment findings.
The client exhibits lethargy, a slowing respiratory rate (1010 breaths/minute), and absent wheezing ("silent chest").
These are ominous signs of respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure, indicating that airflow is severely restricted.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The results show a low pHpH (7.287.28), elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 (60 mm Hg60 \text{ mm Hg}), and normal HCO3−HCO_3^- (24 mEq/L24 \text{ mEq/L}).
This confirms acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis caused by severe hypoventilation and carbon dioxide retention.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on physiological needs.
The client requires immediate artificial airway placement and mechanical ventilation.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), securing the airway and restoring adequate alveolar ventilation is the life-saving priority for a client in acute respiratory failure.

Anahtar Kavram

Acute Respiratory Failure and ABG Interpretation in Asthma
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 528Soru →

A client is being managed in the intensive care unit following a severe closed head injury. Over the past hour, the nurse notes a significant change in the client's vital signs: the blood pressure has shifted from 124/82 mmHg to 180/58 mmHg, the heart rate has decreased from 86 to 48 beats/minute, and the respirations have become increasingly irregular with brief periods of apnea. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Ensure the head of the bed is elevated to 30 degrees with the client's neck in a neutral, midline position.

Cevap

Ensure the head of the bed is elevated to 30 degrees with the client's neck in a neutral, midline position.
The client is exhibiting Cushing's triad (severe systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations), which is a late and life-threatening physiological sign of severely increased intracranial pressure (ICP) indicating impending brainstem herniation. The immediate priority is to maximize venous outflow from the brain to lower the ICP. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in a neutral, midline position facilitates jugular venous drainage and is a critical, rapid, independent nursing intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the changes in the client's vital signs over the past hour.
The blood pressure shows a widening pulse pressure (systolic increased, diastolic decreased), the heart rate has become severely bradycardic, and the respiratory pattern is irregular.
Identifying these specific physiological trends is necessary to recognize the clinical syndrome developing in a client with a brain injury.
2
Correlate the vital sign trends with the client's traumatic head injury diagnosis.
The combination of severe systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations forms Cushing's triad.
Recognizing Cushing's triad is essential because it is a late, life-threatening sign of severely increased intracranial pressure and impending brainstem herniation.
3
Determine the safest, most immediate nursing priority to address the high intracranial pressure.
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in a neutral position is selected as the initial action.
This physical positioning mechanically facilitates venous blood drainage from the brain via the jugular veins, which safely and rapidly lowers intracranial pressure without causing further harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Cushing's Triad and Increased Intracranial Pressure Management
Soru 529Soru →

An older adult client with moderate dementia is hospitalized for the treatment of pneumonia. During the night shift, the client becomes restless, is frequently incontinent of urine, and repeatedly attempts to remove their intravenous (IV) catheter. Which basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a scheduled toileting routine for the client every 2 hours.; Conceal the intravenous insertion site by loosely covering it with a stockinette or long-sleeved gown.; Offer a warm, caffeine-free beverage and reduce ambient environmental stimuli prior to sleep.

Cevap

The correct interventions are establishing a scheduled toileting routine, concealing the IV site, and offering a warm caffeine-free beverage while reducing environmental stimuli.
The correct interventions focus on proactive, non-restrictive care. Establishing a scheduled toileting routine directly addresses incontinence while protecting skin integrity. Concealing the IV site is a recognized, evidence-based alternative to restraints that reduces the visual stimulus prompting the client to pull the line. Offering a warm, caffeine-free beverage and reducing environmental stimuli are standard sleep hygiene practices that decrease sensory overload and promote comfort.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is an older adult with dementia experiencing acute restlessness, urinary incontinence, and pulling at medical devices.
Understanding the clinical context helps distinguish between basic care needs, safety risks, and acute pathological changes.
2
Evaluate non-pharmacologic comfort and hygiene measures.
Scheduled toileting manages incontinence and skin integrity. Reducing noise and offering a warm drink promotes sleep hygiene. Concealing the IV line serves as a safe, less-restrictive alternative to protect the access site.
Basic care and comfort prioritize maintaining skin integrity, promoting rest, and ensuring safety through the least restrictive means possible.
3
Identify inappropriate or unsafe nursing actions.
Applying restraints bypasses necessary less-restrictive alternatives. Delegating skin assessment violates scope of practice. Attributing acute incontinence to normal aging ignores potential acute complications.
Recognizing contraindications and scope of practice limitations prevents patient harm and ensures legally sound nursing care.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort interventions for older adults with cognitive impairment
Soru 530Soru →

A nurse is managing the care of a client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin. The client's current arterial blood gas (ABG) values are pH 7.31, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 15 mEq/L. Which actions should the nurse include in the plan of care to minimize potential complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.; Assess capillary blood glucose levels hourly.; Prepare to add 5% dextrose to the intravenous fluids when blood glucose reaches 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L).

Cevap

The correct actions are initiating continuous ECG monitoring, assessing capillary blood glucose hourly, and preparing to add 5% dextrose to intravenous fluids when glucose reaches 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L).
Managing DKA safely focuses on resolving hyperglycemia and acidosis while preventing treatment-induced complications. Hourly blood glucose checks prevent profound hypoglycemia. Adding dextrose to the IV fluids when glucose reaches 250 mg/dL prevents rapid osmotic shifts that can lead to fatal cerebral edema. Continuous ECG monitoring is critical because insulin drives potassium into cells, and the resulting hypokalemia can trigger life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current condition and prescribed therapy.
The client is in a state of DKA and is receiving a continuous infusion of IV regular insulin, which rapidly lowers both glucose and potassium levels.
Understanding the physiological impact of the primary treatment is necessary to anticipate and prevent iatrogenic complications.
2
Interpret the provided arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The values (pH 7.31, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, HCO3 15 mEq/L) indicate partially compensated metabolic acidosis. The low PaCO2 is a compensatory mechanism, not a separate primary disorder.
Accurate ABG interpretation ensures the nurse does not inappropriately intervene to stop a necessary compensatory mechanism (like Kussmaul respirations) or administer unneeded, dangerous medications like bicarbonate.
3
Select interventions that actively reduce the risk of expected complications based on the assessment.
Select hourly glucose checks, ECG monitoring for hypokalemia-induced dysrhythmias, and the addition of dextrose to prevent cerebral edema. Reject actions that worsen the condition, such as flat positioning or inappropriate medication administration.
The nurse's core responsibility in high-acuity scenarios is to implement safety protocols that mitigate the known risks of the disease process and its medical management.

Anahtar Kavram

Risk reduction in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) management requires vigilant monitoring for hypokalemia and hypoglycemia, preventing cerebral edema with timely dextrose administration, and recognizing appropriate physiological compensation.
Soru 531Soru →

A nurse in the coronary care unit is caring for a client admitted with an acute inferior wall ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) with right ventricular involvement. The client is restless, diaphoretic, and reports substernal chest pain rated 7 on a 0 to 10 scale. Current vital signs are blood pressure 80/52 mm Hg, heart rate 112 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 20 breaths/minute. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally, and marked jugular venous distention is present. Which of the following prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer an intravenous bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

Administer an intravenous bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
The correct intervention focuses on maximizing preload. A right ventricular myocardial infarction impairs the right ventricle's ability to contract. To compensate, the heart relies on a higher venous pressure (preload) to passively push blood through the right side of the heart, into the lungs, and ultimately to the left ventricle. Administering an isotonic fluid bolus provides the necessary volume to increase this pressure and improve cardiac output, reversing the hypotension.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has an inferior wall STEMI with right ventricular involvement, exhibiting severe hypotension, clear lungs, and jugular venous distention.
Identifying the specific pathophysiology of the myocardial infarction is critical, as right ventricular involvement requires a completely different treatment approach than left ventricular failure.
2
Determine the physiological requirements of the right ventricle during an infarction.
The damaged right ventricle relies on high filling pressures (preload) to act as a passive conduit and maintain blood flow to the left side of the heart.
Understanding altered hemodynamics allows the nurse to anticipate which interventions will support or harm the client's cardiac output.
3
Evaluate how each option affects preload.
Nitroglycerin, furosemide, and morphine all decrease preload. Isotonic sodium chloride increases preload.
Medications typically used in the standard 'MONA' protocol for myocardial infarctions can be lethal in this specific condition due to their preload-reducing properties.
4
Select the priority intervention.
Administering the intravenous bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride is the priority to stabilize the client's hemodynamics.
Correcting the severe hypotension and restoring adequate right ventricular preload must take precedence over pain management in this critical situation.

Anahtar Kavram

Hemodynamic Management in Right Ventricular Myocardial Infarction
Soru 532Soru →

A critically ill client with distributive shock is being supported by a continuous norepinephrine infusion via a dedicated single-lumen central venous catheter. While the nurse is performing an assessment, the client abruptly exhibits generalized tonic-clonic seizure activity. An emergency prescription for immediate intravenous lorazepam is received. Which action by the nurse represents the safest practice for administering this medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Obtain a new peripheral intravenous access to administer the prescribed medication.

Cevap

The correct action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous access to administer the lorazepam, ensuring the continuous vasopressor infusion remains uninterrupted.
Using a separate, new vascular access ensures that the life-sustaining vasopressor infusion remains continuous and uninterrupted. This prevents an accidental bolus of the vasopressor, which could trigger a catastrophic hypertensive crisis or fatal dysrhythmia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current vascular access and active infusions.
The client has a single-lumen central line that is entirely dedicated to a life-sustaining norepinephrine infusion.
Identifying available access points and their current uses is required before safely administering any new intravenous medication.
2
Evaluate the physiological impact of administering the new medication through the existing central line.
Flushing or pushing medication into this single lumen would deliver a massive, rapid bolus of norepinephrine into the central circulation, while pausing it would cause severe hypotension.
Vasoactive medications require strict, uninterrupted rate control to maintain hemodynamic stability and must never be bolused.
3
Determine the safest administration route for the emergency anticonvulsant.
Establishing a new peripheral intravenous or intraosseous access allows for the rapid administration of lorazepam without disrupting the vasopressor.
Status epilepticus requires immediate treatment, but it cannot be done using a method that would precipitate fatal cardiovascular collapse.

Anahtar Kavram

Vasoactive medications require a dedicated intravenous line; flushing the line or pushing medications through it can cause life-threatening hemodynamic instability.
Soru 533Soru →

An 81-year-old client is on the surgical unit for their first postoperative day following a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. The client requires help with morning hygiene, meals, and general comfort measures. Which action by the nurse demonstrates the safest and most appropriate care?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain a foam abduction wedge between the client's legs while assisting them with washing their lower extremities.

Cevap

The correct action is to maintain a foam abduction wedge between the client's legs while assisting them with washing their lower extremities.
Maintaining an abduction wedge between the legs prevents adduction and internal rotation of the affected hip, which are critical precautions to prevent prosthesis dislocation following a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty. Assisting with hygiene while maintaining this alignment promotes basic care, comfort, and safety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure and the associated anatomical risks.
The client underwent a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach.
Understanding the specific surgical approach dictates the movement precautions required to prevent the prosthetic joint from dislocating.
2
Evaluate each nursing intervention against posterior hip precautions and general safety guidelines.
Flexing the hip to 90 degrees is contraindicated. Delegating assessment is out of the UAP's scope of practice. Applying restraints without less-restrictive alternatives violates safety protocols. Only maintaining an abduction wedge adheres to surgical precautions.
Nursing actions must prioritize evidence-based safety, adhere to surgical precautions, and align with the nurse's legal scope of practice.
3
Select the intervention that safely promotes basic care and comfort.
Maintaining the abduction wedge during hygiene is the correct action.
This directly facilitates necessary hygiene (comfort) while preventing adduction and internal rotation of the affected limb (safety).

Anahtar Kavram

Posterior Approach Total Hip Arthroplasty Precautions
Soru 534Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who was admitted 12 hours ago with a severe traumatic brain injury (TBI). The client is intubated, mechanically ventilated, and being closely monitored for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following assessment findings or clinical observations indicate a potential complication or an increased risk of physiological decompensation requiring immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.317.31, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 52 mm Hg52 \text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 24 mEq/L24 \text{ mEq/L}.; The client's head and neck are sharply rotated to the right side, resting against the ventilator tubing.; Current vital signs demonstrate a blood pressure of 185/60 mm Hg185/60 \text{ mm Hg} and a heart rate of 52 beats/min52 \text{ beats/min}.

Cevap

The findings requiring immediate intervention are the abnormal arterial blood gas showing hypercapnia, the contraindicated sharp neck rotation, and the vital signs indicating Cushing's triad.
In a client with a severe traumatic brain injury, the primary goal is reducing the risk of secondary brain injury from increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Hypercapnia (PaCO2PaCO_2 of 52 mm Hg52 \text{ mm Hg}) triggers cerebral vasodilation, adding blood volume to the restricted cranial vault. Sharp neck rotation physically obstructs the jugular veins, preventing venous return and trapping blood in the brain. Finally, a widening pulse pressure combined with bradycardia is the classic presentation of Cushing's triad, indicating a catastrophic rise in ICP and impending brain herniation. All three findings demand immediate medical or nursing intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The client has respiratory acidosis with a high PaCO2 (52 mm Hg52 \text{ mm Hg}).
Elevated carbon dioxide levels are potent cerebral vasodilators. Vasodilation increases blood volume in the brain, directly raising intracranial pressure (ICP) and requiring immediate ventilator adjustments.
2
Assess the client's physical positioning.
The client's neck is sharply rotated to the right.
Neutral midline alignment is required for TBI clients. Rotation or severe flexion of the neck compresses the jugular veins, obstructing venous outflow from the brain and causing a dangerous spike in ICP.
3
Analyze the current vital signs for trends associated with brain injury.
The client exhibits profound hypertension (185/60 mm Hg185/60 \text{ mm Hg}) with a widened pulse pressure (125 mm Hg125 \text{ mm Hg}) and bradycardia (52 beats/min52 \text{ beats/min}).
These specific vital sign changes constitute Cushing's triad, a neurological emergency signaling brainstem compression and impending herniation.
4
Differentiate expected or therapeutic findings from complications.
Normal PaO2, a 30-degree head of bed elevation, and normal urine output are identified as stable or therapeutic parameters.
Intervening on therapeutic or expected findings diverts critical care away from actual life-threatening physiological decompensations.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Prevention and Early Recognition of Increased Intracranial Pressure
Soru 535Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a bowel resection. The client's preoperative blood pressure was 132/78 mm Hg and heart rate was 76 beats/min. The nurse now notes a blood pressure of 108/88 mm Hg, a heart rate of 116 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min, and an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. The client reports incisional pain as 5 on a 0 to 10 scale. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assess the client's surgical dressing and abdominal drains.

Cevap

The priority action is to assess the client's surgical dressing and abdominal drains.
The client is exhibiting early signs of compensatory shock, characterized by tachycardia and a narrowed pulse pressure (108 - 88 = 20 mm Hg). In a postoperative client, this strongly suggests hypovolemia or hemorrhage. The priority is to assess the surgical site and drains for active bleeding to provide critical information to the healthcare provider.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and compare them to the preoperative baseline.
The client has developed significant tachycardia (116 beats/min) and a narrowed pulse pressure (20 mm Hg, down from a baseline of 54 mm Hg).
Identifying trends in vital signs is crucial for detecting clinical deterioration early.
2
Interpret the clinical significance of the vital sign changes.
A narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia in a postoperative client are classic signs of the compensatory stage of hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock.
The body attempts to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion by increasing the heart rate and causing peripheral vasoconstriction (which raises the diastolic blood pressure).
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) framework.
Circulatory assessment is the highest priority to identify the source of potential fluid or blood loss.
Before contacting the healthcare provider, the nurse must assess the surgical site for active bleeding to provide complete, actionable information for further medical interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition of early (compensatory) shock signs and prioritization of care
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 536Soru →

A 54-year-old client with a history of chronic hepatitis C has just returned to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The client's initial vital signs are stable, and they report mild tenderness at the right upper quadrant biopsy site. Which nursing action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of a severe post-procedure complication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assist the client into a right lateral position with a small pillow placed under the costal margin.

Cevap

The correct action is to assist the client into a right lateral position with a small pillow placed under the costal margin.
The correct action applies direct pressure to the biopsy site. The liver is a highly vascular organ, making hemorrhage the most significant immediate risk following a percutaneous biopsy. Positioning the client on their right side (right lateral decubitus) with a small pillow or folded towel under the costal margin compresses the liver capsule against the chest wall, promoting hemostasis and effectively reducing the risk of internal bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and the recent procedure.
The client is a 54-year-old who has just undergone a percutaneous liver biopsy and is experiencing expected mild tenderness.
Understanding the specific invasive procedure identifies the primary physiological risks involved.
2
Identify the most significant and immediate risk associated with a percutaneous liver biopsy.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, making internal hemorrhage the most severe and immediate procedural complication.
Prioritization requires addressing life-threatening complications before managing expected, mild symptoms.
3
Determine the most effective nursing intervention to mitigate this specific risk.
Positioning the client on their right side with a pillow under the costal margin applies direct pressure to the liver capsule.
Direct physical pressure promotes hemostasis and prevents bleeding from the puncture site.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure positioning to prevent hemorrhage following a percutaneous liver biopsy.
Soru 537Soru →

A client admitted with a deep vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin through a single-lumen peripheral catheter. The client is experiencing severe pain from an unrelated surgical incision, and the healthcare provider prescribes an as-needed dose of intravenous morphine. After consulting a drug reference guide and determining that morphine and heparin are chemically incompatible at the Y-site, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter in a different location to administer the prescribed morphine.

Cevap

Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter in a different location to administer the prescribed morphine.
Heparin and morphine are chemically incompatible and cannot be mixed in the same intravenous tubing. When a client has a continuous infusion of a high-alert medication running through a single-lumen catheter, the line should never be paused and flushed to administer another drug. Flushing the tubing would deliver the concentrated heparin resting in the dead space as a rapid, unintended bolus, placing the client at severe risk for hemorrhage. Therefore, the only safe and appropriate action is to establish a second, dedicated peripheral IV site to administer the morphine.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the incompatibility and its clinical implications.
The nurse recognizes that heparin and morphine are chemically incompatible and cannot be mixed in the same IV tubing.
Mixing incompatible medications can cause crystallization and precipitate formation, potentially leading to a harmful embolism or catheter occlusion.
2
Evaluate alternative methods for using the existing IV line.
The nurse determines that pausing the infusion and flushing the line is strictly contraindicated for this specific therapy.
Flushing a line that contains a high-concentration continuous medication (like heparin) inadvertently delivers a rapid bolus of the drug resting in the tubing into the client's bloodstream. It also inappropriately interrupts continuous therapeutic anticoagulation.
3
Establish a safe administration route for the newly prescribed medication.
The nurse inserts a new, separate peripheral IV catheter.
A dedicated secondary access site ensures the client receives immediate pain relief without compromising the safety or efficacy of the high-alert heparin infusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of incompatible medications and management of high-alert continuous infusions
Soru 538Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to a client experiencing severe constipation. Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence from first to last. All options must be used.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct procedural sequence is to first position the client on their left side, lubricate the tubing tip, insert the tube into the rectum, initiate the fluid flow at the appropriate height, and finally, adjust the flow if the client develops cramping.
Administering an enema requires a strict sequence of steps to ensure patient safety and procedure efficacy. Positioning the client on their left side (Sims position) is the first priority to align with colon anatomy. Lubricating the tube must occur immediately before insertion to prevent mucosal tears. Once inserted 3 to 4 inches towards the umbilicus, the nurse elevates the bag (no more than 18 inches) to initiate flow by gravity. Finally, if the client experiences cramping during infusion, the nurse must intervene by lowering the bag or clamping the tubing to slow the flow and relieve spasms.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assist the client into a left lateral (Sims) position.
The client is properly positioned for the procedure.
This position follows the anatomical contour of the descending colon and promotes fluid retention.
2
Apply water-soluble lubricant to the tip of the rectal tube.
The tube tip is slippery and ready for insertion.
Lubrication prevents tissue friction and mucosal injury.
3
Insert the tubing 3 to 4 inches into the rectum.
The tube safely enters the rectal vault.
This precise depth ensures fluid is delivered effectively without risking bowel wall perforation.
4
Elevate the enema bag to a maximum of 18 inches and unclamp.
Fluid begins to flow into the colon via gravity.
Holding the bag at this height ensures a safe, steady flow rate.
5
Lower the container or clamp the tubing if the client experiences cramping.
The flow rate decreases or pauses.
This mitigates patient discomfort and intestinal spasms without abandoning the procedure entirely.

Anahtar Kavram

Procedural Sequence: Cleansing Enema Administration
Soru 539Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client is newly prescribed a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) ceftriaxone. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Insert a peripheral IV catheter to administer the ceftriaxone.

Cevap

The nurse must insert a new peripheral IV catheter to administer the ceftriaxone.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a complex, highly concentrated solution that requires a dedicated intravenous line. It should never be mixed with other medications due to a high risk of chemical and physical incompatibility (precipitation). Furthermore, the high dextrose concentration in TPN means the infusion must run continuously; pausing it to administer another medication places the client at severe risk for rebound hypoglycemia. Because the client has a single-lumen PICC currently dedicated to TPN, the only safe and appropriate action is to establish a separate peripheral IV site for the administration of the scheduled antibiotic.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current IV access and prescribed therapy.
The client has a single-lumen PICC currently dedicated to a continuous TPN infusion.
Understanding existing line constraints is essential for safe medication administration.
2
Recall the standard administration guidelines for TPN.
TPN requires a dedicated IV line and should never be interrupted or mixed with other medications.
TPN solutions are highly complex and incompatible with most medications, and abrupt cessation can cause hypoglycemia.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the newly prescribed IV antibiotic.
Since the existing central line cannot be used or paused, a new peripheral IV access must be established.
A separate IV line ensures the antibiotic is administered safely and on time without disrupting the continuous TPN supply.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Administration Safety
Soru 540Soru →

A nurse is preparing to remove a client's non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC). To minimize the risk of a potential air embolism and ensure client safety, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for removing a central venous catheter is to first position the client supine, then have them perform the Valsalva maneuver, withdraw the catheter, apply immediate pressure, and finally secure an occlusive dressing.
To reduce the risk of an air embolism during central line removal, the nurse must ensure that central venous pressure remains higher than atmospheric pressure. This is achieved sequentially by patient positioning, active breathing techniques, safe withdrawal, and immediate mechanical sealing of the tract.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the client flat in a supine or slight Trendelenburg position.
Central venous pressure is increased.
This prevents gravity from drawing air into the vein during removal.
2
Instruct the client to take a deep breath and bear down (Valsalva maneuver).
Intrathoracic pressure is elevated.
Higher intrathoracic pressure prevents atmospheric air from entering the central circulation.
3
Withdraw the catheter smoothly and continuously.
The catheter is removed from the vein.
Doing this while the client bears down ensures the tract is open only during positive pressure.
4
Apply immediate, firm pressure to the insertion site using sterile gauze.
Hemostasis is promoted and the tract is covered.
This prevents bleeding and immediately blocks any air entry.
5
Secure an airtight, occlusive dressing over the insertion site.
The insertion site is completely sealed.
This provides a long-term barrier against air entry and infection while the skin tract heals.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe removal of a central venous catheter requires maintaining positive intrathoracic pressure to reduce the risk of a life-threatening air embolism.
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