Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 581Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who underwent a large-volume paracentesis to relieve severe ascites 9090 minutes ago. The client suddenly reports profound dizziness and a feeling of impending doom. Current vital signs reveal a heart rate of 122122 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 2424 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 84/5084/50 mm Hg. Which immediate action should the nurse perform?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the client flat in bed while raising the lower extremities.

Cevap

The immediate priority is to support the client's circulation by positioning them flat with their lower extremities elevated.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction (hypovolemic shock) caused by a rapid fluid shift after a large volume of fluid is removed. The priority action is to optimize venous return and cerebral perfusion. Positioning the client flat with the legs elevated (modified Trendelenburg) immediately uses gravity to divert blood from the lower extremities back to the central circulation, supporting blood pressure and cardiac output.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs following the invasive procedure.
The tachycardia (122122 bpm) and severe hypotension (84/5084/50 mm Hg), combined with dizziness, indicate acute hypovolemic shock.
Large-volume paracentesis can cause rapid fluid shifts from the intravascular space into the peritoneal cavity, leading to paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction.
2
Identify the highest priority nursing need using the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) framework.
The primary life-threatening issue is a severe deficit in circulation.
Inadequate circulating blood volume leads to decreased tissue perfusion and potential organ failure.
3
Select the most effective and immediate mechanical intervention to support the cardiovascular system.
Place the client in a modified Trendelenburg position (flat with legs elevated).
This positioning utilizes gravity to immediately divert venous blood from the lower extremities back to the heart, temporarily improving cardiac output and vital organ perfusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Paracentesis-Induced Circulatory Dysfunction
Soru 582Soru →

A client with symptomatic anemia requires a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). The client's only intravenous (IV) access is a 20-gauge peripheral catheter currently infusing 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 75 mL/hr. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the continuous D5W infusion, flush the IV catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, and administer the PRBCs with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to stop the continuous D5W infusion, flush the IV catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, and administer the PRBCs with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are exclusively compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline). Administering blood with solutions containing dextrose, such as D5W, causes hemolysis (rupture) of the red blood cells, which can trigger a severe or life-threatening reaction. Because the client has only one IV access site, the nurse must stop the incompatible D5W infusion, completely flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride to clear any remaining dextrose from the catheter, and then administer the transfusion safely using normal saline as the primer and flush.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the fluid compatibility of the prescribed blood product.
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are only compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline).
Solutions containing dextrose, such as D5W, cause hemolysis of red blood cells, while solutions like Lactated Ringer's contain calcium that can cause the blood to clot.
2
Evaluate the client's current intravenous access.
The client has a single IV line currently infusing an incompatible fluid (D5W).
The nurse must use the existing access safely or establish a new line.
3
Formulate a safe administration plan.
Stop the D5W infusion, thoroughly flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, and administer the blood using only 0.9% sodium chloride.
Flushing the line completely removes the incompatible dextrose solution, preventing a dangerous in-line hemolytic reaction and allowing safe blood administration through the single access site.

Anahtar Kavram

Blood Product Administration Safety and IV Fluid Compatibility
Soru 583Soru →

A client admitted to the intensive care unit with acute decompensated heart failure is prescribed a continuous intravenous infusion of dobutamine at 7.57.5 mcg/kg/min. The client weighs 176176 lb. The medication is supplied by the pharmacy as dobutamine 500500 mg in 250250 mL of 5%5\% dextrose in water. At what rate in mL/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump? (Record your answer using a whole number.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 18

Cevap

The nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver 18 mL/hr.
To determine the correct IV pump setting in mL/hr, first convert the weight to kilograms (176÷2.2=80176 \div 2.2 = 80 kg). Next, calculate the dose per minute (7.5×80=6007.5 \times 80 = 600 mcg/min), then convert to the hourly dose (600×60=36,000600 \times 60 = 36,000 mcg/hr). Convert this to milligrams (36,000÷1000=3636,000 \div 1000 = 36 mg/hr). The concentration of the IV bag is 22 mg/mL (500500 mg ÷250\div 250 mL). Finally, divide the required hourly dose by the concentration (36÷2=1836 \div 2 = 18 mL/hr).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176÷2.2=80176 \div 2.2 = 80 kg
The medication is prescribed based on weight in kilograms (mcg/kg/min).
2
Calculate the total dose required per minute.
7.5×80=6007.5 \times 80 = 600 mcg/min
This establishes the total amount of dobutamine the client needs every minute.
3
Convert the minute dose to an hourly dose.
600×60=36,000600 \times 60 = 36,000 mcg/hr
The final pump rate must be programmed in mL/hr, so the dose must be calculated per hour.
4
Convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
36,000÷1000=3636,000 \div 1000 = 36 mg/hr
The supplied medication concentration is provided in milligrams (mg), so the units must match.
5
Calculate the concentration of the supplied medication.
500÷250=2500 \div 250 = 2 mg/mL
This determines how many milligrams of dobutamine are in each milliliter of the IV fluid.
6
Calculate the final infusion pump rate.
36÷2=1836 \div 2 = 18 mL/hr
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the volume required per hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based intravenous infusion calculation requires converting weight to kilograms, determining the hourly medication requirement, and applying the supplied concentration to find the volume per hour.
Soru 584Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who is receiving aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation for severe dehydration. The client suddenly reports severe orthopnea and a feeling of impending doom. Which of the following clinical assessment findings indicate the development of acute pulmonary edema? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Bilateral fine crackles progressing from the lung bases upward; Production of pink, frothy sputum upon coughing; Auscultation of a prominent S3 gallop rhythm at the cardiac apex

Cevap

The correct findings that indicate acute pulmonary edema are bilateral fine crackles progressing upward, the production of pink, frothy sputum, and the presence of an S3 gallop rhythm.
Acute pulmonary edema occurs when excessive hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary vasculature forces fluid across the alveolar-capillary membrane into the air spaces. This alveolar flooding manifests as bilateral crackles that progress upward and the production of pink, frothy sputum from ruptured capillaries. Furthermore, the excess fluid volume increases cardiac preload, stretching the left ventricle and producing a classic S3 gallop rhythm during ventricular filling.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the client's current interventions.
The client is receiving aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation and is now exhibiting sudden, severe respiratory distress and anxiety.
Rapid fluid volume expansion significantly increases the risk of left ventricular volume overload, forcing fluid backward into the pulmonary circuit.
2
Identify respiratory manifestations of alveolar flooding.
Crackles starting at the lung bases and pink, frothy sputum are identified as confirming signs.
Increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure pushes fluid and red blood cells into the alveoli, causing adventitious lung sounds and blood-tinged, aerated secretions.
3
Identify cardiac manifestations associated with acute fluid volume overload.
An S3 gallop rhythm is recognized as an expected finding.
The S3 sound is generated by the rapid rush of blood into an already distended left ventricle during early diastole.
4
Differentiate pulmonary edema from other pathophysiological shock and acid-base states.
Narrowing pulse pressure and metabolic alkalosis are excluded as correct choices.
A narrowing pulse pressure indicates low stroke volume (shock), while pulmonary edema classically causes respiratory acidosis due to impaired gas exchange, not metabolic alkalosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Acute Pulmonary Edema Assessment and Recognition
Soru 585Soru →

A 42-year-old client is being monitored in the surgical step-down unit 18 hours after a subtotal thyroidectomy for the treatment of Graves' disease. The nurse is evaluating the client's current status to prevent post-operative complications. Which of the following assessment findings indicates the greatest risk for impending physiological decompensation and requires immediate intervention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The client reports a mild tingling sensation around the lips and fingertips.

Cevap

The client reporting a mild tingling sensation around the lips and fingertips.
The correct answer identifies circumoral paresthesia (tingling around the lips and fingertips) as the highest priority finding. During a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be inadvertently damaged or removed, leading to acute hypocalcemia. Tingling is an early, subtle indicator of hypocalcemia which, if left untreated, can rapidly progress to severe complications including tetany, seizures, and life-threatening laryngospasm. Recognizing this early sign allows for immediate risk mitigation through the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific anatomical risks.
Identified risks for subtotal thyroidectomy include airway compromise, recurrent laryngeal nerve damage, and hypocalcemia from inadvertent parathyroid gland injury.
Understanding procedure-specific risks guides focused assessment for physiological decompensation.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding to distinguish expected postoperative variations from signs of impending crisis.
Hoarseness, semi-Fowler's positioning, and mild tachycardia are expected or therapeutic. The tingling sensation is an abnormal neurological finding.
Differentiating benign postoperative findings from life-threatening indicators prevents unnecessary interventions and ensures patient safety.
3
Correlate the abnormal finding with its physiological consequence to determine priority.
Circumoral paresthesia indicates early hypocalcemia, which can rapidly progress to tetany and fatal laryngospasm.
Establishes the highest priority for risk mitigation, prompting the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia
Soru 586Soru →

A surgical unit nurse is assessing a client who underwent a partial colectomy 8 hours ago. The client reports incisional pain rated as 4 on a 0 to 10 scale. Upon review of the electronic health record, the nurse notes the client's preoperative blood pressure was 128/76 mm Hg with a heart rate of 78 bpm. Current assessment reveals a blood pressure of 106/84 mm Hg, a heart rate of 116 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. Which action should the nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid bolus

Cevap

Initiate a prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid bolus
The correct action directly addresses the client's circulatory compromise. A narrowing pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure decreasing from 52 to 22 mm Hg) combined with tachycardia is a hallmark sign of early compensatory shock. As cardiac output drops, the body vasoconstricts to maintain blood pressure, which raises the diastolic number and keeps the systolic relatively stable initially. Administering an isotonic fluid bolus is the priority intervention to restore intravascular volume and maintain organ perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the baseline and current vital signs.
The pulse pressure has narrowed from 52 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg, and the heart rate has increased significantly from 78 bpm to 116 bpm.
Identifying trends in vital signs is essential for recognizing physiological decline.
2
Correlate the vital sign changes with the clinical context.
The postoperative client is showing early compensatory mechanisms (vasoconstriction and tachycardia) indicative of hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock.
Recognizing early shock allows for prompt intervention before irreversible organ damage occurs.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Restoring intravascular volume with isotonic fluids is the most critical immediate action.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) of prioritizing care, circulatory collapse must be addressed immediately.

Anahtar Kavram

Early indicators of hypovolemic shock include tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure, which require immediate fluid resuscitation to prevent irreversible organ damage.
Soru 587Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who returned to the telemetry unit 2 hours ago following a left heart catheterization performed via the right femoral artery. Which of the following findings require immediate intervention by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The client reports new-onset, severe lower back pain.; The client's right foot is pale and the dorsalis pedis pulse is nonpalpable.; The client is resting in bed with the head elevated to a 60-degree angle.

Cevap

The findings requiring immediate intervention are the new-onset severe lower back pain, the pale foot with a nonpalpable pulse, and the head of the bed elevated to 60 degrees.
The findings requiring immediate intervention are those that indicate a life-threatening complication or a breach of safety protocols. Severe lower back pain is a cardinal sign of retroperitoneal bleeding. A pale foot with an absent pulse indicates acute arterial occlusion, which rapidly compromises tissue perfusion. A head of bed elevated to 60 degrees causes excessive hip flexion, risking disruption of the arterial clot and severe hemorrhage.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the procedure and its associated physiological risks.
The client had a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery, placing them at high risk for arterial bleeding, hematoma, retroperitoneal hemorrhage, and neurovascular compromise.
Understanding procedural risks focuses the assessment on recognizing early, life-threatening complications.
2
Evaluate each finding to identify signs of complications.
Severe back pain indicates potential retroperitoneal bleeding. A pale foot with no pulse indicates arterial occlusion. A head of bed at 60 degrees increases femoral artery pressure and bleeding risk.
These three findings represent acute safety risks requiring immediate nursing or medical intervention.
3
Differentiate abnormal findings from expected physiological responses.
Normal ABG values, mild insertion site tenderness, and adequate urine output are all expected or positive findings following this procedure.
Expected findings do not require immediate intervention and represent stable physiological adaptation.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Cardiac Catheterization Care
Soru 588Soru →

A registered nurse is providing care for a client who requires multiple intravenous (IV) therapies, including continuous fluids and scheduled intermittent medications. Which of the following actions indicate that the nurse is safely administering pharmacological and parenteral therapies? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Flushing the peripheral intravenous catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride to confirm patency before administering an intravenous push medication; Scrubbing the needleless connector hub of the intravenous catheter with an antiseptic wipe using friction for at least 15 seconds before access; Administering prescribed intravenous potassium chloride via an electronic infusion pump at a controlled rate of 10 mEq per hour

Cevap

The correct actions include flushing the IV catheter to confirm patency, scrubbing the needleless hub for at least 15 seconds prior to access, and administering IV potassium chloride at a safe, controlled rate via an infusion pump.
Safe parenteral therapy requires proactive measures to prevent complications. Flushing the IV line confirms patency and prevents extravasation. Scrubbing the needleless hub with friction for 15 seconds prevents bloodstream infections. Administering potassium chloride via an infusion pump at a maximum rate of 10 mEq/hr prevents rapid infusion and subsequent fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze each nursing action for adherence to safety standards regarding parenteral therapy and infection control.
Identified that verifying patency, scrubbing the hub, and controlling potassium infusion rates meet essential safety standards.
Intravenous therapies carry high risks for infection, tissue damage, and systemic adverse reactions if strict protocols are not followed.
2
Evaluate the remaining actions for potential risks or deviations from safe practice.
Identified that failing to check drug compatibility, using estimated weights in pounds, and ignoring early signs of shock are unsafe practices.
These deviations can lead to drug precipitates, severe dosing errors, and delayed treatment of life-threatening complications.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of parenteral therapies requires strict adherence to infection control (scrubbing the hub), continuous monitoring for adverse reactions, accurate dosage calculations based on measured kilograms, and verification of drug compatibility.
Soru 589Soru →

While performing bedside rounding on a gastroenterology unit, a nurse observes a client who had a percutaneous liver biopsy completed 45 minutes ago. Which finding requires the nurse to take immediate corrective action to prevent physiological decompensation?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The client is lying in a left lateral decubitus position while conversing with a family member.

Cevap

The client lying in a left lateral decubitus position requires immediate corrective action to prevent bleeding.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, and hemorrhage is the most dangerous complication following a percutaneous liver biopsy. To reduce this risk, the client must be positioned on their right side (the operative side) for a minimum of 2 hours post-procedure. This uses the client's own body weight to apply direct, external pressure to the liver capsule and puncture site. Lying on the left side removes this pressure and significantly increases the risk of life-threatening bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the post-procedure risks associated with a percutaneous liver biopsy.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, making internal hemorrhage the most significant and immediate life-threatening complication.
Identifying the primary risk determines which nursing interventions are essential for prevention.
2
Evaluate each observation to determine if it increases the risk of hemorrhage or indicates a clinical emergency.
Lying on the left side removes external pressure from the biopsy site, drastically increasing the risk of active bleeding.
Direct mechanical pressure is required to facilitate hemostasis at the hepatic puncture site.
3
Differentiate expected procedural findings and routine care from true clinical complications.
Right shoulder pain is an expected referred pain, a pulse pressure of 42 mm Hg is hemodynamically normal, and UAP delegation for vital signs is standard practice.
Clinical prioritization requires distinguishing between stable, expected assessments and true safety hazards.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure care and therapeutic positioning to prevent hemorrhage following a liver biopsy.
Soru 590Soru →

A registered nurse is prioritizing care for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit after receiving the shift handoff report. Which individual's clinical presentation requires the nurse's immediate intervention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A client admitted with acute pancreatitis who exhibits a resting heart rate of 124 beats/min124 \text{ beats/min}, a capillary refill time of 5 seconds5 \text{ seconds}, and new-onset confusion.

Cevap

The client admitted with acute pancreatitis who exhibits a resting heart rate of 124 beats/min, a capillary refill time of 5 seconds, and new-onset confusion.
The correct answer identifies a client exhibiting classic manifestations of systemic inflammatory response and massive fluid shifts (third-spacing), which frequently complicate acute pancreatitis. A resting heart rate of 124 beats/minute, a prolonged capillary refill time of 5 seconds, and new-onset confusion are definitive signs of severely compromised tissue perfusion and decreased cerebral oxygenation. This client is in progressive hypovolemic shock and requires immediate intravenous fluid resuscitation to prevent cardiovascular collapse and multiorgan failure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas values for the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
The pH is 7.36 (normal), indicating fully compensated respiratory acidosis, which is a stable baseline for this chronic condition.
To rule out acute respiratory failure.
2
Evaluate the clinical presentation of the client with acute pancreatitis.
Tachycardia, significantly delayed capillary refill, and confusion indicate severe fluid shifts (third-spacing) and poor systemic perfusion.
To identify subtle or rapidly progressing signs of impending cardiovascular collapse and hypovolemic shock.
3
Assess the severity of the symptoms in the clients with heart failure and postoperative appendectomy.
Weight gain and edema are subacute chronic issues; surgical site discomfort is an expected finding after an abdominal operation.
To differentiate between expected or subacute manifestations and true acute medical emergencies.
4
Apply the principles of triage and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) to determine the highest priority.
The client with acute pancreatitis has an acute circulation and perfusion deficit.
Life-threatening circulatory collapse must be addressed before stable chronic conditions or expected postoperative pain.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization: Recognizing Shock and Physiological Decompensation
Soru 591Soru →

A nurse is preparing to remove a client's non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC). To minimize the risk of an air embolism and ensure client safety, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first place the client in a supine position, then instruct them to perform the Valsalva maneuver, followed by withdrawing the catheter, applying immediate firm pressure, and finally securing an occlusive dressing.
Removing a central venous catheter involves a significant risk of an air embolism if intrathoracic pressure falls below atmospheric pressure. By initially placing the client in a supine position and subsequently having them perform the Valsalva maneuver, the nurse artificially raises the central venous pressure. Withdrawing the catheter exclusively during this positive-pressure phase, immediately applying firm pressure to the site, and finally sealing the tract with an occlusive dressing effectively mitigates this life-threatening risk in the correct physiological sequence.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Place the client in a supine position.
Central venous pressure is increased.
Supine positioning uses gravity to prevent a negative pressure gradient, reducing the risk of air being drawn into the vein.
2
Instruct the client to bear down (Valsalva maneuver).
Intrathoracic pressure increases significantly.
Creates a positive pressure environment in the central veins, blocking potential air entry.
3
Withdraw the catheter smoothly.
The catheter is removed safely.
The device is removed precisely while the protective positive pressure is actively maintained by the client.
4
Apply firm pressure to the site with sterile gauze.
Bleeding is controlled and the tract is compressed.
Promotes hemostasis and prevents any immediate air entry through the newly opened skin tract.
5
Apply an occlusive dressing over the insertion site.
An airtight seal is established.
Prevents delayed air entry as the internal tract fully closes.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Central Venous Catheter Removal
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 592Soru →

While conducting a physiological assessment on a client who experienced an anterior wall myocardial infarction the previous day, the nurse suspects the onset of hemodynamic compromise. Which clinical manifestations indicate the early development of cardiogenic shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Restlessness and new-onset confusion; Apical heart rate of 122 beats per minute; Urine output of 15 mL over the past hour

Cevap

The correct indicators of early cardiogenic shock are restlessness and new-onset confusion, an apical heart rate of 122 beats per minute, and a urine output of 15 mL over the past hour.
In early cardiogenic shock, decreased cardiac output triggers the sympathetic nervous system. This compensatory response causes tachycardia to increase cardiac output and shunts blood away from non-vital organs (causing oliguria, such as 15 mL/hr) and the skin. Furthermore, the brain is highly sensitive to slight drops in oxygenation, making restlessness and confusion very early indicators of compromised systemic perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pathophysiology of the condition.
Cardiogenic shock results from severe impairment of ventricular pumping action, leading to decreased cardiac output and systemic hypoperfusion.
Understanding the core mechanism explains the body's compensatory responses.
2
Identify early compensatory mechanisms.
The sympathetic nervous system activates, causing tachycardia to increase cardiac output and peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure and shunt blood to vital organs.
These early physiological mechanisms produce specific clinical signs before profound hypotension occurs.
3
Evaluate the given options against known shock indicators.
Tachycardia, oliguria, and altered mental status are early signs of poor perfusion. Widening pulse pressure and warm skin contradict the sympathetic vasoconstrictive response seen in cardiogenic shock.
Differentiating between true cardiogenic shock signs and those of other shock types is essential for prompt, accurate intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of cardiogenic shock
Soru 593Soru →

A 62-year-old client is transferred to the medical-surgical unit after undergoing an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with gastric biopsies. Which of the following assessment findings or situations require immediate intervention by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A resting heart rate of 114 beats/min accompanied by a narrowing pulse pressure; The client's abdomen feels rigid and board-like during light palpation; The client develops a sudden temperature elevation to 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Cevap

The findings requiring immediate intervention are a resting heart rate of 114 beats/min with a narrowing pulse pressure, a rigid and board-like abdomen, and a sudden temperature elevation.
Following an EGD with biopsies, the nurse must monitor for severe complications such as hemorrhage and perforation. A narrowing pulse pressure combined with tachycardia indicates early hypovolemic shock resulting from internal bleeding. A rigid, board-like abdomen and a sudden fever are classic indicators of visceral perforation and resulting peritonitis. These three findings are life-threatening and require immediate medical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the procedure and its associated risks.
An EGD with biopsies carries primary risks of gastrointestinal hemorrhage, visceral perforation, and aspiration.
Understanding the risks directs the focused post-operative physical assessment.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic and systemic assessment findings.
Tachycardia with a narrowing pulse pressure suggests early shock (bleeding). A rigid abdomen and sudden fever suggest peritonitis (perforation).
These are life-threatening physiological complications requiring emergency medical management.
3
Evaluate the remaining options for expected post-procedure status.
Belching, an absent gag reflex at 30 minutes, and lateral positioning are all normal or therapeutic aspects of post-EGD care.
Recognizing expected findings prevents unnecessary interventions and focuses attention on true instability.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Endoscopy Complications
Soru 594Soru →

A nurse is caring for an adult client admitted with a traumatic brain injury who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 75 mL/hr. Following a brief generalized tonic-clonic seizure, the healthcare provider prescribes a stat loading dose of IV phenytoin. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the D5W infusion, flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

Stop the D5W infusion, flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.
The correct action demonstrates an understanding of IV drug compatibility. Phenytoin is highly incompatible with any solution containing dextrose (such as D5W) because it will immediately precipitate and form crystals. To safely administer phenytoin through an existing IV line infusing D5W, the nurse must temporarily stop the primary dextrose infusion. Then, the nurse must flush the line with a compatible solution, which is 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), to clear the dextrose. After administering the phenytoin at the appropriate rate, the line must be flushed again with normal saline before restarting the D5W infusion. This isolates the incompatible medication and ensures patient safety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the compatibility of the prescribed IV medication (phenytoin) with the current continuous IV fluid (D5W).
Determine that phenytoin is physically incompatible with solutions containing dextrose.
Administering incompatible medications together can cause precipitation, rendering the drug ineffective and potentially creating a life-threatening embolus.
2
Determine the appropriate diluent and flush solution for phenytoin.
Identify that phenytoin is only compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline).
Normal saline prevents the crystallization of phenytoin in the IV tubing.
3
Formulate a safe administration sequence.
Stop the primary D5W infusion, flush with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the medication slowly, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride before restarting the D5W.
This 'sandwich' technique ensures the incompatible medication never comes into contact with the dextrose solution in the tubing.

Anahtar Kavram

IV Medication Compatibility and Safe Administration Guidelines
Soru 595Soru →

A critical care nurse is evaluating a 68-year-old client who is 4 hours post-operative following an open abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) repair. The client has a continuous intravenous infusion, an indwelling urinary catheter, and a nasogastric tube to low wall suction. Which clinical findings should the nurse identify as indicators of impending physiological decompensation that require immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Urine output of 30 mL total recorded over the past two hours; Lower extremities that are cool to the touch with pedal pulses absent by Doppler; Heart rate increasing gradually from 82 to 118 beats per minute with a narrowing pulse pressure

Cevap

The correct findings indicating decompensation are a urine output of 30 mL over two hours, cool lower extremities with absent pedal pulses, and a rising heart rate with a narrowing pulse pressure.
Following an open AAA repair, the most critical risks are hemorrhage and graft occlusion. A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr (30 mL over two hours = 15 mL/hr) indicates severely compromised renal perfusion, potentially due to occlusion above the renal arteries or systemic hypovolemia. Tachycardia with a narrowing pulse pressure is the body's early compensatory response to active internal bleeding and hypovolemic shock. Furthermore, cool extremities with absent pedal pulses indicate an acute lack of peripheral blood flow, strongly suggesting an arterial graft occlusion that requires immediate surgical evaluation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and the timeframe.
The client is in the early post-operative phase (4 hours) following an open abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) repair.
This establishes the client's high risk for life-threatening complications, specifically hemorrhage, graft occlusion, and acute renal failure.
2
Evaluate the clinical findings for signs of graft occlusion or ischemia.
A urine output of 15 mL/hr (30 mL over two hours) and absent pedal pulses by Doppler are identified as abnormal.
Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates renal hypoperfusion, while absent pedal pulses indicate acute peripheral graft occlusion.
3
Assess the vital signs for indicators of hemodynamic instability.
The heart rate has increased to 118 bpm alongside a narrowing pulse pressure.
These are key early indicators of compensatory hemorrhagic shock, requiring immediate volume resuscitation or surgical return.
4
Differentiate critical complications from expected post-operative findings.
The ABG values are identified as normal, and hypoactive bowel sounds are identified as an expected post-surgical finding.
Recognizing normal baseline data prevents unnecessary interventions and focuses the nurse's attention on true physiological decompensation.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hemorrhage, renal ischemia, and graft occlusion following major vascular surgery.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 596Soru →

A healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for a client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis. The client weighs 92 kg92\text{ kg}. The facility's weight-based heparin protocol requires an initial infusion rate of 18 units/kg/hr18\text{ units/kg/hr}. The pharmacy dispenses a premixed intravenous bag containing 25,000 units25,000\text{ units} of heparin in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5% Dextrose in Water5\%\text{ Dextrose in Water}. At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the infusion pump be programmed? Record your answer using one decimal place.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 16.6

Cevap

16.6
The correct infusion rate is calculated by first determining the hourly weight-based dose (92 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1656 units/hr92\text{ kg} \times 18\text{ units/kg/hr} = 1656\text{ units/hr}). This dose is then divided by the concentration of the heparin solution (100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}) to yield 16.56 mL/hr16.56\text{ mL/hr}. Rounding to one decimal place gives 16.6 mL/hr16.6\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the total required hourly dose of heparin.
1656 units/hr1656\text{ units/hr}
The prescribed rate is weight-based (18 units/kg/hr18\text{ units/kg/hr}), so it must be multiplied by the client's total body weight (92 kg92\text{ kg}).
2
Determine the concentration of the intravenous heparin bag.
100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}
To convert the hourly dose from units to milliliters, the concentration of the available solution (25,000 units÷250 mL25,000\text{ units} \div 250\text{ mL}) must be calculated.
3
Calculate the infusion pump rate.
16.56 mL/hr16.56\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose (1656 units/hr1656\text{ units/hr}) by the solution concentration (100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}) yields the volume to be infused per hour.
4
Round to the nearest tenth.
16.616.6
The question specifically asks to record the answer using one decimal place.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based intravenous medication dosage calculation and pump rate programming.
Soru 597Soru →

Following a left-sided thoracentesis for a massive pleural effusion, a client is now recovering on the respiratory step-down unit. The procedure yielded 1,200 mL of fluid. During the initial post-procedure assessment, which observation demands the most urgent intervention by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The onset of a persistent, hacking cough combined with unequal chest wall movement

Cevap

The onset of a persistent, hacking cough combined with unequal chest wall movement.
A sudden, persistent dry cough, dyspnea, and asymmetrical chest expansion are classic manifestations of a pneumothorax. Because a thoracentesis involves inserting a needle into the pleural space, accidentally puncturing the visceral pleura is a primary risk. Identifying these respiratory changes promptly is critical to reducing the risk of severe physiological decompensation, such as a tension pneumothorax, and requires immediate medical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the procedure and its associated risks.
The client underwent a left-sided thoracentesis, which carries a primary risk of pneumothorax due to potential needle puncture of the lung tissue.
Identifying procedure-specific risks guides the targeted physical assessment and prioritization.
2
Evaluate the clinical observations in each option against expected post-procedure outcomes.
The ABG is normal, mild tachycardia is an expected stress response, and lying on the unaffected side is a safe positioning choice. The sudden cough and asymmetrical chest movement represent abnormal, high-risk pathology.
Differentiating between benign physiological responses and pathological changes is essential for accurate risk reduction.
3
Determine the priority intervention based on the abnormal finding.
The persistent cough and asymmetrical chest expansion indicate a developing pneumothorax, requiring immediate provider notification.
Early identification of respiratory compromise prevents severe physiological decompensation.

Anahtar Kavram

Thoracentesis Complications and Risk Reduction
Soru 598Soru →

Following an open laparotomy, a client is receiving pain management via a continuous epidural infusion containing bupivacaine and fentanyl. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the client is deeply sedated and unarousable. The client's respiratory rate is 7 breaths per minute. Which action represents the nurse's immediate priority?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the epidural infusion and prepare to administer intravenous naloxone.

Cevap

The immediate priority is to stop the epidural infusion and prepare to administer intravenous naloxone.
The client is exhibiting severe respiratory depression (7 breaths per minute) and profound sedation, which are signs of opioid toxicity from the epidural fentanyl. The nurse's absolute priority is to address the breathing compromise (ABCs) by immediately stopping the source of the medication and preparing the specific pharmacological antidote, naloxone, to reverse the respiratory depression.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the clinical signs presented in the scenario.
The client is unarousable with a respiratory rate of 7 breaths per minute.
These are hallmark indicators of severe opioid toxicity induced by the fentanyl in the epidural infusion.
2
Prioritize nursing interventions using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework.
Breathing is severely compromised and takes absolute priority over other assessments.
Respiratory failure is the most immediate threat to the client's life.
3
Determine the appropriate pharmacological and parenteral intervention.
Halt the continuous epidural infusion and prepare the opioid antagonist.
Stopping the epidural prevents further medication delivery, and naloxone reverses the existing central nervous system and respiratory depression.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of opioid toxicity and safe administration of continuous epidural therapies.
Soru 599Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client admitted with severe pyelonephritis who is suspected of developing early (hyperdynamic) septic shock. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find during this initial compensatory stage? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Heart rate of 118 beats/min; Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min; Warm, flushed skin

Cevap

The correct findings include a heart rate of 118 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, and warm, flushed skin.
In early septic shock, endotoxins trigger a systemic inflammatory response leading to profound peripheral vasodilation. This hyperdynamic state causes the skin to be warm and flushed. To compensate for the decreased systemic vascular resistance and maintain oxygen delivery, the heart rate and respiratory rate increase.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's condition and the stage of shock presented in the scenario.
The client is in the early (hyperdynamic or 'warm') stage of septic shock.
Identifying the specific type and stage of shock is essential for predicting the physiological manifestations.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic and respiratory changes typical of early septic shock.
Inflammatory mediators cause massive vasodilation (warm, flushed skin), leading to a compensatory increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and respiratory rate (tachypnea).
The body attempts to maintain oxygen delivery and cardiac output despite decreased systemic vascular resistance.
3
Differentiate these early signs from late septic shock or other types of shock.
Cool extremities, narrowing pulse pressure, and respiratory acidosis are eliminated as they represent late septic shock or hypovolemic/cardiogenic shock.
Applying the correct physiological adaptation principles prevents confusing different shock etiologies and stages.

Anahtar Kavram

In the early (hyperdynamic) stage of septic shock, inflammatory mediators cause massive systemic vasodilation resulting in warm, flushed skin, bounding pulses, tachycardia, and tachypnea.
Soru 600Soru →

Following a high-speed collision, an adult client is brought into the trauma bay with a suspected splenic laceration. Initial assessment reveals generalized restlessness, pale mucous membranes, a blood pressure of 96/76 mm Hg, and an apical pulse of 118 beats/min. A stat arterial blood gas panel indicates a pH of 7.29, PaCO2 of 35 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution

Cevap

Initiate rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution
The client's narrow pulse pressure, tachycardia, restlessness, and metabolic acidosis all point to hemorrhagic shock and poor tissue perfusion. The most critical immediate action is to restore circulating volume using isotonic fluids to improve blood pressure, cardiac output, and cellular oxygen delivery.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The client has a narrow pulse pressure of 20 mm Hg (96 - 76 = 20), tachycardia (118 beats/min), restlessness, and pale mucous membranes.
These findings are classic early indicators of compensatory hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock due to acute blood loss.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
A pH of 7.29 and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L indicate metabolic acidosis.
In the context of trauma and hypoperfusion, this represents lactic acidosis caused by anaerobic metabolism from inadequate cellular oxygen delivery.
3
Prioritize the immediate nursing interventions based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The immediate priority is restoring circulating blood volume to support circulation and perfusion.
Administering isotonic crystalloids addresses the root cause of both the shock and the secondary metabolic acidosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing and managing hypovolemic shock and secondary lactic acidosis in trauma clients.
ÖncekiSayfa 30 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 30 | Examkin