Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 741Soru →

A client is receiving intravenous morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump following a bowel resection. During hourly rounds, the nurse notes the client has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/minute8 \text{ breaths/minute}, pinpoint pupils, and is unresponsive to physical stimulation. The nurse immediately stops the PCA pump, calls for assistance, and receives a verbal prescription for naloxone 0.4 mg0.4 \text{ mg} IV stat. Which action by the nurse demonstrates the safest administration technique for this medication?

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Cevap: Dilute the medication in 9 mL9 \text{ mL} of normal saline and administer it incrementally over 22 to 3 minutes3 \text{ minutes}.

Cevap

The safest administration technique is to dilute the naloxone in 9 mL9 \text{ mL} of normal saline and administer it incrementally over 22 to 3 minutes3 \text{ minutes}.
The standard of care for administering naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression who is receiving pain management is to administer it slowly. Diluting an ampule of naloxone (0.4 mg0.4 \text{ mg} in 1 mL1 \text{ mL}) with 9 mL9 \text{ mL} of normal saline yields a concentration of 0.04 mg/mL0.04 \text{ mg/mL}. This allows the nurse to slowly titrate the medication (e.g., 11 to 2 mL2 \text{ mL} per minute) until the client's respiratory rate improves. This controlled reversal prevents acute opioid withdrawal, sudden excruciating pain, and sympathetic nervous system surges that can cause pulmonary edema or arrhythmias.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's condition and recognize signs of severe opioid toxicity.
Identified respiratory rate of 8 breaths/minute8 \text{ breaths/minute}, pinpoint pupils, and unresponsiveness.
Early recognition of life-threatening respiratory depression dictates immediate intervention.
2
Identify the risks associated with the administration of the prescribed antidote (naloxone).
Recognized that rapid administration can cause acute withdrawal, severe pain, and cardiovascular collapse.
Naloxone displaces opioids from receptors instantly; if done too rapidly, the sudden reversal causes a massive sympathetic nervous system response.
3
Determine the safest preparation and administration rate.
Dilute the 0.4 mg0.4 \text{ mg} dose in 9 mL9 \text{ mL} of normal saline (creating a 0.04 mg/mL0.04 \text{ mg/mL} concentration) and push slowly.
Titrating the dose incrementally allows the nurse to reverse the respiratory depression without completely reversing the analgesic effects.
4
Ensure a safe route of administration.
Avoid pushing the medication through the opioid-primed PCA tubing.
Pushing through the PCA tubing would flush a bolus of concentrated morphine into the client, worsening the toxicity.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of opioid antagonists and management of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) complications.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 742Soru →

A triage nurse evaluates a client presenting with a 4-day history of frequent, watery diarrhea and an inability to drink fluids. The client is lethargic and exhibits delayed capillary refill. Assessment reveals a heart rate of 124 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/minute with deep chest excursions, and a blood pressure of 94/76 mm Hg. Arterial blood gas (ABG) testing indicates a pH of 7.25, PaCO2 of 27 mm Hg, HCO3 of 12 mEq/L, and PaO2 of 96 mm Hg on room air. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform FIRST?

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Cevap: Start a rapid infusion of prescribed isotonic crystalloid fluids.

Cevap

The priority action is to start a rapid infusion of prescribed isotonic crystalloid fluids to treat hypovolemic shock and restore tissue perfusion.
The correct answer directly addresses the most life-threatening condition: hypovolemic shock. The client's history of severe fluid loss, combined with lethargy, tachycardia, and a dangerously narrowed pulse pressure, necessitates immediate intravascular volume replacement with isotonic fluids to ensure adequate tissue perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client has a heart rate of 124 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 94/76 mm Hg (narrowed pulse pressure of 18 mm Hg), lethargy, and delayed capillary refill.
These findings are classic early indicators of hypovolemic shock requiring immediate circulatory support.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the client's history.
The pH of 7.25 and HCO3 of 12 mEq/L indicate severe metabolic acidosis (from bicarbonate loss in diarrhea and lactic acid from poor perfusion). The PaCO2 of 27 mm Hg and deep, rapid respirations indicate respiratory compensation.
Understanding the acid-base imbalance confirms that the respiratory changes are compensatory and that the primary derangement is metabolic and circulatory.
3
Prioritize nursing interventions using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs.
Circulatory collapse is the most immediate life-threatening issue. Fluid resuscitation is the priority intervention.
Restoring intravascular volume will improve tissue perfusion, resolve the lactic acidosis component, and stabilize the client's hemodynamics.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of care for a client experiencing hypovolemic shock and compensatory metabolic acidosis.
Soru 743Soru →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be returning to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. Which of the following nursing actions should be included to reduce the risk of post-procedure complications? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Position the client in a right lateral position with a small towel placed under the puncture site.; Maintain the client on strict bed rest for the first 2 to 4 hours after the procedure.; Assess for a subtle, sustained increase in heart rate and respiratory rate as signs of hypovolemia.

Cevap

The appropriate interventions include positioning the client on their right side with a towel under the site, maintaining strict bed rest for 2 to 4 hours, and assessing for early indicators of shock such as a sustained increase in heart rate.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the client is at high risk for significant bleeding due to the liver's dense vascularity. Positioning the client in a right lateral position with a small towel or pillow under the puncture site provides direct mechanical pressure to the liver capsule, which promotes hemostasis. Strict bed rest for 2 to 4 hours is necessary to minimize intra-abdominal pressure and prevent the dislodgment of forming clots. Finally, because internal bleeding can occur, the nurse must monitor for early compensatory signs of hypovolemia, most notably a subtle and sustained increase in heart rate and respiratory rate, which often precede an actual drop in blood pressure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary risk associated with a percutaneous liver biopsy.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, making severe internal hemorrhage the most significant immediate post-procedure complication.
Understanding the most dangerous complication dictates the priority preventative interventions.
2
Determine the appropriate mechanical interventions to prevent bleeding.
The nurse must position the client in a right lateral position to compress the liver against the chest wall and maintain strict bed rest.
Direct pressure and immobility facilitate clot formation at the highly vascular puncture site.
3
Evaluate the remaining systemic monitoring and delegation options.
Recognize that narrowing (not widening) pulse pressure and tachycardia indicate early shock, and recall that initial post-procedure assessments cannot be delegated.
The RN is responsible for detecting early subtle signs of physiological decompensation before delegating routine tasks.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Liver Biopsy Care
Soru 744Soru →

A registered nurse (RN) is caring for a critically ill client diagnosed with sepsis. The client's current vital signs include a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg88/54\text{ mmHg}, heart rate of 112 beats/min112\text{ beats/min}, and a temperature of 38.9∘C38.9^\circ\text{C} (102∘F102^\circ\text{F}). The client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine through a single-lumen peripheral IV catheter to maintain hemodynamic stability. The healthcare provider prescribes a new intermittent IV piggyback of piperacillin-tazobactam. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrate safe pharmacological and parenteral practices? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Consult a drug reference guide or a clinical pharmacist to verify the Y-site compatibility of piperacillin-tazobactam and dopamine.; Assess the patency of the peripheral IV site and evaluate for signs of phlebitis or extravasation before initiating the antibiotic.; Calculate the piperacillin-tazobactam infusion rate in milliliters per hour (mL/hr) and administer the medication using an electronic infusion pump.

Cevap

The correct actions are to verify Y-site compatibility between the two medications, assess the IV insertion site for patency and potential complications, and utilize an electronic infusion pump for precise delivery of the antibiotic.
The correct actions prioritize client safety and adherence to strict pharmacological standards. Verifying Y-site compatibility prevents adverse drug reactions and dangerous precipitation in the IV line. Assessing the IV site ensures the vein is patent, which is crucial when administering vesicant or irritant medications. Utilizing an electronic infusion pump guarantees that the antibiotic is delivered at a precise and safe rate, minimizing the risk of infusion-related toxicity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical condition and current therapies.
The client is hemodynamically unstable (hypotensive) and relies on a continuous dopamine infusion to maintain adequate circulation and perfusion.
Understanding the purpose of continuous vasoactive medications is essential to prioritize actions related to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
2
Evaluate the safety principles required for administering a new IV piggyback medication.
The nurse must verify Y-site compatibility, thoroughly assess the insertion site, and calculate the correct pump rate in mL/hr.
These standard practices ensure that the newly prescribed medication does not precipitate with the primary infusion and is delivered safely into a functioning vein.
3
Identify contraindicated actions and improper delegation choices.
Pausing the life-sustaining dopamine infusion, assuming universal IV compatibility, and delegating nursing assessments to a UAP are identified as incorrect.
These actions directly compromise client safety, violate the nursing scope of practice, and ignore fundamental pharmacological and prioritization principles.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of multiple IV medications requires verifying Y-site compatibility, utilizing infusion pumps for precise delivery, and maintaining continuous life-sustaining infusions without dangerous interruptions.
Soru 745Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 72-year-old client in the intensive care unit, 12 hours post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The client was extubated 4 hours ago. Over the last hour, the mediastinal chest tube drainage has abruptly decreased from 120 mL/hr to 10 mL/hr. The client's current physiological data are as follows:

- Blood pressure: 86/68 mmHg
- Heart rate: 124 bpm
- Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
- Central Venous Pressure (CVP): 15 mmHg (baseline was 6 mmHg)
- Arterial Blood Gas (ABG): pH 7.30, PaCO2PaCO_2 32 mmHg, PaO2PaO_2 82 mmHg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 15 mEq/L
- Assessment: Heart sounds are muffled, and the client is increasingly restless.

Based on the interpretation of this clinical data, which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST to reduce the risk of severe physiological decompensation?

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Cevap: Prepare the client for an immediate echocardiogram and anticipate an emergency pericardiocentesis.

Cevap

The correct action is to prepare the client for an immediate echocardiogram and anticipate an emergency pericardiocentesis.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad: hypotension, muffled heart sounds, elevated central venous pressure) combined with a sudden cessation of chest tube drainage. This represents obstructive shock requiring immediate echocardiography to confirm, followed by pericardiocentesis or sternotomy to relieve the pressure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The client has a narrowed pulse pressure (86 - 68 = 18 mmHg), tachycardia, an elevated CVP, and muffled heart sounds.
Identifying these specific hemodynamic changes is necessary to recognize Beck's triad, a cardinal indicator of cardiac tamponade.
2
Evaluate the change in chest tube drainage.
Drainage dropped abruptly from 120 mL/hr to 10 mL/hr.
Sudden cessation of drainage after open-heart surgery suggests a clot has formed in the tube, causing blood to accumulate in the pericardial space.
3
Interpret the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results.
pH is 7.30 (acidosis), HCO3−HCO_3^- is 15 mEq/L (metabolic cause), and PaCO2PaCO_2 is 32 mmHg (partial respiratory compensation).
This confirms partially compensated metabolic acidosis, likely secondary to poor tissue perfusion (lactic acidosis) from reduced cardiac output.
4
Determine the highest priority intervention to prevent arrest.
Prepare for an emergency echocardiogram and pericardiocentesis.
Cardiac tamponade is an acute obstructive shock that requires immediate mechanical decompression to restore ventricular filling and cardiac output.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and emergency management of cardiac tamponade post-cardiac surgery.
Soru 746Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 45-year-old client who is 4 hours post-operative following an abdominal hysterectomy. Over the last hour, the client's blood pressure has trended from 124/76124/76 mm Hg to 110/84110/84 mm Hg, and the heart rate has increased from 7878 to 115115 beats/min. The client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results on room air are: pH 7.387.38, PaCO2 4040 mm Hg, HCO3 2424 mEq/L, and PaO2 9292 mm Hg. The client reports mild incisional pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Administer prescribed intravenous fluids and notify the healthcare provider.

Cevap

The nurse should first administer prescribed intravenous fluids and notify the healthcare provider to manage early compensatory shock.
The client is demonstrating early signs of hypovolemic shock, evidenced by a significantly increased heart rate and a narrowing pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure has decreased from 4848 mm Hg to 2626 mm Hg). In the compensatory stage of shock, the sympathetic nervous system causes systemic vasoconstriction, which raises the diastolic pressure while the systolic pressure drops or remains stable, resulting in a narrow pulse pressure. Immediate administration of intravenous fluids and provider notification are critical to prevent further physiological decompensation and restore adequate perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital sign trends over the last hour.
The pulse pressure has narrowed from 4848 mm Hg (124−76124 - 76) to 2626 mm Hg (110−84110 - 84), and the heart rate has increased significantly to 115115 beats/min.
Identifying subtle changes in vital signs is crucial for detecting early physiological decompensation.
2
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The pH (7.387.38), PaCO2 (4040 mm Hg), HCO3 (2424 mEq/L), and PaO2 (9292 mm Hg) are all completely within normal limits.
This rules out respiratory or metabolic acid-base imbalances as the cause of the client's changing condition.
3
Synthesize the assessment data to determine the highest physiological risk.
The combination of tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure in a post-operative client indicates early (compensatory) hypovolemic shock, likely due to internal hemorrhage.
Early recognition of shock allows for immediate intervention before irreversible tissue damage occurs.
4
Select the most appropriate nursing intervention.
Administering prescribed intravenous fluids and immediately notifying the healthcare provider is the priority.
Fluid resuscitation increases intravascular volume to support blood pressure and perfusion while the provider determines the source of bleeding.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and management of hypovolemic shock in the post-operative period.
Soru 747Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 65-year-old client admitted with a heart failure exacerbation and a suspected systemic infection. The client has a continuous peripheral intravenous (IV) infusion of Lactated Ringer's solution running at 75 mL/hr. The client's current vital signs are blood pressure 138/85 mmHg, heart rate 92 beats/min, and respiratory rate 18 breaths/min. The healthcare provider has prescribed several new IV medications to manage the client's condition. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrate safe pharmacological and parenteral therapy principles? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Verifying Y-site compatibility in an approved drug reference prior to administering an intravenous push dose of ondansetron for nausea.; Administering a prescribed intravenous push dose of furosemide slowly at a rate not exceeding 20 mg per minute.; Flushing the intravenous catheter with preservative-free 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administering an incompatible medication.

Cevap

The correct actions include verifying Y-site compatibility, administering furosemide slowly to prevent ototoxicity, and flushing the intravenous line with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after giving incompatible medications.
Safe parenteral therapy requires strict adherence to administration guidelines to prevent life-threatening complications. Verifying Y-site compatibility is an essential pre-administration assessment to prevent adverse interactions in the intravenous tubing. Administering intravenous furosemide slowly (not exceeding 20 mg/minute) is necessary to prevent speed shock and ototoxicity. When administering an incompatible medication through an existing line, the nurse must adequately flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after the dose to ensure the incompatible drugs do not mix.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the compatibility of prescribed medications with the continuous Lactated Ringer's infusion.
Recognize that ceftriaxone is strictly incompatible with calcium-containing Lactated Ringer's, while the compatibility of other medications like ondansetron must be verified before administration.
Preventing fatal intravenous precipitates is a critical priority in parenteral therapy.
2
Evaluate the safe administration rates for high-alert intravenous medications.
Determine that potassium chloride must not exceed 10 mEq/hr peripherally, and furosemide must be pushed slowly at a maximum rate of 20 mg/min.
Rapid administration of potassium causes life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, and rapid furosemide causes ototoxicity.
3
Determine the appropriate scope of practice regarding intravenous therapy monitoring.
Identify that assessing an intravenous site for complications like phlebitis or infiltration requires clinical judgment.
The registered nurse remains accountable for patient assessment and cannot delegate this task to unlicensed assistive personnel.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Parenteral Therapy and Medication Administration Principles
Soru 748Soru →

A clinical nurse evaluates a client who is 88 hours post-operative following a laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. Which of the following nursing actions or clinical judgments are appropriate to reduce the risk of physiological decompensation? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Administering a prescribed intravenous analgesic 3030 minutes before assisting the client with incentive spirometry.; Notifying the rapid response team if the client develops sudden restlessness, mild tachycardia, and a narrowing pulse pressure.; Assisting the client with early ambulation in the unit hallway to promote pulmonary expansion and venous return.

Cevap

The appropriate actions are administering analgesics before spirometry, notifying the rapid response team for early signs of shock, and assisting with early ambulation.
Clients recovering from major bariatric surgery are at elevated risk for cardiopulmonary complications and anastomotic leaks. Providing intravenous analgesia before pulmonary hygiene (incentive spirometry) ensures the client can tolerate deep diaphragmatic breathing. Early ambulation is a core standard of care to prevent deep vein thrombosis and promote gastrointestinal motility. Furthermore, acute restlessness paired with a narrowing pulse pressure and mild tachycardia are classic early, subtle indicators of compensatory shock (often due to hemorrhage or sepsis from an internal leak), which necessitates immediate escalation to a rapid response team.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate post-operative respiratory care principles for bariatric clients.
Pain control prior to incentive spirometry is essential to allow deep diaphragmatic excursion. Early ambulation is also critical to prevent atelectasis and venous stasis.
Bariatric clients are at extremely high risk for pulmonary complications due to restricted chest wall expansion and abdominal pain.
2
Analyze the significance of the presented arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
A pH of 7.287.28 combined with a PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 5858 mm Hg indicates acute, uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
This is a pathological state of hypoventilation that signals impending respiratory failure, not a benign residual effect of anesthesia.
3
Identify clinical signs of severe postoperative complications such as anastomotic leak or hemorrhage.
Restlessness, tachycardia, and a narrowing pulse pressure are early compensatory mechanisms for shock. Unrelieved left shoulder pain (Kehr's sign) indicates phrenic nerve irritation from peritonitis or intra-abdominal bleeding.
Recognizing early physiological deterioration prevents progression to irreversible shock or systemic sepsis.
4
Determine the correct client positioning requirements.
The client must be placed in a semi-Fowler's position, not completely supine.
Semi-Fowler's position utilizes gravity to pull abdominal adipose tissue away from the diaphragm, improving lung expansion and reducing tension on the gastrointestinal anastomosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of subtle physiological deterioration and application of appropriate post-operative pulmonary/hemodynamic interventions reduces risk potential.
Soru 749Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an oral suspension of amoxicillin to a pediatric client who weighs 3333 lb. The provider's prescription is for 2020 mg/kg/dose. What is the amount, in milligrams, the nurse should administer for a single dose? (Record your answer as a whole number.)

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Cevap: 300

Cevap

The nurse should administer 300 mg per dose.
To find the correct dose, the nurse must first convert the child's weight to kilograms by dividing by 2.22.2 (33÷2.2=1533 \div 2.2 = 15 kg). Then, the nurse multiplies the weight in kilograms by the prescribed dosage (15 kg×20 mg/kg=30015 \text{ kg} \times 20 \text{ mg/kg} = 300 mg). The required amount for a single dose is 300300 mg.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg).
33÷2.2=1533 \div 2.2 = 15 kg
Medical dosages based on weight are standardized using kilograms. Failing to convert pounds to kilograms will result in an overdose.
2
Calculate the total milligrams required for one dose.
$15 \text{ kg} \times 20 \text{ mg/kg} = 300 \text{ mg}
This determines the precise dose for the child based on their exact body mass.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based pediatric dosage calculations
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 750Soru →

A nurse is discontinuing a client's central venous catheter (CVC). Immediately after the catheter is removed, the client gasps, reports sudden severe chest pain, and becomes distinctly cyanotic. The nurse suspects a venous air embolism. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence of actions for a suspected air embolism is: 1) Apply a sterile, occlusive dressing, 2) Position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, 3) Administer 100% oxygen, 4) Notify the healthcare provider, and 5) Obtain a complete set of vital signs.
A venous air embolism is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate, sequential actions to prevent cardiac arrest. The first priority is always to stop the source of the problem by occluding the central line insertion site. Next, Durant's maneuver (left lateral Trendelenburg) is utilized to mechanically trap the air in the right ventricle apex, preventing pulmonary outflow obstruction. Only after securing the site and positioning the client should the nurse administer 100% oxygen to treat hypoxemia and reduce the nitrogen bubble size. Finally, the nurse calls for advanced help and continues to closely monitor the client's hemodynamic status.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Halt the influx of air.
Apply a sterile, occlusive dressing over the central line site.
The priority is to eliminate the root cause of the crisis to prevent the air embolus from enlarging.
2
Prevent embolus migration.
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
This specific position (Durant's maneuver) utilizes gravity to trap the existing air in the right ventricle, preventing it from traveling into the pulmonary artery.
3
Treat hypoxia and shrink the embolus.
Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
High-concentration oxygen relieves systemic hypoxemia and speeds up the reabsorption of nitrogen gas from the bubble.
4
Escalate care.
Notify the healthcare provider and rapid response team.
Advanced interventions and potential resuscitation will be required; help must be summoned.
5
Reassess and monitor.
Obtain vital signs and monitor oxygen saturation.
Continuous monitoring guides ongoing resuscitation efforts and evaluates the effectiveness of the initial interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of a venous air embolism prioritizes stopping the air source, utilizing gravity to trap the air in the right ventricle (Durant's maneuver), and treating severe hypoxia.
Soru 751Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who underwent a percutaneous liver biopsy two hours ago. The client is currently resting in a supine position. The latest vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 102/64 mm Hg, a heart rate of 118 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. The client's baseline heart rate before the procedure was 76 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first to reduce the risk of a severe complication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assist the client into a right side-lying position and place a rolled towel under the puncture site.

Cevap

The most appropriate initial action is to assist the client into a right side-lying position and place a rolled towel under the puncture site to apply direct pressure to the liver.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, and hemorrhage is a major life-threatening complication following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The client's new-onset tachycardia (118 bpm) is a classic early physiological indicator of hemorrhagic shock. The immediate, independent nursing priority is to apply direct pressure to the internal bleeding site. Placing the client in a right side-lying position utilizes the body's weight to compress the liver against the chest and abdominal wall, effectively tamponading the bleeding and reducing further physiological risk.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's procedural history and current vital signs.
The client had a percutaneous liver biopsy and now exhibits a new onset of tachycardia (heart rate increased from 76 to 118 bpm).
Establishing the baseline and recognizing deviations helps identify early post-procedural complications.
2
Identify the most likely physiological complication associated with these findings.
Because the liver is a highly vascular organ, the sudden tachycardia is a classic early sign of internal bleeding and impending hemorrhagic shock.
Linking the procedure's specific risks to the client's current clinical picture is essential for prioritizing risk reduction.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention to mitigate this specific risk.
The nurse must immediately apply direct pressure to the internal biopsy site.
Source control of bleeding takes precedence over secondary interventions or provider notification.
4
Select the clinical action that effectively achieves direct internal pressure.
Assisting the client into a right side-lying position with a towel under the puncture site.
This positioning utilizes the client's body weight to compress the liver against the chest wall, effectively tamponading the bleeding.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedural hemorrhage mitigation and positioning
Soru 752Soru →

A young adult client is admitted to the orthopedic trauma unit following a closed fracture of the right femoral shaft sustained 18 hours ago. The client is currently in skin traction awaiting surgical fixation. Which of the following assessment findings indicate the development of a life-threatening systemic complication requiring immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Small, pinpoint, non-blanching red spots distributed across the anterior chest, neck, and axillae.; Arterial blood gas results demonstrating a pHpH of 7.527.52, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 28 mm Hg28 \text{ mm Hg}, and PaO2PaO_2 of 54 mm Hg54 \text{ mm Hg} on room air.; Sudden onset of profound restlessness, agitation, and disorientation to time and place.

Cevap

The correct findings indicating a life-threatening systemic complication are the petechial rash on the upper body, arterial blood gas values showing severe hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis, and a sudden onset of restlessness and disorientation.
The correct findings represent the classic clinical triad of Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES): respiratory compromise (severe hypoxemia and hyperventilation leading to uncompensated respiratory alkalosis), neurologic deterioration (restlessness and confusion due to cerebral hypoxia), and a petechial rash (caused by microvascular occlusion). FES is a life-threatening emergency that typically occurs 12 to 48 hours after a long bone fracture and requires immediate supportive care and oxygenation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario, the mechanism of injury, and the time frame.
The client has a long bone (femur) fracture sustained 18 hours ago, placing them at peak risk for Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES), acute compartment syndrome, and hemorrhage.
Long bone fractures can release fat globules into the bloodstream, typically manifesting as FES 12 to 48 hours post-injury.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against the classic clinical triad of Fat Embolism Syndrome.
The triad includes respiratory distress (hypoxemia, respiratory alkalosis), neurological changes (agitation, confusion), and cutaneous manifestations (petechiae on the chest, neck, and axillae).
Identifying the exact clinical markers of FES is essential for rapid respiratory intervention and risk reduction.
3
Differentiate expected postoperative or post-trauma findings from true medical emergencies.
Pain relieved by opioids, stable vital signs without shock indicators, and mild positioning discomfort are expected and do not require immediate rapid response team activation.
Triage and prioritization require distinguishing between normal physiological stress responses and impending physiological collapse.

Anahtar Kavram

Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) Triad and Complication Recognition
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 753Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who was admitted with severe acute pancreatitis. The client develops sudden, severe dyspnea, and the healthcare provider suspects the onset of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following assessment and diagnostic findings would support a diagnosis of ARDS? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Arterial oxygen tension (PaO2PaO_2) of 55 mm Hg despite receiving 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask; Diffuse, bilateral alveolar infiltrates observed on a chest radiograph; Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) reading of 12 mm Hg

Cevap

The findings that support a diagnosis of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) are refractory hypoxemia (low PaO2PaO_2 despite high oxygen delivery), diffuse bilateral alveolar infiltrates on a chest radiograph, and a normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP of 12 mm Hg).
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) occurs when inflammatory processes damage the alveolar-capillary membrane, allowing protein-rich fluid to flood the alveoli. This non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema prevents effective gas exchange, leading to refractory hypoxemia (a persistently low PaO2PaO_2 despite high oxygen delivery) and the classic 'white-out' or diffuse bilateral infiltrates seen on a chest radiograph. Because the source of the edema is capillary permeability rather than left-sided heart failure, the pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) remains within normal limits (typically 6 to 12 mm Hg, or less than 18 mm Hg), confirming a non-cardiogenic origin.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the suspected pathology and its primary physiological mechanism.
The client is suspected of having Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), which is characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema caused by a systemic inflammatory response (such as from severe acute pancreatitis) leading to alveolar capillary membrane damage.
Understanding the pathophysiology of ARDS differentiates it from cardiogenic pulmonary edema and guides the interpretation of clinical findings.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against the Berlin definition and clinical hallmarks of ARDS.
Refractory hypoxemia and bilateral infiltrates are classic hallmarks. A normal PAWP confirms the edema is non-cardiogenic.
Applying diagnostic criteria allows for accurate identification of the condition.
3
Analyze the remaining options to rule out findings that represent different pathologies or stages.
Initial presentation of ARDS typically involves respiratory alkalosis due to tachypnea, not acidosis. Furthermore, fluid challenges do not improve ARDS and can actually worsen the alveolar fluid accumulation.
Distinguishing early compensatory mechanisms and avoiding contraindicated interventions are critical aspects of clinical judgment.

Anahtar Kavram

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is a form of acute respiratory failure characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, refractory hypoxemia, and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 754Soru →

A client with a severe exacerbation of Crohn's disease is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The healthcare provider prescribes an intravenous (IV) push dose of famotidine every 12 hours. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a separate peripheral intravenous catheter for the administration of the famotidine.; Administer the intravenous famotidine slowly over at least 2 minutes to prevent sudden cardiovascular adverse effects.; Monitor the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours during the continuous TPN therapy.

Cevap

The appropriate actions are establishing a separate peripheral IV for the famotidine, administering the famotidine slowly over at least 2 minutes, and monitoring capillary blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains complex mixtures of amino acids, dextrose, and electrolytes that are highly incompatible with many medications. Standard safe practice requires TPN to have a strictly dedicated intravenous line. Because the client has a single-lumen PICC, the nurse must establish a separate peripheral IV access to safely administer the famotidine. When administering famotidine via IV push, it must be given slowly over a minimum of 2 minutes to avoid adverse cardiovascular effects such as hypotension or dysrhythmias. Additionally, due to the high dextrose content infused continuously during TPN therapy, the nurse must monitor the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours to detect and manage hyperglycemia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the access device and the current continuous therapy.
The client has a single-lumen PICC that is dedicated to a continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusion.
Identifying the specific type of venous access and current infusions determines how new intravenous medications can be safely administered without causing incompatibilities.
2
Evaluate the standard safety principles for TPN administration.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated line and cannot be paused, flushed, or mixed with other medications in a single lumen.
This strict protocol prevents severe chemical precipitation in the line and minimizes the high risk of central line-associated bloodstream infections.
3
Determine the correct administration route and technique for the new medication.
A new peripheral IV must be established for the famotidine, and the medication must be pushed slowly over at least 2 minutes.
A separate peripheral line maintains the integrity of the TPN infusion. Slow administration of famotidine prevents adverse cardiovascular responses, such as severe hypotension.
4
Identify the ongoing monitoring requirements for a client on TPN therapy.
Capillary blood glucose must be monitored every 4 to 6 hours.
The continuous infusion of highly concentrated dextrose in TPN places the client at constant risk for hyperglycemia, requiring routine monitoring.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) and IV push medications.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 755Soru →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a 75-year-old client who is on strict bed rest due to severe weakness from bacterial pneumonia. The client has also begun experiencing sudden periods of confusion in the evenings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Float the client's heels off the mattress by placing a pillow lengthwise under the lower legs.; Provide a gentle back rub and dim the overhead lighting to promote relaxation before sleep.; Perform frequent oral hygiene using a soft-bristled brush or moistened sponge swab.

Cevap

The correct interventions are floating the heels off the mattress, providing a back rub with dimmed lighting, and performing frequent oral hygiene.
The correct interventions directly address the client's fundamental needs for skin protection, sleep promotion, and hygiene. Floating the heels prevents pressure ulcers, providing a back rub and dimming lights facilitates restorative sleep, and frequent oral care maintains mucous membrane health.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the client's risk for skin breakdown due to bed rest and weakness.
Identify the need to protect bony prominences by floating the heels with a pillow.
Immobility greatly increases the risk of pressure injuries, and basic care must prioritize skin integrity.
2
Assess the need for non-pharmacological comfort and sleep promotion.
Select interventions like back rubs and environmental noise/light reduction.
Illness and hospital environments often disrupt normal sleep patterns, requiring proactive nursing comfort measures.
3
Identify hygiene requirements for a client on strict bed rest.
Include frequent oral care in the plan.
Regular oral hygiene maintains mucosal integrity, prevents further infection, and enhances client comfort.
4
Analyze the remaining distractors for contraindicated nursing practices.
Exclude delegating assessments to UAP, using improper knee positioning, and dismissing acute confusion as normal aging.
These actions compromise client safety, violate delegation principles, and ignore signs of acute physiological distress.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care and comfort encompasses interventions that maintain skin integrity, promote sleep, ensure proper hygiene, and protect the client from physiological harm while avoiding unsafe positioning or improper delegation.
Soru 756Soru →

A 64-year-old client is admitted to the progressive care unit 2 hours after a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral approach. During the focused assessment, which clinical findings indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a potential complication requiring immediate intervention? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The client reports a new, severe aching pain in the lower back and right flank.; The client's blood pressure decreases from 135/82135/82 mmHg to 105/76105/76 mmHg, and heart rate increases from 7878 bpm to 114114 bpm.; The right pedal pulse is graded as +1+1, while the left pedal pulse is graded as +2+2.

Cevap

The findings requiring immediate intervention are new severe lower back and flank pain, a drop in blood pressure with tachycardia and narrowed pulse pressure, and a diminished right pedal pulse compared to the left.
Following a percutaneous coronary intervention via the femoral artery, the primary physiological risks are bleeding (including occult retroperitoneal bleeding) and arterial occlusion. The correct findings highlight severe complications: lower back or flank pain indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage; tachycardia with a narrowing pulse pressure signals early hemorrhagic shock; and diminished pedal pulses indicate impaired distal perfusion from a clot or hematoma.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's risk profile based on the procedure.
The client underwent a right femoral PCI, placing them at high risk for arterial bleeding, hematoma formation, and retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Identifying procedure-specific risks directs the focused physical assessment.
2
Evaluate the vital signs and subjective pain reports for signs of bleeding.
The client demonstrates narrowing pulse pressure with tachycardia, and new ipsilateral flank pain.
These are primary indicators of occult bleeding (retroperitoneal hemorrhage) and early shock.
3
Assess peripheral perfusion distal to the puncture site.
The right pedal pulse is weaker than the left.
Asymmetry in pulses distal to the puncture site suggests arterial compromise requiring immediate evaluation.
4
Differentiate between expected post-procedural findings and abnormal complications.
Mild site tenderness, a low-Fowler's position, and normal ABGs are expected or therapeutic.
Prioritizing true complications prevents unnecessary interventions and ensures immediate life-saving actions are taken when indicated.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedural assessment and identification of life-threatening complications (retroperitoneal bleeding, shock, and arterial occlusion) following femoral artery access.
Soru 757Soru →

A client recovering from an ischemic stroke with left-sided hemiparesis and mild dysphagia is cleared to begin a soft oral diet. Which nursing action represents the safest approach to managing this client's nutritional intake?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Instruct the client to flex the neck and tuck the chin downward toward the chest while swallowing.

Cevap

Instruct the client to flex the neck and tuck the chin downward toward the chest while swallowing.
The correct action is instructing the client to use the chin-tuck maneuver. Flexing the neck and tucking the chin downward toward the chest helps protect the airway by mechanically narrowing the laryngeal opening and widening the esophageal opening. This facilitates safer swallowing and directly reduces the risk of aspiration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's clinical condition and primary risk.
The client has dysphagia following a stroke, placing them at high risk for aspiration during oral feeding.
Understanding the neurological deficit is required to implement appropriate basic care and comfort measures.
2
Evaluate the safety and physiological rationale of the proposed interventions.
The chin-tuck method is a standard, safe compensatory technique to mechanically protect the airway during swallowing.
Airway protection is the highest priority when initiating an oral diet in a client with compromised swallowing ability.

Anahtar Kavram

Dysphagia Management and Aspiration Precautions
Soru 758Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Fifteen minutes after the transfusion is initiated, the client reports severe lower back pain, chills, and shortness of breath. The nurse assesses a temperature of 38.6∘C38.6^\circ\text{C} (101.5∘F101.5^\circ\text{F}) and a heart rate of 118 beats/min118\text{ beats/min}. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the blood transfusion immediately.; Replace the blood administration set with new tubing primed with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.; Obtain a urine specimen from the client to send to the laboratory.

Cevap

The nurse should stop the blood transfusion immediately, replace the blood administration set with new tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride, and obtain a urine specimen from the client.
The client is exhibiting signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The correct sequence of priority actions involves stopping the offending agent immediately, maintaining venous access with new tubing and compatible normal saline to support blood pressure and renal perfusion, and collecting a urine specimen to assess for hemoglobinuria caused by the breakdown of red blood cells.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's symptoms.
The client has lower back pain, fever, chills, tachycardia, and dyspnea shortly after starting a transfusion.
These are the classic hallmark signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, a life-threatening emergency.
2
Determine the most critical immediate intervention.
The transfusion must be stopped immediately.
Halting the infusion prevents any additional incompatible red blood cells from entering the client's bloodstream.
3
Determine how to safely maintain intravenous access.
The nurse must attach completely new IV tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Flushing the existing blood tubing would dangerously push the remaining incompatible blood into the client. Normal saline is the only compatible fluid.
4
Identify required diagnostic follow-up.
A urine specimen must be collected.
A urine sample is needed to check for hemoglobinuria, which confirms the destruction of red blood cells (hemolysis) in the kidneys.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Soru 759Soru →

An intensive care nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition through a right subclavian central venous access device. While assessing the client, the nurse discovers that the intravenous tubing has completely disconnected from the catheter hub. The client is acutely restless, exhibiting perioral cyanosis, and auscultation reveals a loud, churning "mill-wheel" murmur over the precordium. The client's heart rate is 138138 beats per minute and blood pressure is 82/4682/46 mmHg. To mitigate the risk of a fatal physiological outcome, which sequence of actions must the nurse execute immediately?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Clamp the open catheter hub, turn the client to a left lateral Trendelenburg position, and administer 100%100\% oxygen.

Cevap

The nurse must first clamp the open catheter hub, turn the client to a left lateral Trendelenburg position, and administer 100%100\% oxygen.
The client's presentation of sudden respiratory distress, hypotension, and a "mill-wheel" murmur after a central venous catheter disconnection is the classic triad for a venous air embolism. The immediate nursing priority is to stop further air entry by clamping the catheter. Next, the client must be placed in a left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver). This specific positioning relies on gravity to keep the air bubble trapped in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into and occluding the pulmonary artery (which would cause fatal obstructive shock). Finally, administering 100%100\% oxygen promotes the diffusion and resorption of nitrogen gas from the embolus.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the complication
The disconnected central line, sudden hypoxia, hypotension, and classic "mill-wheel" murmur indicate a severe venous air embolism.
Negative intrathoracic pressure has drawn room air directly into the central venous system.
2
Stop further air entry
The nurse immediately clamps the open catheter hub.
Preventing additional air from entering the venous circulation is the absolute most critical first action.
3
Position the client appropriately
The client is placed in the left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver).
This specific position traps the air bubble in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the pulmonary artery and causing right ventricular outflow obstruction.
4
Improve oxygenation
100%100\% oxygen is administered.
High-concentration oxygen speeds up the diffusion and resorption of nitrogen gas, which makes up the majority of the air embolus.

Anahtar Kavram

Venous Air Embolism Management and Durant's Maneuver
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 760Soru →

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is lethargic, exhibits Kussmaul respirations, and reports severe abdominal pain. Initial laboratory results indicate a blood glucose of 610 mg/dL (33.9 mmol/L) and a serum pH of 7.15. The healthcare provider prescribes a comprehensive DKA treatment protocol. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct chronological order of implementation.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for managing Diabetic Ketoacidosis is to first initiate fluid resuscitation with 0.9% sodium chloride, verify the potassium level is above 3.3 mEq/L, begin the regular insulin infusion, add 5% dextrose once the glucose level reaches 250 mg/dL, and finally overlap subcutaneous insulin before discontinuing the intravenous insulin infusion.
The priority sequence for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) management addresses the most acute life threats first: hypovolemia, electrolyte disturbances, and acidosis. Fluid resuscitation (0.9% sodium chloride) is always the first intervention to restore perfusion. Next, potassium must be verified (> 3.3 mEq/L) before administering insulin to prevent fatal hypokalemia. Following this, regular IV insulin is started to stop ketogenesis and correct the acidosis. Once blood glucose drops to 250 mg/dL, dextrose must be added to IV fluids to prevent hypoglycemia and cerebral edema. Finally, subcutaneous insulin must overlap with the IV infusion to prevent rebound ketoacidosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prioritize fluid resuscitation
Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride is administered rapidly.
Severe dehydration from osmotic diuresis requires immediate intravascular volume expansion to maintain tissue perfusion and hemodynamic stability.
2
Assess electrolyte safety
Serum potassium is verified to be > 3.3 mEq/L.
Insulin therapy drives potassium into the cells; starting insulin with profound hypokalemia can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.
3
Initiate insulin therapy
A continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin is started.
Insulin is required to correct the severe hyperglycemia, stop lipolysis, and reverse the metabolic acidosis.
4
Modify fluid composition based on glucose response
5% dextrose is added when blood glucose decreases to 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L).
Adding dextrose prevents a rapid decline in blood glucose (hypoglycemia) and limits sudden osmotic shifts that cause cerebral edema.
5
Transition to maintenance therapy
Subcutaneous insulin is administered prior to stopping the IV infusion.
An overlap ensures continuous insulin coverage, preventing rebound ketoacidosis when the short-acting IV insulin is discontinued.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of Care in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 38 | Examkin