Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 21Soru →

A nurse receives the shift report for a group of assigned clients on a medical-surgical trauma unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate assessment and intervention?

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Cevap: A client with blunt abdominal trauma whose heart rate has steadily increased from 82 to 114 beats per minute over the past hour.

Cevap

The client with blunt abdominal trauma and a steadily increasing heart rate requires immediate assessment.
The correct answer describes a client exhibiting a classic early sign of hypovolemic shock (tachycardia) following blunt abdominal trauma. The sympathetic nervous system increases the heart rate to maintain cardiac output as blood volume decreases from internal hemorrhage. This is a life-threatening physiological crisis requiring immediate intervention to stabilize the client's circulation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the clinical data for the client with blunt abdominal trauma.
The heart rate has increased significantly from 82 to 114 beats per minute, which is a cardinal early sign of compensatory shock.
Trauma clients are at high risk for covert internal bleeding, such as a splenic or hepatic laceration.
2
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) for the client with COPD.
A pH of 7.36 (normal), PaCO2 of 54 (high), and HCO3 of 30 (high) indicates a fully compensated respiratory acidosis.
Recognizing chronic baseline compensation prevents the nurse from mistaking a stable chronic condition for an acute respiratory emergency.
3
Assess the positioning of the post-cardiac catheterization client.
The client is flat and supine, which is the medically prescribed position to prevent femoral artery bleeding.
Correct positioning confirms the client's current status is safe and expected.
4
Compare all clients to determine the highest priority based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The trauma client with progressive tachycardia has an acute circulation threat, making them the absolute highest priority.
Prioritization requires identifying acute, life-threatening changes over expected or stable chronic findings.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritizing Acute Physiological Decompensation over Expected Chronic Findings
Soru 22Soru →

A nurse is providing care for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache. Upon assessment, the nurse notes profuse diaphoresis on the client's face and neck, severe facial flushing, a blood pressure of 218/114 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 52 beats/min. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter in place. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority, from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence of actions for managing autonomic dysreflexia is: elevate the head of the bed, loosen restrictive clothing, assess the urinary catheter for kinks, administer a prescribed antihypertensive medication if symptoms persist, and finally document the event.
In autonomic dysreflexia, a massive uncompensated cardiovascular reaction occurs mediated by the sympathetic nervous system. The immediate priority is to lower the blood pressure to prevent a stroke, which is achieved first by utilizing gravity (elevating the head of the bed). Following this immediate safety measure, the nurse systematically removes potential triggers, starting with quick external checks (loosening clothing) and then checking the most common internal cause (bladder distention). Medical intervention with antihypertensives follows if these steps fail, and administrative tasks like documentation always come last.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed to a sitting or high Fowler's position.
Induces orthostatic hypotension.
This is the most rapid way to lower the blood pressure and prevent a catastrophic complication like a stroke.
2
Loosen any constrictive clothing or devices.
Removes superficial noxious stimuli.
Tight clothing can act as a trigger for the exaggerated sympathetic response.
3
Assess the urinary system by checking the indwelling catheter for kinks.
Identifies and resolves potential bladder distention.
Bladder distention is the leading cause of autonomic dysreflexia. Restoring urine flow removes the primary noxious stimulus.
4
Administer a rapid-acting antihypertensive medication.
Pharmacologically reduces blood pressure.
This is indicated if conservative measures (removing stimuli) fail to resolve the hypertensive crisis.
5
Document the event and response.
Creates a formal clinical record.
Documentation is essential but must be deferred until the life-threatening crisis is managed.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Autonomic Dysreflexia (Hyperreflexia)
Soru 23Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted 12 hours ago with severe acute pancreatitis. The client's current assessment reveals pale, diaphoretic skin and a total urine output of 25 mL over the past two hours. Current vital signs are: blood pressure 84/50 mm Hg, heart rate 136 beats/min, and respiratory rate 28 breaths/min. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 15 mEq/L. What is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Infuse a prescribed rapid bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

The correct action is to rapidly infuse isotonic fluids to treat the underlying hypovolemic shock caused by third-spacing.
The client is experiencing severe hypovolemic shock as a result of massive retroperitoneal fluid shifts (third-spacing) characteristic of severe acute pancreatitis. The hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and resulting lactic acidosis (demonstrated by the ABG values) require immediate intravascular volume expansion. Isotonic crystalloid infusion is the primary life-saving action to restore perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs and clinical assessment data.
The client exhibits severe hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and diaphoresis, which are classic signs of hypovolemic shock due to severe third-spacing common in acute pancreatitis.
Identifying the primary physiological derangement dictates the urgency and type of intervention required.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical picture.
The ABG shows a metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3-) with partial respiratory compensation (low PaCO2). This is lactic acidosis resulting from inadequate cellular perfusion.
Understanding the etiology of the acid-base imbalance prevents inappropriate interventions that only treat the lab values.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention using the ABCs and principles of shock management.
Restoring intravascular circulating volume (Circulation) with isotonic fluids is the definitive first-line treatment to reverse the hypoperfusion and correct the secondary acidosis.
Without adequate fluid volume, other interventions (like vasopressors) are ineffective and potentially harmful.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of hypovolemic shock and third-spacing in acute pancreatitis
Soru 24Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who was intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation 22 hours ago for acute respiratory failure. Current assessment findings include a heart rate of 132132 bpm, blood pressure of 86/5286/52 mm Hg, and cool, pale extremities. The latest arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.267.26, PaCO2PaCO_2 6262 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 2525 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 5858 mm Hg. Based on these assessment findings, which of the following clinical judgments and nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Analyze the arterial blood gas values as indicative of an uncompensated acid-base imbalance of respiratory origin.; Recognize the vital signs and peripheral assessment findings as clinical indicators of a shock state.

Cevap

The correct clinical judgments are concluding that the ABG demonstrates an uncompensated acidotic state of respiratory origin and recognizing the vital signs as indicators of a shock state.
The arterial blood gas results show a pH less than 7.357.35 and a PaCO2PaCO_2 greater than 4545 mm Hg, which indicates an acidotic state of respiratory origin. Because the bicarbonate (HCO3−HCO_3^-) level is within the normal range of 22−2622-26 mEq/L, there is no metabolic compensation. Furthermore, the combination of tachycardia, hypotension, and cool, pale extremities strongly indicates inadequate tissue perfusion and compensatory vasoconstriction, which are classic early signs of a shock state.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH is 7.267.26 (acidosis), PaCO2PaCO_2 is 6262 mm Hg (respiratory origin), and HCO3−HCO_3^- is 2525 mEq/L (normal, indicating it is uncompensated).
To determine the client's acid-base status and evaluate the effectiveness of the mechanical ventilation.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic parameters and physical assessment findings.
Heart rate is 132132 bpm, blood pressure is 86/5286/52 mm Hg, and extremities are cool and pale.
To identify signs of inadequate tissue perfusion or impending cardiovascular collapse.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine appropriate clinical conclusions and interventions.
The client has an uncompensated respiratory acid-base imbalance and is exhibiting signs of a shock state.
To prioritize care and avoid harmful interventions, such as elevating the head of the bed during severe hypotension.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of shock and accurate interpretation of uncompensated acid-base imbalances are critical for prioritizing interventions and preventing hemodynamic collapse in mechanically ventilated clients.
Soru 25Soru →

A nurse assumes care for a client with severe Crohn's disease who is malnourished and receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client's current vital signs are stable, and the continuous infusion is running on an electronic pump. Which of the following nursing actions must be included in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Monitor the client's capillary blood glucose levels at regular intervals of every 4 to 6 hours.; Replace the parenteral nutrition administration tubing and inline filter every 24 hours.; Verify the specific macronutrient and micronutrient ingredients on the dispensed solution label against the provider's prescription.

Cevap

The correct actions are to monitor capillary blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours, replace the administration tubing and filter every 24 hours, and verify the specific ingredients on the label against the provider's prescription.
Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a complex, high-alert therapy requiring meticulous nursing management. Because TPN solutions contain high concentrations of dextrose, clients are at significant risk for therapy-induced blood glucose fluctuations; therefore, routine capillary blood glucose monitoring every 4 to 6 hours is essential. The high glucose and lipid content also creates an ideal medium for bacterial growth, necessitating the strict replacement of the entire administration set and inline filter every 24 hours. Furthermore, due to the highly customized nature of the solution, the nurse must meticulously verify all specific macro- and micronutrients on the bag's label against the original prescription to prevent critical compounding errors.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the prescribed therapy and its associated risks.
The client is receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) via a central line, which carries significant metabolic, infectious, and compatibility risks.
Recognizing the high-alert nature of TPN guides the prioritization of safety protocols.
2
Evaluate the correct options based on TPN standards of care.
Monitoring blood glucose, verifying exact ingredients, and changing tubing every 24 hours are standard safety protocols.
These specific actions mitigate the inherent risks of hyperglycemia, medication compounding errors, and central line-associated bloodstream infections.
3
Identify and exclude the incorrect nursing actions.
Delegating the site assessment, mixing medications in the line, and increasing the rate to catch up are identified as unsafe.
These actions directly violate delegation guidelines, intravenous compatibility rules, and critical fluid/electrolyte safety limits.

Anahtar Kavram

Parenteral Nutrition Administration and Monitoring
Soru 26Soru →

The nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client. Arrange the following procedural steps in the correct chronological order.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first position the client, then lubricate the tubing, insert the tubing into the rectum, elevate the container to the correct height, and finally unclamp the tubing to instill the solution.
The chronological sequence prioritizes client safety and procedural efficacy. First, the client must be anatomically positioned to receive the fluid. Next, the equipment is prepared for insertion by lubricating the tip. The tube is then carefully inserted into the rectum. After placement is secured, the container is elevated to create the correct hydrostatic pressure before unclamping the flow.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assist the client into the left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed.
The client's descending colon is positioned lower than the rectum.
This utilizes gravity to help the enema solution flow deeper into the colon.
2
Lubricate the distal 2 to 3 inches (5 to 7.5 cm) of the enema tubing.
The tip of the tube becomes slick.
Lubrication reduces friction, preventing mucosal injury during insertion.
3
Direct the tubing toward the umbilicus and gently insert it 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm).
The tube enters the rectum without meeting resistance.
This angle follows the anatomical curvature of the lower bowel, ensuring safe and effective placement.
4
Elevate the enema container 12 to 18 inches (30 to 45 cm) above the client's anus.
Hydrostatic pressure is established.
This height provides a safe flow rate. Holding it higher could cause rapid instillation and painful cramping.
5
Unclamp the tubing to allow the solution to flow slowly into the rectum.
The solution enters the bowel.
This initiates the therapeutic intervention once all safety measures are in place.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of a large-volume enema requires a systematic approach prioritizing anatomical alignment, prevention of tissue trauma, and controlled fluid pressure.
Soru 27Soru →

While receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC), a client suddenly develops a high fever. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate dose of intravenous ceftriaxone. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

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Cevap: Insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the antibiotic.

Cevap

The correct action is to establish a new, separate peripheral intravenous catheter for the administration of the antibiotic to maintain the dedicated TPN line.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain high concentrations of dextrose, amino acids, and potentially lipids, making them highly incompatible with most medications. Additionally, the high glucose content makes the TPN line a prime site for bacterial growth. Evidence-based practice mandates that TPN must be infused through a dedicated line. Therefore, establishing a separate peripheral IV access is required to administer the prescribed antibiotic safely without interrupting or compromising the TPN line.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the current intravenous therapy and access.
The client has a single-lumen PICC line currently infusing TPN.
Assessing current access determines if it can be safely used for newly prescribed medications.
2
Evaluate the compatibility and safety guidelines for TPN administration.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated line and cannot be mixed or paused for other medications.
The high dextrose and amino acid content in TPN creates a high risk for drug precipitation and bacterial growth.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the newly prescribed intravenous antibiotic.
A new peripheral IV site must be established.
This preserves the dedicated TPN line while ensuring the client receives the necessary medication promptly.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a strictly dedicated intravenous line.
Soru 28Soru →

A client with an intra-abdominal infection is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of metronidazole. The client reports severe nausea, and the healthcare provider prescribes a dose of intravenous ondansetron. The client has a single peripheral intravenous line. After consulting a pharmacological reference, the nurse identifies that metronidazole and ondansetron are incompatible at the Y-site. Which action should the nurse take to safely administer the prescribed antiemetic?

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Cevap: Pause the continuous infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the ondansetron, flush the line again, and resume the continuous infusion.

Cevap

Pause the continuous infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the ondansetron, flush the line again, and resume the continuous infusion.
When an intravenous medication must be administered through a line currently infusing an incompatible solution, the nurse must prevent the two substances from mixing. If the primary infusion can be safely paused (as is the case with most continuous antibiotics), the standard procedure is to stop the pump, flush the line with a compatible fluid like 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the secondary medication, and flush the line again before resuming the primary infusion. This technique effectively clears the tubing and maintains parenteral safety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the incompatibility between the continuous metronidazole infusion and the prescribed intravenous ondansetron.
Recognize that the two medications cannot mix in the intravenous tubing.
Mixing incompatible medications can cause crystallization or precipitation, which can lead to a loss of drug efficacy or a dangerous embolism.
2
Evaluate the clinical safety of pausing the primary infusion.
Determine that pausing an antibiotic infusion for a few minutes is clinically safe and acceptable.
Unlike continuous vasopressors or antiarrhythmics, antibiotics do not cause immediate hemodynamic instability if briefly paused.
3
Execute the flush-administer-flush protocol.
Clear the line with a compatible solution (e.g., normal saline), administer the antiemetic, and clear the line again before restarting the primary infusion.
This physical separation ensures the incompatible drugs never come into contact with each other.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Safe Administration Practices
Soru 29Soru →

A client admitted with septic shock is currently receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of pantoprazole through a single peripheral IV catheter. The client's blood pressure drops to 74/42 mmHg74/42\text{ mmHg} with a heart rate of 122 bpm122\text{ bpm}, prompting the healthcare provider to prescribe a stat continuous IV infusion of norepinephrine. Upon checking a pharmacological reference, the nurse discovers that norepinephrine and pantoprazole are incompatible at the Y-site. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Pause the pantoprazole, flush the IV catheter with normal saline, and immediately initiate the norepinephrine.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to pause the pantoprazole infusion, thoroughly flush the intravenous catheter with normal saline, and immediately initiate the norepinephrine infusion.
The client is experiencing profound hypotension associated with septic shock and urgently requires vasopressor support to maintain tissue perfusion. When two incompatible medications are ordered for a client with single intravenous access, the nurse must prioritize the life-saving drug. Pantoprazole (a proton pump inhibitor) can be safely paused while the emergency vasopressor is initiated. The line must be thoroughly flushed with a compatible solution, such as normal saline, before and after the change to prevent chemical precipitation in the tubing or catheter.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's clinical status and recognize the immediate life-threatening priority.
The client's blood pressure of 74/42 mmHg indicates severe hemodynamic instability requiring urgent intervention.
Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABC) prioritization dictates that life-threatening shock must be addressed before routine or prophylactic therapies.
2
Evaluate the intravenous access and medication compatibility.
The client has only one patent IV line, and the required life-saving norepinephrine is incompatible with the currently infusing pantoprazole.
Co-administering incompatible medications can cause dangerous chemical precipitation, leading to catheter occlusion or fatal emboli.
3
Execute the safest and most rapid intervention to restore systemic circulation.
The non-critical pantoprazole infusion is paused, the line is flushed with compatible normal saline, and the norepinephrine is initiated.
This action immediately delivers the critical vasopressor without risking chemical incompatibility. A secondary IV line can be established subsequently without delaying life-saving care.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of life-saving intravenous therapies and emergency management of drug incompatibilities.
Soru 30Soru →

A nurse evaluates a client with distributive shock who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine through a peripheral venous catheter in the right forearm. The nurse observes that the skin around the insertion site is severely blanched, cold to the touch, and edematous. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Stop the norepinephrine infusion immediately.; Attach a syringe to the IV hub and aspirate residual medication.; Prepare to administer prescribed subcutaneous phentolamine around the affected site.

Cevap

The correct actions are to stop the infusion immediately, attach a syringe to aspirate any residual medication, and prepare to administer subcutaneous phentolamine.
Norepinephrine is a potent vesicant that causes severe vasoconstriction, leading to localized tissue ischemia and necrosis if extravasation occurs. The immediate priorities are to stop the infusion to halt further infiltration, aspirate any residual drug from the catheter to minimize tissue exposure, and prepare to administer an alpha-adrenergic antagonist, such as phentolamine, into the surrounding tissues to induce vasodilation and restore perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify signs of vesicant extravasation.
The nurse recognizes blanching, coldness, and edema as indicators of norepinephrine tissue infiltration.
Norepinephrine is a severe vesicant that causes intense vasoconstriction, requiring immediate intervention to prevent tissue necrosis.
2
Halt the medication delivery.
The norepinephrine infusion is stopped immediately.
Stopping the pump prevents any additional vesicant from entering the subcutaneous tissue.
3
Evacuate the remaining medication.
A syringe is used to aspirate residual drug from the catheter hub while leaving the catheter in place.
Aspiration removes the vesicant without pushing it further into the tissue, minimizing damage and maintaining a route if intravenous antidote administration is required by protocol.
4
Administer the specific antidote.
Phentolamine is prepared for subcutaneous injection around the site.
Phentolamine reverses the severe localized vasoconstriction and ischemia caused by the extravasated norepinephrine.

Anahtar Kavram

Vesicant Extravasation Management
Soru 31Soru →

A nurse is assisting a healthcare provider with a bedside thoracentesis for a client diagnosed with a right-sided pleural effusion. Which nursing actions are appropriate to reduce the risk of procedural complications? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Ensure the client is positioned upright, leaning forward with arms resting on an overbed table.; Instruct the client to refrain from coughing, taking deep breaths, or talking during needle insertion.; Verify that the client's most recent coagulation studies and platelet count have been evaluated prior to the procedure.

Cevap

The correct actions include positioning the client upright and leaning forward, instructing them to avoid coughing or deep breathing, and verifying coagulation studies prior to the procedure.
To reduce the risk of potential complications during a thoracentesis, the nurse must ensure interventions promote safe access to the pleural space, prevent bleeding, and monitor for respiratory distress. Positioning the client upright and leaning forward widens the intercostal spaces. Instructing the client to avoid moving or coughing prevents the needle from puncturing the lung. Verifying coagulation studies minimizes the risk of severe bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the procedure and its inherent risks.
Identify that a thoracentesis involves inserting a needle into the pleural space, carrying high risks for lung puncture, bleeding, and respiratory decompensation.
Understanding potential complications guides the prioritization of clinical safety measures.
2
Evaluate pre-procedure and positioning interventions.
Upright positioning expands intercostal spaces safely; verifying coagulation labs prevents excessive bleeding.
These actions directly reduce anatomical and physiological risks associated with needle insertion.
3
Evaluate intra-procedure and post-procedure priorities.
The RN must directly monitor the client's stability, and immediate post-procedure focus must be on respiratory status (ABCs), not peripheral pulses.
Ensures early detection of life-threatening complications such as tension pneumothorax or hypovolemic shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Thoracentesis Risk Reduction and Safety
Soru 32Soru →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for an adult client recovering from a right-sided cerebrovascular accident (stroke), which has resulted in left-sided hemiplegia and dysphagia. Which basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Position the client upright at 90 degrees with the chin tucked slightly downward during meals.; Support the affected left arm with pillows while the client is resting in a chair.; Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the affected extremities to maintain joint mobility.

Cevap

The correct interventions are positioning the client upright with the chin tucked during meals, supporting the affected arm with pillows, and performing passive range-of-motion exercises.
Providing basic care for a client with stroke-related deficits focuses on safety, maintaining physical function, and promoting comfort. Upright positioning with a chin tuck is essential for safe swallowing and aspiration prevention. Supporting the hemiplegic arm prevents painful shoulder subluxation. Finally, passive range-of-motion exercises maintain joint mobility and prevent contractures in the paralyzed limbs.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has a right-sided CVA resulting in left-sided hemiplegia and dysphagia.
Identifying the specific physical and neurological deficits determines the necessary basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Evaluate the proposed interventions for dysphagia management.
Upright positioning with a chin tuck is required to prevent aspiration; delegating initial assessment and utilizing supine positioning post-meals are unsafe and contraindicated.
Dysphagia significantly increases aspiration risk, dictating safe feeding practices, RN-led assessments, and appropriate positioning.
3
Evaluate the proposed interventions for hemiplegia and immobility.
Supporting the affected arm and performing passive ROM are correct; immediate application of restraints without alternatives is inappropriate.
Immobile limbs require physical support and consistent movement to prevent contractures, avoid subluxation, and promote overall comfort.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care and comfort for a client with hemiplegia and dysphagia involves strict airway protection during and after feeding, joint mobility maintenance, and safe delegation practices.
Soru 33Soru →

A client who underwent the surgical creation of a descending colostomy two days ago reports abdominal discomfort and asks for assistance with pouch maintenance before going to sleep. Which nursing action is most appropriate to promote the client's comfort and physical hygiene?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Empty the ostomy appliance when it is one-third to one-half full to prevent the weight of the effluent from pulling on the skin barrier.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to empty the ostomy appliance when it is one-third to one-half full.
Emptying the ostomy appliance before it becomes too full (typically at one-third to one-half capacity) is a fundamental comfort and hygiene measure. As the pouch fills with effluent and gas, it becomes heavy. This added weight can pull on the adhesive skin barrier, leading to a compromised seal, leakage of acidic stool onto the sensitive peristomal skin, and significant physical discomfort. Maintaining a lighter pouch before sleep ensures the skin remains protected, the seal stays intact, and the client can rest comfortably.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's primary needs based on the clinical scenario.
The client requires comfort measures and ostomy pouch maintenance two days post-surgery.
Understanding the timeline (2 days post-op) highlights the vulnerability of the new stoma and the surgical incision.
2
Evaluate the positioning intervention for safety.
Prone positioning is determined to be unsafe.
Lying on the abdomen places direct pressure on the newly created stoma and incision, which would increase pain and risk tissue damage.
3
Evaluate the delegation intervention for scope of practice compliance.
Delegating the stoma assessment is outside the UAP's scope of practice.
Evaluating stoma color and skin integrity requires specialized nursing judgment and must be performed by the registered nurse.
4
Evaluate the communication approach.
The statement is non-therapeutic and dismissive.
Using 'why' questions induces defensiveness, and telling the client they will 'get used to it' minimizes their current discomfort.
5
Determine the safest and most effective comfort measure.
Emptying the pouch at one-third to one-half capacity is the correct action.
This prevents the appliance from becoming excessively heavy, which protects the skin barrier seal and prevents irritating leaks.

Anahtar Kavram

Ostomy Pouch Maintenance and Client Comfort
Soru 34Soru →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings and is on bedrest due to generalized weakness. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to promote basic care, comfort, and safety? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Maintain the head of the bed at an elevation of 30 to 45 degrees at all times.; Provide comprehensive oral hygiene every 4 hours using a soft-bristled toothbrush.; Apply a moisture barrier ointment to the perineal skin after each incontinent episode.

Cevap

The correct interventions are maintaining the head of the bed at an elevation of 30 to 45 degrees, providing comprehensive oral hygiene every 4 hours, and applying a moisture barrier ointment to the perineal skin.
Maintaining the head of the bed elevated prevents aspiration of continuous enteral feedings. Providing frequent oral hygiene keeps the mucosa moist and intact, while applying a moisture barrier protects the skin from breakdown due to incontinence. These actions directly support basic care, comfort, and physiological safety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and risks.
The client is an older adult on bedrest receiving continuous enteral tube feedings, placing them at high risk for aspiration, skin breakdown, and poor oral hygiene.
Identifying the client's risk factors determines the appropriate basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety and clinical appropriateness.
Head elevation, oral care, and moisture barriers are safe and indicated. Flat positioning, delegating assessments, and dismissing new incontinence are unsafe or incorrect actions.
Nursing interventions must align with standard practice guidelines and the legal scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care and comfort for a client on continuous enteral feedings requires interventions that maintain skin integrity, promote oral health, and prevent aspiration without compromising safety or proper delegation.
Soru 35Soru →

An order is written for liquid acetaminophen at 15 mg/kg15 \text{ mg/kg} per dose for a toddler who weighs 16 kg16 \text{ kg}. The medication bottle is labeled 160 mg/5 mL160 \text{ mg}/5 \text{ mL}. Calculate the total volume in mL\text{mL} that should be administered for a single dose. (Record your answer to one decimal place.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 7.5

Cevap

7.5
The correct dose is found in two steps. First, find the total mg needed by multiplying the toddler's weight (16 kg16 \text{ kg}) by the prescribed amount (15 mg/kg15 \text{ mg/kg}), which equals 240 mg240 \text{ mg}. Second, use the concentration of the liquid medication to find the volume. Dividing the desired dose (240 mg240 \text{ mg}) by the on-hand dose (160 mg160 \text{ mg}) and multiplying by the volume (5 mL5 \text{ mL}) yields exactly 7.5 mL7.5 \text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the total required dose in milligrams.
16 kg×15 mg/kg=240 mg16 \text{ kg} \times 15 \text{ mg/kg} = 240 \text{ mg}
The prescription is weight-based, meaning the patient's exact weight must be multiplied by the prescribed weight-based dosage.
2
Determine the required liquid volume using the supplied medication concentration.
(240 mg/160 mg)×5 mL=7.5 mL(240 \text{ mg} / 160 \text{ mg}) \times 5 \text{ mL} = 7.5 \text{ mL}
Using the standard formula (Desired Dose / Available Dose) × Available Volume, the calculated milligram requirement is converted into the volume to be administered.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based pediatric dosage calculation
Soru 36Soru →

A critical care nurse is managing a client diagnosed with acute respiratory failure who is receiving mechanical ventilation. The laboratory reports the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 62 mm Hg, PaO2 55 mm Hg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L. To reduce the risk of further physiological deterioration, which of the following interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Auscultate breath sounds and assess oxygen saturation prior to initiating endotracheal suctioning; Maintain the client's upper body in a semi-Fowler's alignment to prevent ventilator-associated complications

Cevap

The appropriate interventions are to auscultate breath sounds prior to endotracheal suctioning and to maintain the client's upper body in a semi-Fowler's alignment.
The correct actions focus on evidence-based risk reduction strategies for mechanically ventilated clients. Assessing lung sounds before suctioning prevents unnecessary trauma and hypoxia, while maintaining an elevated upper body reduces the risk of aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia. These actions directly mitigate physiological risks.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The pH is 7.28 (acidosis), PaCO2 is 62 mm Hg (respiratory), and HCO3 is 24 mEq/L (normal), indicating uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Accurate interpretation dictates the correct clinical interventions and prevents the administration of inappropriate treatments like sodium bicarbonate.
2
Evaluate positioning requirements for a mechanically ventilated client.
The client requires an elevated upper body.
A semi-Fowler's alignment reduces the risk of aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia, whereas a flat position is contraindicated.
3
Apply the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) prioritization framework.
Airway and ventilation issues must be addressed before routine care.
A high-pressure ventilator alarm indicates a life-threatening airway compromise that takes absolute precedence over hygiene.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization and risk reduction in mechanically ventilated clients, including accurate ABG interpretation and implementation of ventilator safety bundles.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 37Soru →

While a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) is infusing, the client suddenly develops severe lower back pain, dyspnea, and visible shivering. The nurse suspects an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct chronological order of priority. (Place the first action at the top and the last action at the bottom.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, then disconnect the blood tubing, attach new tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride, assess the client's status, notify the provider and blood bank, and finally send the equipment to the blood bank for testing.
The correct sequence prioritizes immediate patient safety by stopping the administration of the offending agent, physically disconnecting it, and securing venous access with a new line. Only after these lifesaving actions are complete should the nurse gather assessment data to communicate with the medical team, and finally preserve the evidence for laboratory investigation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the blood transfusion.
The infusion of the potentially incompatible blood product is halted.
This is the most critical first step to prevent further physiological harm to a client experiencing an acute hemolytic reaction.
2
Disconnect the blood administration set from the intravenous hub.
The source of the incompatible blood is physically separated from the client's vascular access.
This prevents inadvertently pushing the remaining blood in the tubing into the client during the subsequent flush.
3
Attach a new intravenous tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride.
A patent intravenous line is secured with a compatible isotonic fluid.
Intravenous access must be maintained for potential emergency interventions, fluid resuscitation, and blood pressure support.
4
Assess the client's vital signs and clinical status.
Objective data regarding the severity of the reaction is gathered.
The nurse must evaluate the client's respiratory, hemodynamic, and neurological status to provide accurate and current information to the healthcare provider.
5
Notify the primary healthcare provider and the blood bank.
The medical team is alerted, and further emergency orders can be obtained.
The provider needs the assessment data to prescribe interventions (e.g., epinephrine, vasopressors, antihistamines), and the blood bank must initiate a reaction investigation.
6
Send the discontinued blood bag and administration set to the blood bank.
The suspected blood product is transported for laboratory analysis.
Testing the remaining blood and tubing is required to confirm the type of reaction, such as an ABO incompatibility.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 38Soru →

A client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism has a documented admission weight of 187 lbs. The healthcare provider orders a continuous intravenous (IV) heparin infusion at a dose of 18 units/kg/hr. The pharmacy dispenses an IV bag containing 25,000 units of heparin in 250 mL of 5% dextrose in water. Calculate the required infusion pump rate in mL/hr. (Round the answer to the nearest tenth.)

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Cevap: 15.3

Cevap

15.3
To safely administer a weight-based continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse must first establish the client's weight in kilograms (187 lbs÷2.2=85187 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 85 kg). The weight is then multiplied by the ordered dose to find the hourly medication requirement (85 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1530 units/hr85 \text{ kg} \times 18 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 1530 \text{ units/hr}). Finally, the nurse determines the fluid volume needed to deliver this dose by dividing the hourly requirement by the concentration of the IV solution (25,000 units÷250 mL=100 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 100 \text{ units/mL}). Therefore, 1530 units/hr÷100 units/mL=15.3 mL/hr1530 \text{ units/hr} \div 100 \text{ units/mL} = 15.3 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert weight to kilograms.
85 kg
The prescribed dose is weight-based in kg, so the client's weight in lbs must be converted by dividing by 2.2.
2
Calculate the hourly heparin dose.
1530 units/hr
Multiplying the client's weight in kg by the prescribed hourly dose of 18 units/kg/hr provides the total required units per hour.
3
Calculate the volume rate of the infusion.
15.3 mL/hr
Dividing the required hourly dose (1530 units/hr) by the medication concentration (100 units/mL) yields the infusion pump rate in mL/hr.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-Based Intravenous Medication Calculation

Alternatif Yöntem

Dimensional analysis can be used to set up the entire equation in one continuous step: 18 unitskg⋅hr×1 kg2.2 lbs×187 lbs×250 mL25,000 units=15.3 mL/hr\frac{18 \text{ units}}{\text{kg} \cdot \text{hr}} \times \frac{1 \text{ kg}}{2.2 \text{ lbs}} \times 187 \text{ lbs} \times \frac{250 \text{ mL}}{25,000 \text{ units}} = 15.3 \text{ mL/hr}.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 39Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous regular insulin infusion for the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client's current blood glucose level is 240240 mg/dL (13.313.3 mmol/L). Which laboratory finding poses the greatest risk for a physiological complication and requires immediate intervention?

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Cevap: Serum potassium level of 3.13.1 mEq/L (3.13.1 mmol/L)

Cevap

The correct finding that requires immediate intervention is the serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L (3.1 mmol/L).
Intravenous regular insulin effectively lowers blood glucose levels by allowing glucose to enter the cells. However, a major physiological consequence of this therapy is that it actively drives potassium out of the intravascular space and into the intracellular space, rapidly depleting serum potassium levels. A serum potassium level of 3.13.1 mEq/L indicates clinically significant hypokalemia (normal range is 3.53.5 to 5.05.0 mEq/L). Because severe hypokalemia places the client at an immediate risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (such as ventricular fibrillation), the nurse must promptly intervene by alerting the provider and preparing to administer supplemental intravenous potassium to reduce the risk of a fatal complication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the physiological effect of the prescribed therapy (intravenous insulin) on the client's cellular metabolism.
Intravenous insulin drives glucose out of the bloodstream and into the cells, but it also actively drives potassium into the intracellular space.
Understanding the side effects of DKA treatment is critical to anticipating potential complications.
2
Evaluate the provided laboratory values against normal reference ranges.
The potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is critically below the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L, indicating hypokalemia.
Identifying which lab values are outside normal limits is the first step in clinical decision-making.
3
Prioritize the abnormal findings based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and immediate threat to life.
Hypokalemia poses a severe and immediate risk for fatal cardiac dysrhythmias (Circulation), making it the highest priority over expected dehydration or resolving acidosis.
Risk reduction requires the nurse to address the most acutely life-threatening complication first.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Anticipating and managing treatment-induced hypokalemia during Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) management.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 40Soru →

An adult client is receiving care in the intensive care unit for massive gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Despite aggressive fluid resuscitation, the bleeding persists. Which assessment findings suggest that the client has entered the progressive (uncompensated) stage of hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 54 mm Hg54\text{ mm Hg}; Arterial blood gas demonstrating a pH of 7.227.22 and an HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- of 14 mEq/L14\text{ mEq/L}; Urine output of 10 mL/hr10\text{ mL/hr} over the past two hours

Cevap

The findings indicating the progressive stage of hypovolemic shock are a MAP of 54 mm Hg, an ABG showing metabolic acidosis (pH 7.22, HCO3- 14 mEq/L), and severe oliguria (10 mL/hr).
The progressive (uncompensated) stage of shock is characterized by the failure of compensatory mechanisms to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. A mean arterial pressure (MAP) below 65 mm Hg65\text{ mm Hg} indicates significant hypotension and loss of hemodynamic compensation. Tissue hypoxia forces cells into anaerobic metabolism, producing lactic acid and resulting in severe metabolic acidosis (pH 7.227.22, HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- 14 mEq/L14\text{ mEq/L}). Additionally, severe vasoconstriction and hypoperfusion to the kidneys cause profound oliguria, such as a urine output of 10 mL/hr10\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical scenario.
The client has a severe hemorrhage leading to hypovolemia. The task is to identify signs of progressive (uncompensated) shock.
Understanding the sequential stages of shock is necessary to differentiate early compensatory signs from late progressive signs.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic parameters.
A MAP below 65 mm Hg (e.g., 54 mm Hg) indicates failure of compensatory mechanisms and inadequate tissue perfusion.
Compensatory mechanisms initially maintain blood pressure; profound hypotension marks the transition to the progressive stage.
3
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
A pH of 7.22 with an HCO3- of 14 mEq/L indicates uncompensated metabolic acidosis, typical of progressive shock. A pH of 7.45 indicates alkalosis, which is an early compensatory sign.
Anaerobic metabolism in progressive shock generates lactic acid, leading to severe metabolic acidosis.
4
Assess organ perfusion indicators such as urine output and pulse pressure.
Urine output of 10 mL/hr reflects severe renal hypoperfusion. Pulse pressure typically narrows in hypovolemic shock, not widens.
Oliguria is a classic sign of progressive shock due to the shunting of blood away from the kidneys.

Anahtar Kavram

In the progressive (uncompensated) stage of hypovolemic shock, compensatory mechanisms fail, leading to significant hypotension (MAP < 65 mm Hg), altered tissue perfusion (profound oliguria), and anaerobic metabolism causing metabolic acidosis.
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