Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 421Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous phenytoin to a client who has a seizure disorder and is currently NPO (nothing by mouth). The client has a single peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter with a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) infusing at 75 mL/hr. Which action should the nurse take to safely administer the phenytoin?

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Cevap: Pause the D5W infusion, flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

The nurse must pause the D5W infusion and flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride both before and after administering the phenytoin.
Phenytoin is chemically incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions and will rapidly crystallize or precipitate if they come into contact. The only compatible IV fluid for phenytoin is 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline). When a client has only one IV line infusing an incompatible fluid, the nurse must pause the primary infusion and flush the line thoroughly with normal saline both before and after administering the medication. This clears the tubing of dextrose, creates a safe barrier, and prevents precipitation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the prescribed medication and the currently infusing intravenous fluid.
The medication is phenytoin, and the infusing fluid is 5% dextrose in water (D5W).
Verifying the current infusion is a critical safety step to determine chemical compatibility before giving any IV push medication.
2
Determine the chemical compatibility between the medication and the infusing fluid.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions and will rapidly precipitate if they mix.
Administering incompatible medications can cause catheter occlusion, tissue damage, and potentially fatal emboli.
3
Select the appropriate intervention to safely administer the medication through the existing single IV line.
The nurse must pause the incompatible D5W, flush the line with a compatible solution (0.9% sodium chloride), administer the drug, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride before resuming the D5W.
The normal saline flush acts as a physical barrier in the IV tubing, ensuring the phenytoin never comes into contact with the dextrose.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Safety
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 422Soru →

A telemetry nurse is monitoring a 5858-year-old client who had a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral approach 33 hours ago. The client suddenly complains of a new, constant aching pain in the lower back. The latest vital signs indicate a blood pressure of 96/5496/54 mm Hg (baseline 128/76128/76 mm Hg), a heart rate of 115115 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 2424 breaths/min. An arterial blood gas (ABG) sample drawn on room air shows a pH of 7.477.47, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 3030 mm Hg, PaO2PaO_2 of 9494 mm Hg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2222 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first to mitigate the risk of further physiological deterioration?

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Cevap: Notify the primary healthcare provider and anticipate an order for rapid intravenous fluid expansion.

Cevap

The correct action is to notify the primary healthcare provider immediately and prepare for intravenous fluid resuscitation to manage the suspected retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Post-PCI via the femoral approach, new-onset lower back or flank pain combined with hypotension and tachycardia are hallmark signs of a retroperitoneal hemorrhage. This is a severe, life-threatening bleeding complication. The absolute priority is to alert the healthcare provider and initiate rapid intravascular volume expansion to maintain perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's symptoms and vital sign trends.
The client has new-onset lower back pain, a dropping blood pressure (96/5496/54 mm Hg), and a rising heart rate (115115 beats/min).
Identifying these acute changes is crucial for recognizing early signs of hypovolemic shock.
2
Correlate the physical findings with the recent procedure.
The client underwent a PCI via the femoral artery. Back pain combined with hemodynamic instability strongly indicates retroperitoneal bleeding.
The femoral artery can bleed posteriorly into the retroperitoneal cavity, masking external bleeding while causing significant internal blood loss and referred back pain.
3
Evaluate the ABG results in the clinical context.
The pH (7.477.47) and PaCO2PaCO_2 (3030 mm Hg) indicate an uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
This acid-base imbalance is a secondary compensatory response driven by tachypnea due to shock, pain, and anxiety, not the primary physiological threat.
4
Determine the highest priority intervention to reduce risk.
The nurse must immediately notify the provider and prepare to restore intravascular volume.
Hemorrhagic shock is a medical emergency that requires rapid fluid resuscitation and potential surgical or endovascular intervention to prevent mortality.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Complications of Diagnostic Procedures (Retroperitoneal Hemorrhage)
Soru 423Soru →

A client with a newly diagnosed deep vein thrombosis is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. The client weighs 85 kg85\text{ kg}. The healthcare provider initiates a weight-based heparin protocol, prescribing a continuous intravenous maintenance infusion at 18 units/kg/hr18\text{ units/kg/hr}. The medication arrives from the pharmacy as a premixed IV bag containing 25,000 units25,000\text{ units} of heparin in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 0.45%0.45\% sodium chloride. At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the continuous infusion pump be set? (Round to the nearest whole number).

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 15

Cevap

15
To determine the correct IV pump rate, the client's weight (85 kg85\text{ kg}) is multiplied by the continuous maintenance rate (18 units/kg/hr18\text{ units/kg/hr}) to find the total hourly dose (1530 units/hr1530\text{ units/hr}). Next, the concentration of the supplied IV bag is calculated (25,000 units÷250 mL=100 units/mL25,000\text{ units} \div 250\text{ mL} = 100\text{ units/mL}). Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields 15.3 mL/hr15.3\text{ mL/hr}. According to the provided instructions, rounding to the nearest whole number results in 15 mL/hr15\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the total required units of heparin per hour.
85 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1530 units/hr85\text{ kg} \times 18\text{ units/kg/hr} = 1530\text{ units/hr}.
The maintenance infusion is ordered as a weight-based dose, so the client's total body weight must be multiplied by the prescribed rate.
2
Determine the concentration of the available medication bag.
25,000 units250 mL=100 units/mL\frac{25,000\text{ units}}{250\text{ mL}} = 100\text{ units/mL}.
Finding the amount of units per single mL is necessary to convert the hourly medication dose into an hourly fluid volume.
3
Calculate the infusion pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}.
1530 units/hr100 units/mL=15.3 mL/hr\frac{1530\text{ units/hr}}{100\text{ units/mL}} = 15.3\text{ mL/hr}.
Dividing the calculated hourly dose by the concentration yields the exact volume of fluid that must be administered each hour.
4
Round the final answer according to the instructions.
15.3 mL/hr15.3\text{ mL/hr} rounds down to 15 mL/hr15\text{ mL/hr}.
The question explicitly requires rounding to the nearest whole number to safely set the IV pump.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based intravenous medication calculation and continuous infusion pump rate programming.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 424Soru →

While assisting a client who had abdominal surgery three days ago, the client coughs forcefully and suddenly reports feeling a tearing sensation. Upon inspection, the nurse observes a portion of the small intestine protruding through the open surgical wound. What is the correct priority sequence of nursing actions? Place the interventions in the correct order from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence of actions for an abdominal evisceration is: 1) Remain with the client and call for assistance, 2) Place the client in a low Fowler's position with knees flexed, 3) Cover the protruding organs with sterile moistened dressings, 4) Assess vital signs, and 5) Notify the healthcare provider.
This sequence prioritizes immediate client safety, mechanical reduction of further injury, organ preservation, hemodynamic assessment, and interprofessional communication, following standard protocols for acute surgical emergencies.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Remain with the client and activate the emergency call system.
Ensures client safety and summons help to bring sterile supplies.
Leaving the client can exacerbate the emergency and increase anxiety; immediate assistance is required for materials without abandoning the patient.
2
Place the client in a low Fowler's position with the knees slightly flexed.
Relaxes the abdominal musculature.
This specific position minimizes intra-abdominal pressure, mechanically preventing further protrusion of the bowel.
3
Cover the protruding internal organs with sterile dressings moistened with sterile normal saline.
Creates a moist, sterile environment for the exposed viscera.
Prevents tissue drying, cellular necrosis, and introduces a critical barrier against severe infection.
4
Assess the client's vital signs.
Provides current hemodynamic status.
Detects early signs of hypovolemic shock and provides necessary data for a complete report to the healthcare provider.
5
Notify the healthcare provider.
Initiates medical intervention and surgical preparation.
The surgeon needs the assessment data to prepare the operating room for immediate surgical repair of the evisceration.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Abdominal Evisceration
Soru 425Soru →

Shift report is completed for a client who underwent an exploratory laparotomy 24 hours ago for a severe bowel obstruction. Current assessment reveals a heart rate of 124 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 96/68 mm Hg (a decrease from 118/74 mm Hg four hours ago). The client's extremities are cool to the touch, and urine output has been 45 mL over the past three hours. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air indicates a pH of 7.28, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 30 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- of 15 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 of 64 mm Hg. Based on these findings, which of the following nursing actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution.; Apply supplemental oxygen to maximize tissue perfusion.

Cevap

The appropriate actions are to initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution and apply supplemental oxygen.
The correct actions prioritize the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) in a client demonstrating signs of early shock. Tachycardia, a narrowing pulse pressure, oliguria, and metabolic acidosis indicate inadequate tissue perfusion. Administering supplemental oxygen maximizes the oxygen-carrying capacity, while rapid isotonic fluid administration restores intravascular volume.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the client's vital signs and urine output.
The client demonstrates tachycardia, tachypnea, a narrowing pulse pressure (28 mm Hg), oliguria (15 mL/hr), and cool extremities.
Recognizing early physiological deterioration is essential to prevent irreversible shock.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The values indicate a partially compensated metabolic acidosis with hypoxemia.
Accurately identifying the acid-base imbalance directs therapeutic interventions and rules out respiratory causes.
3
Prioritize nursing interventions based on the assessment findings.
The priority is to address circulation and breathing by administering intravenous fluids and supplemental oxygen.
Intervening for acute hemodynamic instability takes precedence over routine tasks or expected postoperative symptoms.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition and Management of Shock
Soru 426Soru →

An adult client is receiving care in the high-dependency unit on the third day of treatment for necrotizing pancreatitis. During the current assessment, the client appears highly agitated and is exhibiting significant intercostal retractions. Auscultation reveals diffuse fine crackles across all lung fields. Hemodynamic parameters show a blood pressure of 92/54 mm Hg and a heart rate of 128 bpm. The client's respiratory rate is 38 breaths per minute with an oxygen saturation of 83% while utilizing a non-rebreather mask at maximum flow. Laboratory analysis of arterial blood demonstrates a pH of 7.22, a partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) of 62 mm Hg, and a partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) of 46 mm Hg. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most critical intervention the nurse should anticipate?

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Cevap: Gather equipment and pharmacological agents for immediate endotracheal intubation

Cevap

The most critical intervention is to prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation due to refractory hypoxemia and impending respiratory failure.
The client is experiencing Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a life-threatening complication of necrotizing pancreatitis characterized by a severe systemic inflammatory response. The presence of refractory hypoxemia (PaO2 of 46 mm Hg despite a 100% oxygen source), uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.22, PaCO2 62 mm Hg), and extreme respiratory distress (retractions, rate of 38) indicates impending respiratory failure. Securing the airway with immediate endotracheal intubation and initiating mechanical ventilation is the absolute highest priority to preserve life.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and physical assessment findings to identify the primary physiological insult.
Severe tachypnea, retractions, bilateral crackles, and extreme hypoxia despite high-flow oxygen indicate failing respiratory mechanics.
Recognizing respiratory failure is the first step in prioritization.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical presentation.
A pH of 7.22 (acidosis), PaCO2 of 62 mm Hg (hypercapnia), and PaO2 of 46 mm Hg (severe hypoxemia) confirm uncompensated respiratory acidosis and an inability to adequately ventilate or oxygenate.
Objective laboratory data confirms the severity of the respiratory decompensation.
3
Correlate the pulmonary findings with the admitting diagnosis of necrotizing pancreatitis.
The systemic inflammatory response has led to Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), causing non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema and refractory hypoxemia.
Understanding the pathophysiology prevents the administration of harmful treatments, such as diuretics for presumed heart failure.
4
Apply the Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) prioritization framework to select the most critical intervention.
Securing the airway and providing mechanical ventilation takes absolute precedence over treating the hypotension or the agitation.
Without a patent airway and adequate oxygenation, all other bodily systems will rapidly fail.

Anahtar Kavram

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) recognition and ABC prioritization
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 427Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which of the following nursing interventions are essential for the safe administration and monitoring of this therapy? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Change the intravenous tubing and filter every 24 hours.; Assess the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.; Maintain a bag of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) readily available at the bedside.

Cevap

The essential interventions for safe TPN administration include changing the IV tubing and filter every 24 hours, assessing blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours, and keeping a bag of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) available at the bedside.
Safe administration of total parenteral nutrition requires meticulous infection control (changing administration sets every 24 hours), vigilant metabolic monitoring (checking blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours due to high dextrose content), and preparation for sudden interruptions (having D10W available to prevent rebound hypoglycemia).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the infection control requirements for high-glucose parenteral solutions.
Determine that tubing and filters must be changed every 24 hours, and the line must remain dedicated to prevent contamination.
TPN is an excellent medium for bacterial growth and central line infections.
2
Analyze the metabolic complications associated with TPN.
Identify that the high dextrose content necessitates frequent capillary blood glucose checks (every 4-6 hours).
Clients can develop severe hyperglycemia during infusion or rebound hypoglycemia if the infusion is suddenly interrupted.
3
Assess the safety of altering TPN infusion rates.
Determine that manually increasing the rate to 'catch up' is contraindicated.
Rapid infusion of hyperosmolar solutions causes fluid volume overload and osmotic diuresis.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Safety and Monitoring Protocols
Soru 428Soru →

An adult client presents to the emergency department after three days of intractable diarrhea. Initial assessment reveals a blood pressure of 106/82 mm Hg, an apical pulse of 118 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. Laboratory analysis indicates a pH of 7.29, PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 15 mEq/L. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most accurate conclusion regarding the client's condition?

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Cevap: The client is in the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock with partially compensated metabolic acidosis.

Cevap

The client is in the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock with partially compensated metabolic acidosis.
The correct interpretation requires synthesizing two distinct physiological adaptations. First, the severe fluid loss from diarrhea has triggered the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock, evidenced by tachycardia and a narrowed pulse pressure (24 mm Hg) while systolic pressure remains maintained. Second, the loss of alkaline intestinal secretions has caused a primary metabolic acidosis (pH 7.29, HCO3 15). The tachypnea (RR 28) and resulting low PaCO2 (32 mm Hg) represent the respiratory system's partial compensation to buffer the acidotic state.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and hemodynamic status.
The client has a narrowed pulse pressure (106 - 82 = 24 mm Hg) and tachycardia (118 bpm), while still maintaining a systolic blood pressure above 100 mm Hg.
These are classic hallmark indicators of the compensatory (early) stage of hypovolemic shock, as the sympathetic nervous system attempts to maintain cardiac output in response to severe fluid loss.
2
Interpret the primary acid-base imbalance from the arterial blood gas values.
The pH is 7.29 (acidosis) and the HCO3 is 15 mEq/L (acidotic).
Because the pH and the bicarbonate level are moving in the same physiological direction, the primary disorder is a metabolic acidosis, which is expected due to the loss of bicarbonate-rich fluids in severe diarrhea.
3
Determine the level of respiratory compensation.
The PaCO2 is 32 mm Hg (alkalotic) and the respiratory rate is elevated (28 breaths/min).
The lungs are attempting to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off excess carbon dioxide through tachypnea. Because the pH (7.29) has not yet returned to a normal range (7.35 - 7.45), it is considered partially compensated.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition of early hemodynamic deterioration and accurate arterial blood gas interpretation.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 429Soru →

A nurse is preparing to perform open airway suctioning for an adult client with a tracheostomy tube. To reduce the risk of procedure-related complications such as hypoxia and mucosal trauma, arrange the following actions in the correct chronological sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Verify suction pressure, hyperoxygenate the client, insert the catheter without suction, apply intermittent suction during withdrawal, and finally rinse the catheter and reassess.
Safe tracheostomy suctioning requires a systematic approach to mitigate procedural risks. First, verifying safe suction pressure (80 to 120 mm Hg) prevents barotrauma. Next, hyperoxygenating the client provides a vital oxygen reserve to offset the oxygen lost during the procedure. Inserting the catheter without suction protects the tracheal lining from stripping and injury. Suctioning is then applied intermittently during withdrawal for a maximum of 15 seconds to safely evacuate secretions without causing profound hypoxia. Finally, rinsing the catheter and reassessing the client ensures the airway is clear and stable.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Verify the wall suction pressure is set between 80 and 120 mm Hg.
Suction equipment is confirmed to be at a safe negative pressure level.
Setting the pressure correctly before starting prevents excessive negative pressure from causing atelectasis or damaging the delicate tracheal mucosa.
2
Hyperoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen.
The client's functional residual capacity is filled with oxygen.
Suctioning removes oxygen along with secretions; pre-oxygenating creates a safe reserve to prevent profound hypoxemia.
3
Insert the sterile suction catheter without applying suction.
The catheter reaches the necessary depth (typically until resistance is met or the client coughs).
Applying suction during insertion pulls the mucosal tissue into the catheter eyelets, causing severe trauma and bleeding.
4
Apply intermittent suction while rotating and withdrawing the catheter for no more than 15 seconds.
Secretions are safely cleared from the airway.
Limiting suction time to 15 seconds or less and rotating the catheter minimizes the risk of hypoxia and prevents the catheter from adhering to one area of the mucosa.
5
Rinse the catheter with sterile saline and reassess the client's respiratory status.
The suction tubing is cleared, and the client's clinical status is evaluated.
Clearing the tubing prepares it for subsequent passes if needed, while reassessment confirms airway clearance and client stability.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Tracheostomy Suctioning Protocol
Soru 430Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with cardiogenic shock who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dobutamine through a single-lumen peripheral IV catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a one-time dose of IV push furosemide to be administered immediately for acute pulmonary edema. Upon checking the institutional compatibility guide, the nurse confirms that dobutamine and furosemide are physically incompatible at the Y-site. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Cevap: Insert a second peripheral IV catheter to administer the furosemide.

Cevap

Insert a second peripheral IV catheter to administer the furosemide.
Dobutamine is a critical, life-sustaining positive inotrope used to maintain cardiac output in cardiogenic shock. Pausing the infusion, even briefly, can precipitate a rapid and life-threatening hemodynamic collapse. Because the medications are physically incompatible and cannot be mixed in the same tubing, the standard 'flush-push-flush' technique cannot be used. Therefore, the only safe and prompt action is to establish a second peripheral IV access to administer the furosemide.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the client's hemodynamic stability and the purpose of the current continuous infusion.
The client is in cardiogenic shock and dobutamine is a life-sustaining vasoactive medication that maintains cardiac output.
To determine if the continuous infusion can be safely interrupted.
2
Analyze the compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Furosemide and dobutamine are incompatible at the Y-site.
Administering incompatible medications together can cause crystallization and precipitation in the IV line.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the stat medication.
Because the primary infusion cannot be paused and the drugs cannot be mixed, a secondary IV access point must be established.
To ensure both the continuous support of the dobutamine and the prompt administration of the furosemide.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of Incompatible Intravenous Medications in Critically Ill Clients
Soru 431Soru →

A 4545-year-old client is recovering in the surgical unit following a subtotal thyroidectomy performed earlier in the day. During afternoon rounding, the nurse observes the client swallowing repeatedly and reporting a sensation of severe tightness in the anterior neck region. The client's heart rate has trended from 7878 to 115115 beats per minute over the past hour. Which action is essential for the nurse to perform immediately to mitigate potential physiological risk?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Inspect the anterior surgical dressing and the posterior aspect of the neck for active bleeding or pooling.

Cevap

Inspect the anterior surgical dressing and the posterior aspect of the neck for active bleeding or pooling.
The combination of repeated swallowing, a sensation of neck tightness, and a rising heart rate post-thyroidectomy strongly points to hemorrhage and hematoma formation. Because blood can track backward and pool dependently, the nurse must urgently inspect both the anterior dressing and the posterior neck. Recognizing this complication early is critical to reducing the risk of complete airway obstruction.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client exhibits repeated swallowing, neck tightness, and an increasing heart rate (7878 to 115115 beats per minute).
Identifying abnormal trends helps differentiate between expected postoperative recovery and life-threatening complications.
2
Correlate the findings with potential postoperative complications of a thyroidectomy.
The symptoms strongly suggest blood accumulating in the tissue (hematoma), which can rapidly compress the trachea.
The neck is a highly vascular area, and hematoma formation is a primary risk that directly threatens airway patency.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must immediately assess the surgical site, including gravity-dependent areas, to confirm hemorrhage before notifying the healthcare provider or intervening further.
Direct visual and tactile assessment of the site is required to confirm the source of the physiological deterioration.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative hemorrhage and airway compromise
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 432Soru →

During morning rounds, a client who underwent a surgical tracheostomy two days prior begins coughing violently, completely expelling the tracheostomy tube. The client immediately exhibits severe stridor, and the pulse oximeter alarms at 81%. Arrange the critical nursing interventions in the correct chronological sequence to manage this acute airway emergency.

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Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate airway positioning, maintaining stoma patency, inserting the replacement tube safely, removing the obstructing obturator, and verifying placement.
In an acute tracheostomy dislodgment occurring less than 72 hours post-procedure, the primary risk is rapid closure of the immature stoma tract. The immediate priority is to position the client to optimize access and use a sterile hemostat (or retention sutures) to keep the stoma open. Once patent, a new tracheostomy tube (of the same or smaller size) with the obturator inserted is advanced to secure the airway. The obturator must then be removed instantly because it occludes the lumen and prevents breathing. Finally, auscultation confirms that the tube is correctly located in the trachea and that bilateral ventilation is occurring.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the client supine with the neck slightly extended.
The airway structures are aligned for optimal access.
Proper positioning is the foundational first step to visualize and access the stoma site safely.
2
Use a sterile curved hemostat to gently open and secure the stoma.
The stoma tract remains patent.
Because the surgical tract is less than 72 hours old, it is immature and will rapidly close without physical intervention.
3
Advance a replacement tracheostomy tube equipped with an obturator into the stoma.
The tube is guided into the trachea.
The obturator provides a blunt, rounded tip that prevents tissue trauma during insertion through the fresh tract.
4
Withdraw the obturator immediately from the tracheostomy tube.
The tube lumen is cleared.
The obturator completely occludes the airway lumen; removing it is essential to permit ventilation.
5
Auscultate bilateral lung fields.
Tube placement is confirmed.
Equal breath sounds verify that the tube has entered the trachea and is not lodged in subcutaneous tissue or a false passage.

Anahtar Kavram

Emergency management of early tracheostomy dislodgment requires immediate action to maintain a patent stoma and re-establish the airway before the immature tract closes.
Soru 433Soru →

A client receiving an initial intravenous dose of ceftriaxone suddenly reports tightness in the throat and severe shortness of breath. The nurse observes facial angioedema and notes a precipitous drop in blood pressure to 82/48 mm Hg. Place the following emergency nursing actions in the correct order of priority, from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct priority sequence is to stop the antibiotic infusion, assess the airway and provide oxygen, administer intramuscular epinephrine, elevate the lower extremities, and finally administer adjunctive medications.
In acute anaphylaxis, the priority framework relies on removing the inciting agent followed by ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). Stopping the infusion prevents further antigen load. Securing the airway and applying oxygen addresses the most immediate threat to life (hypoxia). Intramuscular epinephrine is the priority pharmacological intervention to reverse shock and bronchospasm. Elevating the legs supports circulation (blood pressure), and administering secondary drugs like diphenhydramine resolves lingering symptoms and prevents recurrence.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the intravenous antibiotic infusion immediately.
Further exposure to the allergen is halted.
Removing the trigger is the critical first step to prevent the reaction from worsening.
2
Assess airway patency and administer high-flow oxygen.
Oxygenation is supported while assessing for laryngeal edema.
Airway and Breathing (the 'A' and 'B' in ABCs) take immediate precedence over circulation and medication administration.
3
Administer intramuscular epinephrine into the anterolateral thigh.
Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation are induced.
Epinephrine is the definitive, life-saving medication for anaphylaxis and must be given as soon as airway/breathing are secured.
4
Elevate the client's lower extremities.
Venous return to the central circulation is increased.
This mechanical intervention helps treat the profound hypotension associated with anaphylactic shock.
5
Administer prescribed intravenous diphenhydramine and corticosteroids.
Secondary histamine receptors are blocked and inflammation is reduced.
These are second-line therapies meant to relieve associated symptoms (e.g., hives) and prevent biphasic reactions, not to treat the immediate life threat.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of acute anaphylaxis and physiological decompensation requires immediate removal of the trigger followed by adherence to the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 434Soru →

A nurse is assessing a 6262-year-old client who returned to the medical-surgical unit 44 hours ago following a partial gastrectomy. The client is receiving continuous IV fluids and has a nasogastric tube set to low intermittent suction. Which of the following assessment findings represent early indicators of physiological decompensation requiring immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: A narrowing pulse pressure from 45 mmHg45 \text{ mmHg} to 25 mmHg25 \text{ mmHg} over the last two hours.; New-onset restlessness, unexplained agitation, and a reported sense of impending doom.; A cumulative urine output of 40 mL40 \text{ mL} via the indwelling catheter over the past 33 hours.

Cevap

The correct findings indicating decompensation are a narrowing pulse pressure, new-onset restlessness, and a cumulative urine output of 40 mL over 3 hours.
The correct findings collectively represent the early compensatory phase of hypovolemic shock. As circulating blood volume decreases, the body compensates by vasoconstricting (narrowing the pulse pressure) and shunting blood away from non-vital organs to preserve the heart and brain. This shunting leads to decreased renal perfusion (oliguria of 40 mL over 3 hours). Additionally, early cerebral hypoxia manifests neurologically as unexplained restlessness, agitation, and anxiety before major drops in systolic blood pressure occur.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario to determine the client's risk factors.
The client is 4 hours post-partial gastrectomy, placing them at high risk for post-operative hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock.
Identifying the primary post-operative risks directs the focus of the physical assessment toward signs of bleeding and impaired perfusion.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against the expected post-operative baseline and the pathophysiology of shock.
Narrowing pulse pressure, restlessness, and oliguria (< 30 mL/hr) are identified as abnormal indicators of decreased tissue perfusion.
Early recognition of compensatory shock mechanisms (vasoconstriction leading to narrow pulse pressure, cerebral hypoxia causing agitation, and renal blood shunting causing oliguria) is critical for timely intervention.
3
Distinguish between expected post-operative findings and true complications.
Dark brown NG drainage and normal ABG values are identified as expected or normal findings that do not require immediate emergency intervention.
Preventing unnecessary interventions for normal post-operative healing processes allows the nurse to prioritize truly unstable systemic changes.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock and physiological decompensation
Soru 435Soru →

A nurse is evaluating an older adult client hospitalized for a severe soft tissue infection. Over the past 44 hours, the client's mentation has declined from alert to profoundly lethargic.

The current assessment reveals the following parameters:

Assessment ParameterClient Value
Blood pressure82/4882/48 mm Hg
Heart rate134134 beats/min (weak, thready)
Respiratory rate2828 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation94%94\% on 22 L/min via nasal cannula
Urine output1515 mL over the past 22 hours

Arterial blood gas (ABG) values are as follows:

ABG ParameterClient Value
pH7.257.25
PaCO2_23131 mm Hg
PaO2_28686 mm Hg
HCO3−_3^-1313 mEq/L

Which of the following is the priority nursing action for this client?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Commencing aggressive volume replacement with an isotonic crystalloid solution

Cevap

The priority action is to commence aggressive volume replacement with an isotonic crystalloid solution.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of septic shock, including profound hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and altered mentation. The arterial blood gas reveals a partially compensated metabolic acidosis, likely resulting from lactic acid accumulation due to severe tissue hypoperfusion. In any shock state where the intravascular space is functionally depleted (such as the massive vasodilation seen in sepsis), the absolute physiological priority is to restore circulating volume and improve tissue perfusion. Therefore, initiating a rapid infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution is the paramount first action to support circulation before implementing other medical orders.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs and urine output.
The client has profound hypotension (mean arterial pressure is 5959 mm Hg), marked tachycardia, tachypnea, and oliguria.
These findings collectively indicate a state of cardiovascular collapse and severe tissue hypoperfusion, which is characteristic of septic shock.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The low pH (7.257.25) and low HCO 3−_3^- (1313 mEq/L) indicate a metabolic acidosis. The low PaCO 2_2 (3131 mm Hg) indicates partial respiratory compensation.
Accurate ABG interpretation confirms that the acidosis is metabolic (likely lactic acid accumulation from shock), ruling out a primary respiratory failure.
3
Apply the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework to prioritize interventions.
Circulatory failure is identified as the most immediate life-threatening issue. The airway is intact, and breathing is physiologically compensating.
Prioritization requires addressing the most critical physiological deficit first, which in this case is the profound lack of intravascular volume and perfusion.
4
Select the appropriate initial intervention for shock stabilization.
Administering isotonic crystalloid fluids is prioritized as the first-line action.
In septic shock, massive vasodilation causes relative hypovolemia. The vascular tank must be filled with fluids before utilizing vasopressors or focusing on the infectious source.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of care in septic shock involves immediate fluid resuscitation to correct life-threatening hypoperfusion and metabolic acidosis before administering vasopressors or antibiotics.
Soru 436Soru →

A nurse is caring for an adult client who is 4 hours post-percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery. The client reports a new onset of dull, aching pain in the lower back. Current vital signs reveal a heart rate of 118 bpm, a blood pressure of 102/78 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. The client's baseline vital signs upon arrival to the unit were a heart rate of 76 bpm and a blood pressure of 128/74 mmHg. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assess the right femoral access site and flank area for swelling or ecchymosis

Cevap

The priority nursing action is to assess the right femoral access site and flank area for swelling or ecchymosis.
The client's new onset of lower back pain, combined with tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure, strongly indicates a retroperitoneal hemorrhage—a severe complication of femoral artery access. The priority action is to apply the nursing process by first assessing the access site and the retroperitoneal/flank area to confirm the source of bleeding before taking further action.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's symptoms and vital sign trends compared to the baseline.
The client has developed sudden tachycardia (76 to 118 bpm), hypotension with a narrowed pulse pressure (from 54 mmHg to 24 mmHg), and new-onset back pain.
Identifying changes from baseline is crucial for recognizing acute life-threatening complications.
2
Correlate the assessment findings with potential post-procedural complications.
The combination of back pain and signs of compensatory hypovolemic shock following a femoral artery puncture is the classic presentation of a retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Blood leaking from the femoral artery can track backward into the retroperitoneal space, causing severe back or flank pain and hidden blood loss.
3
Determine the priority nursing action using the nursing process.
The nurse must first physically assess the access site and flank (checking for Grey Turner's sign or a hematoma) to confirm the bleeding source before intervening or notifying the provider.
Assessment must precede intervention to provide accurate, actionable data to the healthcare team.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and assessment of retroperitoneal hemorrhage following femoral artery access.
Soru 437Soru →

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client with end-stage kidney disease who missed their last two scheduled hemodialysis sessions. The client presents with profound muscle weakness, lethargy, and a heart rate of 52 beats per minute. The cardiac monitor displays widened QRS complexes and peaked T waves. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air reveals a pH of 7.29, PaCO2 33 mm Hg, HCO3 15 mEq/L, and PaO2 96 mm Hg. Which of the following immediate interventions should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.; Administer intravenous regular insulin concurrently with 50% dextrose.; Prepare the client for emergent hemodialysis.

Cevap

The correct interventions are administering intravenous calcium gluconate, administering intravenous regular insulin with 50% dextrose, and preparing the client for emergent hemodialysis.
The client is experiencing symptomatic hyperkalemia (widened QRS, peaked T waves) and metabolic acidosis secondary to missed hemodialysis. Immediate treatment requires stabilizing the cardiac membrane with calcium gluconate, temporarily shifting potassium into cells with regular insulin and dextrose, and definitively removing potassium and restoring acid-base balance via emergent hemodialysis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and electrocardiogram (ECG) findings.
The missed dialysis, weakness, bradycardia, widened QRS complexes, and peaked T waves indicate severe, life-threatening hyperkalemia.
Identifying the primary life-threatening condition dictates immediate priority interventions.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
A pH of 7.29 and HCO3 of 15 mEq/L indicate metabolic acidosis. The PaCO2 of 33 mm Hg indicates respiratory compensation.
Understanding the acid-base imbalance determines if respiratory interventions are appropriate or contraindicated.
3
Select interventions that rapidly address the hyperkalemia and cardiac instability.
Calcium gluconate stabilizes the myocardium, insulin with dextrose rapidly shifts potassium intracellularly, and hemodialysis removes potassium from the body.
Immediate medical management is required to prevent fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.

Anahtar Kavram

The priority management of severe hyperkalemia includes myocardial stabilization (calcium gluconate), intracellular potassium shifting (insulin and dextrose), and potassium elimination (hemodialysis), while recognizing respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis.
Soru 438Soru →

A 72-year-old client is recovering in the surgical unit 12 hours after undergoing a right total hip arthroplasty using a posterior surgical approach. The client reports mild discomfort and requests assistance with repositioning. To reduce the risk of a post-operative prosthesis dislocation, which action should the nurse implement?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Secure an abduction wedge between the client's lower extremities while resting in a supine position.

Cevap

The nurse should secure an abduction wedge between the client's lower extremities while the client is resting in a supine position.
Following a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, the hip is highly susceptible to posterior dislocation. Securing an abduction wedge or pillow between the client's legs while they are supine prevents adduction (crossing the legs) and helps maintain the leg in a neutral position. This provides crucial stabilization for the new joint and significantly reduces the risk of dislocation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific post-operative physiological risks.
The client underwent a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. The primary structural risk post-operatively is posterior joint dislocation.
Understanding the specific surgical approach dictates which anatomical positions and movements must be strictly avoided to protect the new joint.
2
Recall the standard hip precautions required for a posterior surgical approach.
Hip precautions for a posterior approach include avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, avoiding adduction of the operative leg across the body's midline, and avoiding internal rotation of the leg.
These specific movements place excessive mechanical stress on the posterior aspect of the newly implanted joint capsule, potentially forcing the femoral head out of the acetabulum.
3
Evaluate the given nursing interventions against the established precautions to select the safest action.
Utilizing an abduction wedge directly prevents adduction and maintains the leg in a safe, neutral alignment.
The other interventions involve contraindicated movements (high flexion, adduction, internal rotation) that directly violate hip precautions and increase the risk of injury.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-operative positioning and hip precautions following a posterior total hip arthroplasty
Soru 439Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with a hypertensive crisis. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of sodium nitroprusside at 2.5 mcg/kg/min2.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 187 lbs187 \text{ lbs}. The pharmacy dispenses an IV bag containing 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water (D5W). At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse set the infusion pump? (Record answer to the nearest whole number).

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 64

Cevap

64
To calculate the correct infusion rate, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (187 lbs÷2.2=85 kg187 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 85 \text{ kg}). Next, the weight is multiplied by the ordered dose (2.5 mcg/kg/min×85 kg=212.5 mcg/min2.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 85 \text{ kg} = 212.5 \text{ mcg/min}). The total dose per hour is 212.5 mcg/min×60 min/hr=12,750 mcg/hr212.5 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 12,750 \text{ mcg/hr}. The concentration of the IV bag is 50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}. Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields 12,750 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=63.75 mL/hr12,750 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 63.75 \text{ mL/hr}, which rounds up to 6464.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
187 lbs÷2.2=85 kg187 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 85 \text{ kg}
The prescribed dose is weight-based in kg, so the weight must be converted first.
2
Calculate the prescribed dose per minute.
2.5 mcg/kg/min×85 kg=212.5 mcg/min2.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 85 \text{ kg} = 212.5 \text{ mcg/min}
This determines the exact amount of medication the client needs to receive every minute.
3
Determine the concentration of the medication provided by the pharmacy.
Convert mg to mcg: 50 mg×1,000=50,000 mcg50 \text{ mg} \times 1,000 = 50,000 \text{ mcg}. Then, 50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}.
Finding the concentration in mcg/mL aligns the units with the prescribed dose.
4
Calculate the required fluid volume per minute.
212.5 mcg/min÷200 mcg/mL=1.0625 mL/min212.5 \text{ mcg/min} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 1.0625 \text{ mL/min}
This determines how much fluid volume must be delivered each minute to provide the ordered dose.
5
Convert the rate to mL/hr and round to the nearest whole number.
1.0625 mL/min×60 min/hr=63.75 mL/hr1.0625 \text{ mL/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 63.75 \text{ mL/hr}. Rounded to the nearest whole number = 64 mL/hr64 \text{ mL/hr}.
Infusion pumps are typically programmed in mL/hr, and the stem requires rounding to the nearest whole number.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based Intravenous Infusion Rate Calculation
Soru 440Soru →

A nurse is continuously monitoring a client who was admitted with severe hematemesis due to a suspected bleeding peptic ulcer. Which of the following assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is developing early compensatory hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Blood pressure changing from 130/80 mm Hg to 114/86 mm Hg; Heart rate increasing from 84 to 118 beats per minute; Development of new-onset restlessness and apprehension

Cevap

The findings indicating early compensatory hypovolemic shock are a narrowing pulse pressure (blood pressure changing from 130/80 to 114/86 mm Hg), tachycardia (heart rate increasing to 118 beats per minute), and new-onset restlessness.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the sympathetic nervous system activates to maintain cardiac output and vital organ perfusion. This compensatory response leads to a narrowing pulse pressure (due to vasoconstriction raising diastolic pressure while systolic pressure drops slightly or remains stable), tachycardia, and early neurological changes such as restlessness and apprehension due to subtle decreases in cerebral oxygenation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's primary physiological risk.
The client has severe hematemesis, placing them at high risk for acute blood loss and subsequent hypovolemic shock.
Understanding the underlying etiology (fluid/blood loss) directs the nurse to anticipate specific compensatory mechanisms rather than distributive or cardiogenic failure.
2
Evaluate the provided vital sign trends for evidence of sympathetic nervous system compensation.
The heart rate increases (tachycardia) and the pulse pressure narrows (diastolic rises relative to systolic) as the body vasoconstricts to maintain cardiac output.
These are classic, measurable early indicators of shock that appear well before profound hypotension (a late sign) occurs.
3
Assess for early signs of altered tissue perfusion in highly oxygen-sensitive organs.
The brain's high oxygen demand makes neurological changes, such as restlessness and anxiety, some of the earliest clinical signs of impending shock.
Neurological changes often precede a significant drop in systolic blood pressure.
4
Differentiate hypovolemic signs from other clinical conditions or shock types.
Warm skin and bounding pulses are eliminated, as they represent vasodilation (seen in early sepsis), whereas hypovolemia triggers profound vasoconstriction (resulting in cool skin and thready pulses).
Accurate differentiation ensures that the nurse does not misinterpret compensatory vasoconstriction.

Anahtar Kavram

Compensatory Mechanisms in Early Hypovolemic Shock
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 22 | Examkin