Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1041Soru →

A client in cardiogenic shock is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine through a single-lumen peripheral IV line. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of furosemide 120120 mg IV push for acute pulmonary edema. The facility protocol dictates that furosemide should not be administered faster than 2020 mg/minute to prevent adverse effects. Furosemide is physically incompatible with dopamine. Based on these parameters, which action by the nurse is the safest and most appropriate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a second peripheral IV access and administer the furosemide over a minimum of 66 minutes.

Cevap

The safest and most appropriate action is to establish a second peripheral IV access and administer the furosemide over a minimum of 66 minutes.
This action correctly addresses all three critical safety factors in the scenario. First, calculating 120120 mg at a maximum rate of 2020 mg/minute dictates a minimum administration time of 66 minutes to prevent ototoxicity. Second, because furosemide and dopamine are physically incompatible, they cannot be mixed in the same line. Third, dopamine is a life-sustaining vasoactive infusion with a half-life of roughly 22 minutes; pausing it for 66 or more minutes would result in a severe, potentially fatal drop in blood pressure. Therefore, establishing a separate, dedicated IV line is the only action that safely accommodates the continuous vasopressor and the slow IV push of an incompatible medication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the prescribed dose and maximum administration rate.
Dividing 120120 mg by the maximum rate of 2020 mg/minute yields a minimum administration time of 66 minutes.
Calculating the correct IV push time is critical to prevent adverse effects like ototoxicity.
2
Evaluate the physical compatibility of the medications.
Furosemide and dopamine are incompatible and cannot be mixed in the same IV line.
Mixing them at the Y-site would cause an immediate chemical reaction and precipitate formation.
3
Determine the physiological impact of pausing the continuous infusion.
Dopamine is a critical vasoactive medication with a very short half-life. It cannot be safely paused for 66 minutes.
Interrupting the vasopressor would likely cause catastrophic hemodynamic collapse in a client with cardiogenic shock.
4
Synthesize the findings to select the safest administration method.
Establishing a second, dedicated peripheral IV access is required.
This allows the safe, slow administration of furosemide without interrupting the life-sustaining dopamine infusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Parenteral Administration of Incompatible High-Risk Medications
Soru 1042Soru →

A nurse is planning basic care for an older adult client who is completely bedbound and requires assistance with all activities of daily living. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain skin integrity and promote comfort? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Reposition the client at least every 2 hours using a structured turning schedule.; Utilize a draw sheet or friction-reducing device when moving the client up in bed.; Cleanse the skin gently and apply a moisture barrier ointment promptly after any incontinent episode.

Cevap

The correct interventions include repositioning the client at least every 2 hours, utilizing a draw sheet for movement, and cleansing the skin while applying a moisture barrier after incontinent episodes.
Maintaining skin integrity for a bedbound client requires a multifaceted approach. Repositioning every two hours relieves continuous pressure on bony prominences. Using a draw sheet lifts rather than drags the client, preventing friction injuries. Promptly cleansing and applying a barrier cream protects the epidermis from moisture-associated skin damage caused by incontinence.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's primary risk factors from the scenario.
The client is an older adult, completely bedbound, and dependent for all ADLs, placing them at high risk for skin breakdown and pressure injuries.
Understanding the clinical risks guides the selection of appropriate preventive interventions.
2
Evaluate the evidence-based practices for maintaining skin integrity.
Standard practices include frequent turning, protecting the skin from moisture, and avoiding shear.
These standard practices form the basis of the correct answers.
3
Analyze each option against nursing scope of practice and safety standards.
Assessments cannot be delegated to UAP. High-Fowler's position increases shearing. Sudden incontinence is abnormal.
Eliminating options that violate delegation rules, cause harm, or misinterpret pathology leaves the safest and most effective nursing actions.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care interventions for immobility and skin integrity maintenance
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1043Soru →

The healthcare provider prescribes a 100 mL100\text{ mL} intravenous piggyback infusion of ceftriaxone to run over 30 minutes30\text{ minutes}. At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, will the nurse set the electronic infusion pump? (Record your answer as a whole number).

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 200

Cevap

200
To determine the correct rate for an electronic infusion pump, the nurse must divide the total volume to be infused by the total time in hours. First, convert 30 minutes30\text{ minutes} to 0.5 hours0.5\text{ hours}. Then, divide the 100 mL100\text{ mL} volume by 0.5 hours0.5\text{ hours}, which equals an infusion rate of 200 mL/hr200\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the provided variables for the infusion.
Total volume = 100 mL100\text{ mL}, Total time = 30 minutes30\text{ minutes}.
These are the two necessary components to calculate a continuous pump infusion rate.
2
Convert the infusion time from minutes into hours.
30 minutes÷60 minutes/hour=0.5 hours30\text{ minutes} \div 60\text{ minutes/hour} = 0.5\text{ hours}.
Electronic infusion pumps are programmed in milliliters per hour (mL/hr\text{mL/hr}), so the time variable must match the required unit.
3
Calculate the final infusion rate.
100 mL÷0.5 hours=200 mL/hr100\text{ mL} \div 0.5\text{ hours} = 200\text{ mL/hr}.
Dividing the total volume by the total time in hours yields the correct hourly pump setting.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating intravenous infusion rates in mL/hr
Soru 1044Soru →

While managing a client in the intensive care unit who is in profound distributive shock, the nurse notes the client has developed severe, unsafe psychomotor agitation. The client's only vascular access is a single-lumen central venous catheter (CVC) currently infusing norepinephrine at 0.2 mcg/kg/min0.2 \text{ mcg/kg/min} to maintain a mean arterial pressure greater than 65 mm Hg65 \text{ mm Hg}. The provider prescribes a stat dose of intravenous (IV) midazolam 2 mg2 \text{ mg}. Which of the following is the safest and most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish an alternative peripheral or intraosseous intravenous access site to administer the prescribed midazolam.

Cevap

Establish an alternative peripheral or intraosseous intravenous access site to administer the prescribed midazolam.
The correct answer is to establish an alternative access site. Pushing any medication, flushing, or adding a secondary flow to a single-lumen line that is actively infusing a life-sustaining, highly concentrated vasopressor is extremely dangerous. Any of these actions will rapidly force the vasopressor residing in the catheter's dead space into the systemic circulation, causing a potentially fatal hypertensive crisis. A completely dedicated line is absolutely required.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current vascular access and ongoing therapies.
The client possesses only a single-lumen CVC which is actively infusing a life-sustaining, highly concentrated vasopressor (norepinephrine).
Recognizing the physical limitations of the existing access is the foundational step in parenteral safety.
2
Evaluate the pharmacokinetic properties and flow dynamics of the continuous infusion.
Norepinephrine has a half-life of 1-2 minutes. The catheter's dead space is currently filled with this potent medication at a high concentration.
Guides the decision-making process regarding the physiological impact of altering the line's flow rate or interrupting therapy.
3
Determine the physical impact of administering a secondary medication via the existing single lumen.
Pushing a medication, flushing the line, or adding a concurrent infusion will forcefully displace the norepinephrine residing in the dead space into the client's circulation, causing speed shock and a hypertensive crisis.
Identifies the lethal mechanical flaw in utilizing the existing line.
4
Select the safest alternative for administration.
A completely separate vascular access point must be established for the stat medication.
Prevents inadvertent bolusing and ensures uninterrupted delivery of the life-sustaining vasopressor therapy.

Anahtar Kavram

Continuous vasoactive infusions (like norepinephrine) must be administered through a dedicated line or dedicated multilumen port. Manipulating the line (flushing, pushing, or piggybacking) alters the flow rate and inadvertently boluses the highly concentrated medication residing in the catheter dead space into the client, leading to severe hemodynamic instability.
Soru 1045Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Fifteen minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports sudden lower back pain and chills. The client's heart rate increases from 82 to 118 beats/min, and blood pressure drops from 124/76 mm Hg to 92/58 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the transfusion and initiate a 0.9% sodium chloride infusion using new IV tubing.

Cevap

Stop the transfusion and initiate a 0.9% sodium chloride infusion using new IV tubing.
The client's presentation of sudden lower back pain, chills, tachycardia, and hypotension shortly after starting a blood transfusion strongly indicates an acute hemolytic reaction. The absolute priority is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further infusion of incompatible cells. Maintaining venous access is critical for subsequent emergency treatment and volume resuscitation, but it must be done using completely new tubing and 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid pushing any remaining blood from the old tubing into the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the clinical signs presented by the client.
The client is experiencing sudden lower back pain, chills, tachycardia, and hypotension shortly after a blood transfusion was initiated.
These are classic, life-threatening signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
2
Determine the immediate nursing priority based on the assessment.
The source of the reaction (the blood product) must be halted immediately to prevent further systemic harm.
Patient safety principles and airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) prioritization require stopping the administration of the offending antigen before any other intervention.
3
Select the appropriate technical intervention to secure the client's safety.
Stop the blood and hang 0.9% sodium chloride with completely new tubing.
This maintains critical IV access for emergency medications without infusing any remaining red blood cells from the old tubing into the client.

Anahtar Kavram

Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction Management
Soru 1046Soru →

A nurse is planning care for a 78-year-old client with Parkinson's disease and severe dysphagia who was recently admitted with aspiration pneumonia. The client is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube and has a highly friable stage 3 sacral pressure injury. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client is newly confused, restless, and repeatedly grasping at the nasogastric tube. Which comprehensive intervention is the most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the head of the bed at exactly 30 degrees while utilizing a 30-degree lateral tilt, and provide the client with a textured sensory apron.

Cevap

Maintain the head of the bed at exactly 30 degrees while utilizing a 30-degree lateral tilt, and provide the client with a textured sensory apron.
The correct action expertly navigates two conflicting basic care priorities. To prevent aspiration from the continuous feeding, the head of the bed must be at least 30 degrees. To prevent shearing forces on the sacral pressure injury, the head of the bed must be no more than 30 degrees. Therefore, exactly 30 degrees is the optimal angle. The 30-degree lateral tilt effectively offloads pressure from the sacrum without causing trochanteric breakdown. Finally, the sensory apron acts as a safe, less-restrictive distraction technique (restraint alternative) for the client's hands.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the competing physiological priorities presented in the clinical scenario.
The client has a high aspiration risk requiring head elevation, but also a stage 3 sacral pressure injury requiring minimal head elevation to prevent shear.
Standard aspiration precautions require the head of the bed (HOB) to be elevated 30-45 degrees. However, standard pressure injury guidelines state the HOB should not be elevated above 30 degrees to prevent shear.
2
Identify the precise positioning parameters that satisfy both safety constraints.
Maintaining the HOB at exactly 30 degrees is the critical intersection that satisfies both guidelines. Adding a 30-degree lateral tilt further offloads the sacral pressure without placing undue weight on the greater trochanter.
This specific geometric positioning provides optimal respiratory and nutritional safety while actively promoting wound healing.
3
Evaluate the behavioral symptoms and select an appropriate safety intervention.
The new confusion requires medical evaluation, but the immediate grasping behavior must be managed with the least restrictive alternative first, such as a sensory apron.
Applying physical restraints without attempting distraction or sensory alternatives violates the standard of care for restraint use.

Anahtar Kavram

Synthesis of complex positioning parameters to balance aspiration risk against sacral shearing forces, combined with the use of least-restrictive behavioral interventions.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1047Soru →

A nurse is assigned to care for a client with a mechanical bowel obstruction who has had a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction for the past 4848 hours. The client's morning arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH of 7.527.52, a PaCO 2_2 of 4242 mm Hg, and an HCO 3−_3^- of 3434 mEq/L. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to reduce the risk of further physiological complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Monitor the client's serum potassium level and continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm.; Assess for physical signs of neuromuscular irritability, such as muscle twitching or tetany.

Cevap

The appropriate interventions are to monitor the client's serum potassium level along with continuous ECG rhythm, and to assess for physical signs of neuromuscular irritability such as muscle twitching or tetany.
The correct choices address the direct systemic consequences of metabolic alkalosis induced by gastric suctioning. Gastric fluid is rich in hydrochloric acid and potassium; its continual removal leads to metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia. Alkalosis further drives potassium into cells, increasing the risk of life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, necessitating ECG monitoring. Furthermore, alkalosis causes more calcium to bind to serum albumin, decreasing the amount of active ionized calcium and increasing the risk for neuromuscular excitability, such as tetany.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the provided arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The pH (7.527.52) is elevated (alkalosis), the PaCO 2_2 (4242 mm Hg) is normal, and the HCO 3−_3^- (3434 mEq/L) is elevated. This indicates uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.
Accurately identifying the primary acid-base imbalance is the first step in anticipating physiological complications and determining corrective nursing actions.
2
Identify physiological risks associated with metabolic alkalosis and continuous gastric suctioning.
The client is at high risk for both severe hypokalemia (due to direct gastric losses and intracellular shifts) and hypocalcemia (due to increased calcium-albumin binding).
Understanding the systemic effects of the acid-base imbalance allows the nurse to prioritize targeted assessments like ECG monitoring and checking for tetany.
3
Evaluate the safety and appropriateness of the proposed nursing interventions.
Monitoring electrolytes and neuromuscular status are indicated. Conversely, administering bicarbonate, laying the client flat, and palpating before auscultating are contraindicated or unsafe practices.
Evidence-based practice requires avoiding contraindicated medications, maintaining airway safety precautions (elevating the head of the bed), and adhering to proper physical assessment protocols to reduce risk.

Anahtar Kavram

Metabolic Alkalosis and Complication Prevention in Gastric Suctioning
Soru 1048Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the lower extremities while the client is in bed.; Encourage the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises of the legs and feet hourly.; Administer the prescribed prophylactic subcutaneous enoxaparin.

Cevap

The correct interventions are to apply sequential compression devices, encourage hourly active range-of-motion leg exercises, and administer the prescribed prophylactic subcutaneous enoxaparin.
Interventions to prevent deep vein thrombosis focus on mitigating Virchow's triad. Sequential compression devices and active leg exercises mechanically promote venous blood return to the heart, preventing stasis. Enoxaparin provides pharmacological prophylaxis by interrupting the coagulation cascade.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the clinical risk presented in the scenario.
The client is 1 day postoperative. Surgical trauma and subsequent immobility place the client at a high risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to venous stasis and hypercoagulability.
Recognizing the components of Virchow's triad (venous stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability) is essential for implementing appropriate preventative measures.
2
Select interventions that actively promote venous return and prevent coagulation.
Applying SCDs, performing active leg exercises, and administering prophylactic anticoagulants (enoxaparin) directly counteract blood pooling and clot formation.
Mechanical and pharmacological prophylaxis are the standard of care for risk reduction of venous thromboembolism in postoperative clients.
3
Eliminate actions that increase DVT risk or violate nursing scope of practice.
Placing pillows under the knees, maintaining strict bed rest, and delegating initial assessments to a UAP are incorrect and potentially harmful actions.
Knee pillows and bed rest exacerbate venous stasis. Furthermore, the registered nurse must retain responsibility for all initial assessments and clinical judgments.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) Prevention
Soru 1049Soru →

A nurse is preparing to initiate a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client with symptomatic anemia. Which intravenous (IV) fluid should the nurse use to prime the blood administration tubing?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 0.9% sodium chloride

Cevap

The correct fluid to use for priming the blood administration tubing is 0.9% sodium chloride.
The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline). It is the only intravenous fluid that is safe and compatible with blood products. Being an isotonic solution, it prevents the hemolysis (destruction) of red blood cells and does not contain any additives that would cause the blood to coagulate in the administration tubing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the clinical procedure being performed
The nurse is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client.
Blood product administration requires strict adherence to safety protocols, particularly regarding fluid compatibility.
2
Recall the principles of IV fluid compatibility for blood transfusions
Blood products are only compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline).
Other IV solutions can cause severe adverse effects such as red blood cell hemolysis or coagulation within the IV tubing.
3
Select the appropriate IV fluid from the given options
0.9% sodium chloride is the chosen fluid.
It maintains an isotonic environment that preserves the integrity of the red blood cells during the transfusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Blood Product and IV Fluid Compatibility
Soru 1050Soru →

A client is received on the medical unit directly after a percutaneous liver biopsy. To mitigate the primary risk associated with this procedure, which positioning strategy must the nurse implement?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Right side-lying position with a small towel placed under the puncture site

Cevap

Right side-lying position with a small towel placed under the puncture site
The liver is a highly vascular organ located on the right side of the abdomen. Placing the client in a right side-lying position (right lateral decubitus), often with a rolled towel or pillow under the puncture site, applies direct physical pressure to the liver capsule. This targeted pressure is essential to promote hemostasis and prevent internal hemorrhage, which is the most critical immediate complication following a percutaneous liver biopsy.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary complication associated with a percutaneous liver biopsy.
Because the liver is a highly vascular organ, the highest priority risk immediately following a biopsy is internal hemorrhage.
Recognizing the most critical risk dictates the required preventative intervention.
2
Determine the intervention that directly addresses and mitigates this risk.
Position the client on their right side (right lateral decubitus) to apply direct physical pressure to the liver capsule.
Direct compression at the puncture site promotes blood clotting (hemostasis) and prevents bleeding.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure hemorrhage prevention through targeted positioning
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 1051Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 45-year-old client who is 12 hours postoperative following an extensive small bowel resection for mesenteric ischemia. The client is intubated, receiving mechanical ventilation with a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 10 cm H2OH_2O, and has a central venous catheter. The nurse is evaluating the client to reduce the risk of potential complications. Which of the following findings or observed nursing actions indicate an imminent risk for physiological decompensation or client harm? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The client's arterial blood gas reveals a pH of 7.28, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 31 mm Hg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 14 mEq/L, and the nurse plans to decrease the mechanical ventilation rate.; The client exhibits a gradual increase in heart rate from 88 to 122 beats per minute alongside a narrowing pulse pressure from 45 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg.; The nurse places the client in a flat, supine position and initiates the gastrointestinal assessment by deeply palpating the surgical site.

Cevap

The correct findings or actions that indicate a risk for harm include: planning to decrease the ventilation rate in the presence of metabolic acidosis, observing a narrowing pulse pressure with tachycardia, and placing the client flat while palpating the abdomen before auscultating.
The correct options represent situations where either an impending complication is occurring or a nursing action will directly cause harm. A narrowing pulse pressure with tachycardia is a classic early indicator of shock, demanding immediate intervention. The ABG results (low pH, low HCO3−HCO_3^-, low PaCO2PaCO_2) reveal metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation; reducing the respiratory rate would trap CO2 and worsen the acidosis. Finally, placing a mechanically ventilated client flat increases the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia and aspiration, while palpating the abdomen before auscultating disrupts the assessment by artificially stimulating bowel sounds.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current clinical status and risk profile.
The client is post-abdominal surgery, mechanically ventilated, and at high risk for shock, respiratory compromise, and ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP).
Establishing the clinical context is essential to accurately evaluate the safety and priority of assessment findings and nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) parameters and proposed interventions.
The ABG shows partially compensated metabolic acidosis. Decreasing the ventilation rate is dangerous because it would remove the respiratory compensation.
Mechanical ventilation adjustments must align with the acid-base disturbance to prevent lethal acidemia.
3
Interpret the vital sign trends for signs of hemodynamic instability.
A rising heart rate combined with a narrowing pulse pressure indicates early compensatory shock.
Identifying subtle cardiovascular changes allows for early intervention before irreversible organ damage occurs.
4
Assess the sequence and positioning of the physical examination.
Flat positioning increases aspiration risk, and palpating before auscultation alters bowel sounds.
Proper sequencing and safe positioning are fundamental to accurate assessment and risk reduction.
5
Differentiate critical risks from expected postoperative findings and standard care.
Head of bed elevation, moderate serosanguineous drainage, and normal oxygenation levels are expected or protective, not risky.
Distinguishing between expected clinical courses and impending complications prevents inappropriate interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of shock, accurate acid-base interpretation, and adherence to evidence-based safety protocols (such as correct positioning and assessment sequencing) are critical to reducing the risk of life-threatening complications in critically ill postoperative clients.
Soru 1052Soru →

A nurse is caring for a critically ill client who is experiencing septic shock and new-onset tonic-clonic seizures. The client has a double-lumen central venous catheter (CVC) in place. Lumen one is infusing continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN), and lumen two is infusing continuous norepinephrine. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of intravenous (IV) push phenytoin. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrate safe pharmacological and parenteral management? (Select all that apply)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a new peripheral intravenous catheter specifically for the administration of the phenytoin.; Flush the intravenous line with 0.9% sodium chloride immediately before and after administering the phenytoin.; Administer the intravenous push phenytoin at a rate not exceeding 50 mg per minute.

Cevap

The nurse must establish a new peripheral IV line, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administration, and infuse the phenytoin at a maximum rate of 50 mg/min to ensure safe administration without compromising the life-sustaining continuous infusions.
Phenytoin is highly alkaline, irritating to veins, and highly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions such as total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Therefore, it must always be flushed and administered with 0.9% sodium chloride. Furthermore, TPN requires a dedicated line to prevent infection and chemical incompatibility, and continuous norepinephrine must not be interrupted due to the risk of profound hypotension. Consequently, because both central lumens are occupied by critical infusions, the nurse must establish a new peripheral intravenous access to administer the medication safely. Finally, intravenous phenytoin must be administered slowly, not exceeding 50 mg per minute, as rapid administration can cause severe hypotension and life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the current IV access and ongoing continuous infusions.
The client has a double-lumen CVC. One lumen is occupied by TPN (requires a dedicated line) and the other by norepinephrine (a critical, continuous vasopressor).
Identifying existing line usage is essential to prevent adverse drug reactions and maintain life-sustaining therapies.
2
Identify the specific administration requirements for IV push phenytoin.
Phenytoin is highly alkaline, precipitates in dextrose solutions, must be flushed with normal saline, and has a strict maximum administration rate of 50 mg/min.
Knowledge of drug-specific compatibilities and toxicities prevents crystallization in the IV line and cardiovascular collapse.
3
Determine the safest access route and administration protocol.
Because neither CVC lumen can be safely used or paused, a new peripheral IV must be established. The nurse must then use normal saline flushes and administer the medication slowly.
This maintains the ABCs (circulation via norepinephrine), nutritional protocols (dedicated TPN line), and pharmacological safety.
4
Evaluate the distractors against delegation and prioritization principles.
Delegating site assessment to UAP is unsafe, and pausing norepinephrine compromises circulation, ruling out these actions.
Nurses must retain clinical judgment tasks and prioritize hemodynamic stability.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of Intravenous Phenytoin and Central Line Management
Soru 1053Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Fifteen minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports sudden lower back pain, chills, and shortness of breath. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the actions from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: Stop the transfusion, infuse 0.9% sodium chloride with new tubing, assess vital signs, notify the healthcare provider, and send the blood bag to the blood bank.
When a hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs, characterized by lower back pain, chills, and dyspnea, the absolute first step is to stop the transfusion to prevent further physiological harm. Next, the nurse must maintain a patent IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride using completely new tubing so that residual blood is not pushed into the client. The nurse then quickly assesses vital signs to gather current physiological data. With this information, the nurse notifies the healthcare provider using the SBAR framework to obtain emergency orders. Finally, once the immediate threat is managed, the blood bag and tubing are sent to the blood bank for analysis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary intervention for a suspected adverse reaction.
Stop the blood transfusion.
Preventing further exposure to the potentially incompatible blood product is the highest priority.
2
Determine the next action to maintain vascular access and stability.
Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride through a new intravenous tubing set.
Patent IV access is critical for emergency drugs, and new tubing prevents residual blood in the old line from entering the client.
3
Determine the action needed before communicating with the medical team.
Assess the client's vital signs and respiratory status.
The provider will need current baseline data to prescribe appropriate emergency interventions.
4
Determine the communication step.
Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
The provider must be informed of the reaction and the assessment findings to direct further medical care.
5
Identify the final administrative and diagnostic step.
Send the blood bag and administration set to the blood bank.
Laboratory analysis of the blood and tubing is necessary to identify the type and cause of the transfusion reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1054Soru →

A 65-year-old client with osteomyelitis is receiving long-term antibiotic therapy. The nurse is preparing to administer the next dose of intermittent intravenous (IV) ceftriaxone through the client's open-ended central venous catheter (CVC). The designated lumen is currently capped and has not been used for 12 hours. Place the following steps in the correct chronological order to safely administer the medication and maintain catheter patency.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct chronological sequence follows the SASH protocol: Aspirate for a blood return, flush with saline, administer the medication, flush with saline again, and finish with a heparin lock.
The SASH protocol dictates the safe administration of medications via an open-ended central venous catheter. First, the nurse must scrub the hub and aspirate to confirm placement and patency. Next, a normal saline flush clears the line and confirms there is no resistance. The medication is then administered. A second saline flush is mandatory after the infusion to clear the medication and prevent chemical precipitation with the final step, which is a heparin lock to maintain catheter patency until the next use.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Scrub the connector, attach a saline syringe, and aspirate for a blood return.
Verifies that the catheter tip is correctly placed in the vein and the lumen is patent.
Pushing fluids without confirming placement can result in severe extravasation or force a clot into the systemic circulation.
2
Flush the catheter with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride using a pulsatile technique.
Clears the lumen of any residual blood or blockages.
Provides a clean, compatible pathway for the medication and allows the nurse to assess for injection resistance.
3
Connect the antibiotic tubing and administer the intermittent IV ceftriaxone.
Delivers the prescribed antibiotic therapy to the client.
The line is now confirmed safe and compatible for infusion.
4
Disconnect the empty tubing, scrub the connector, and flush with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride.
Clears the ceftriaxone from the central venous catheter.
Ensures the full dose reaches the patient and prevents chemical precipitation with the upcoming heparin flush.
5
Scrub the connector, instill the heparin flush solution, and close the catheter clamp.
Locks the open-ended catheter with an anticoagulant.
Prevents blood backflow and thrombus formation inside the lumen between intermittent uses.

Anahtar Kavram

The SASH (Saline, Administer, Saline, Heparin) method is the evidence-based standard protocol for administering medications and maintaining patency in open-ended central venous catheters.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1055Soru →

A nurse is preparing to safely transfer a client with right-sided hemiparesis (weakness) from the bed to a wheelchair. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological order.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The safe order of operations is to first prepare the environment by positioning the wheelchair on the strong side, sit the client up to establish balance, apply the safety gait belt, assist to a standing position using the strong leg, and finally pivot until the client feels the chair before sitting.
According to safe mobility principles, transferring a client with unilateral weakness requires prioritizing environmental readiness and leveraging the client's strong side. Positioning the chair on the unaffected side allows the client to bear weight and pivot safely. Dangling prevents orthostatic hypotension, and applying a gait belt ensures physical control. Finally, standing, pivoting, and using tactile confirmation (knees touching the chair) ensure a safe descent into the wheelchair.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prepare the environment and position the wheelchair.
The wheelchair is locked and angled on the client's unaffected side.
Ensures equipment is stable and positioned to take advantage of the client's intact strength before moving the client.
2
Assist the client to dangle at the edge of the bed.
The client is seated with feet flat on the floor.
Prevents orthostatic dizziness and establishes a stable center of gravity.
3
Secure the gait belt.
The transfer belt is fastened snugly around the client's waist.
Provides a safe ergonomic grip for the nurse, preventing musculoskeletal injuries to both the client and the nurse.
4
Stand the client.
The client stands, bearing weight on the strong left leg.
Utilizes the client's functional limb for primary support during the most physically demanding phase of the transfer.
5
Pivot and seat the client.
The client safely transitions into the wheelchair.
Tactile feedback (chair against the knees) confirms spatial alignment, preventing falls to the floor.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Client Transfer Principles and Mobility
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1056Soru →

A client who recently experienced a cerebrovascular accident has new-onset right-sided hemiparesis. The nurse is preparing to transfer the client from the bed to a wheelchair using a stand-and-pivot technique. The client is currently resting supine in bed. Place the following steps in the correct chronological order to ensure a safe transfer.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence begins with preparing the environment by placing the wheelchair on the strong side, assisting the client to sit, applying safety gear, assisting to stand using the strong arm, and finally pivoting on the strong leg to sit in the wheelchair.
Safe transfer of a client with hemiparesis requires strict adherence to biomechanical principles and environmental safety. The wheelchair must always be positioned on the unaffected (strong) side so the client can use their functional limbs to bear weight and stabilize themselves. The client must first be assisted to a sitting position before the transfer belt is applied to ensure a proper fit. Finally, standing and pivoting rely on the strength of the unaffected leg and arm to safely transition into the chair.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position and lock the wheelchair on the left side.
The wheelchair is secured on the client's unaffected side.
Ensures the environment is safe before moving the client and aligns the destination with the client's strong side.
2
Assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed.
The client is in a dangling position.
Allows cardiovascular stabilization to prevent orthostatic hypotension before attempting to stand.
3
Apply non-skid footwear and a transfer belt.
Safety equipment is secured.
Prevents falls from slipping and gives the nurse a safe mechanical hold on the client's center of gravity.
4
Assist the client to stand while they push off the bed with their left hand.
The client achieves a standing position.
Maximizes client independence and safety by utilizing their unaffected upper extremity.
5
Instruct the client to pivot on the strong leg and reach for the armrest.
The client safely transitions into the wheelchair.
Weight-bearing during the pivot must occur on the strong leg to prevent buckling and falls.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Client Transfer Techniques and Hemiparesis Mobility
Soru 1057Soru →

A registered nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous maintenance intravenous (IV) fluid through a peripheral catheter. The provider prescribes a new intermittent IV antibiotic to be administered via the existing line. Which of the following safety measures must the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic with the continuous maintenance fluid using an approved reference.; Inspect and palpate the peripheral insertion site for signs of infiltration or phlebitis prior to the infusion.; Scrub the needleless connection port on the primary tubing with an antiseptic wipe before attaching the secondary line.

Cevap

The nurse must verify fluid compatibility with a reference, assess the IV site for complications, and scrub the connection port with an antiseptic wipe.
Safe intravenous administration of a secondary medication requires the nurse to consult an approved reference to confirm compatibility, physically assess the insertion site to ensure patency and absence of complications, and maintain asepsis by scrubbing the connection hub. These foundational steps prevent chemical incompatibilities, extravasation, and catheter-related bloodstream infections.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the core task and potential risks.
The task is administering a new IV antibiotic through an existing peripheral line, which carries risks of incompatibility, site complications, and infection.
Understanding the risks guides the selection of appropriate nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate each option against safe medication administration and infection control standards.
Verifying compatibility, assessing the site, and scrubbing the hub align with safety standards. Relying on visual clarity and delegating initial assessments violate safety and scope of practice rules.
Nursing actions must strictly adhere to evidence-based safety protocols and legal delegation guidelines.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Intravenous Medication Administration Principles
Soru 1058Soru →

A nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a young adult client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. The client has been receiving a continuous regular insulin infusion and 0.9% sodium chloride for the past four hours.

Current clinical data:
- Vital signs: Heart rate 112/min, Blood pressure 108/65 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 22/min
- Cardiac monitor: Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular contractions
- Capillary blood glucose: 235 mg/dL
- Arterial Blood Gases: pH 7.31, PaCO2 36 mm Hg, HCO3 15 mEq/L
- Basic Metabolic Panel: Sodium 142 mEq/L, Potassium 3.1 mEq/L, Chloride 105 mEq/L

Which of the following is the priority nursing action to reduce the client's risk of a life-threatening complication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Suspend the continuous regular insulin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Cevap

Suspend the continuous regular insulin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
The correct action directly addresses the most immediate, life-threatening risk: severe hypokalemia leading to fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. The client's potassium is critically low at 3.1 mEq/L, and they are already exhibiting premature ventricular contractions. Because insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, continuing the insulin infusion will worsen the hypokalemia. Standard DKA protocols require holding the insulin infusion if the potassium level falls below 3.3 mEq/L until aggressive potassium replacement is initiated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current diagnostic and clinical data.
The client has a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L and is experiencing premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on the cardiac monitor.
Normal serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Levels below 3.3 mEq/L in the setting of diabetic ketoacidosis indicate severe depletion and myocardial irritability.
2
Evaluate the physiological effects of the current medical interventions.
The continuous intravenous insulin infusion drives both glucose and potassium from the intravascular space into the intracellular space.
Continuing the insulin infusion will further lower the serum potassium level, severely exacerbating the hypokalemia.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention to mitigate the immediate threat to life.
The nurse must immediately stop the insulin infusion and contact the healthcare provider to initiate potassium replacement.
According to evidence-based protocols, insulin therapy is contraindicated and must be held when serum potassium falls below 3.3 mEq/L to prevent lethal ventricular arrhythmias.

Anahtar Kavram

Diabetic ketoacidosis management requires vigilant monitoring of potassium, and insulin must be held if serum potassium falls below 3.3 mEq/L to prevent lethal dysrhythmias.
Soru 1059Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who sustained a complete spinal cord injury at the T4 level three weeks ago. The client suddenly reports a severe, throbbing headache, blurred vision, and nasal congestion. The nurse observes profuse diaphoresis on the client's face and neck, with distinct piloerection below the nipple line. Vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 215/115 mmHg and a heart rate of 50 bpm. To immediately reduce the client's risk for a catastrophic physiological complication, which action should the nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees and assist the client in lowering their legs.

Cevap

The nurse must first elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees and assist the client in lowering their legs.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia, a life-threatening hypertensive emergency occurring in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above the T6 level. The massive sympathetic discharge causes severe uncompensated hypertension, which places the client at immediate risk for a hemorrhagic stroke. The absolute first priority to reduce this risk is to leverage gravity by placing the client in a high-Fowler's (90-degree) sitting position. This induces orthostatic pooling of blood in the lower extremities, rapidly decreasing venous return and lowering blood pressure to the brain while the nurse subsequently investigates the underlying cause (most commonly bladder or bowel distention).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The combination of severe hypertension, bradycardia, diaphoresis above the injury level, and a pounding headache indicates autonomic dysreflexia, a life-threatening medical emergency.
Accurate recognition of the physiological syndrome is required to determine the appropriate life-saving protocol.
2
Identify the most immediate physiological risk.
A blood pressure of 215/115 mmHg creates an imminent risk of a cerebrovascular accident (hemorrhagic stroke) or myocardial infarction.
Understanding the primary threat dictates which intervention must happen immediately versus secondarily.
3
Determine the priority nursing action for risk reduction.
Positioning the client upright in a high-Fowler's position must be executed immediately.
This non-pharmacological action uses gravity to induce orthostatic pooling of blood in the lower extremities, rapidly reducing cerebral blood pressure before the underlying stimulus can be identified and resolved.

Anahtar Kavram

Immediate risk reduction in Autonomic Dysreflexia prioritizes orthostatic positioning (sitting upright) to lower cerebral blood pressure before identifying and removing the noxious stimulus.
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 1060Soru →

A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with sudden, severe dyspnea and extreme agitation. Assessment reveals absent breath sounds over the right lung field, jugular venous distention, and a trachea deviated to the left. The client's blood pressure is 78/4278/42 mm Hg, and the heart rate is 136136 bpm. A rapid arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis shows a pH of 7.247.24, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 6868 mm Hg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2626 mEq/L. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Prepare the client for immediate needle thoracostomy and chest tube placement.

Cevap

Prepare the client for immediate needle thoracostomy and chest tube placement.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a tension pneumothorax (absent breath sounds, tracheal deviation, jugular venous distention, and obstructive shock). This is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate decompression of the pleural space via needle thoracostomy, followed by chest tube insertion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the physical assessment findings.
Absent right breath sounds, left tracheal deviation, and jugular venous distention indicate a right-sided tension pneumothorax.
Air trapped in the pleural space increases intrathoracic pressure, collapsing the right lung and shifting the mediastinum to the left.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic and ABG data.
Hypotension and tachycardia signify obstructive shock. The ABG shows uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2PaCO_2, normal HCO3−HCO_3^-).
The mediastinal shift obstructs venous return to the heart, causing shock, and the collapsed lung prevents adequate ventilation.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention.
Immediate mechanical decompression of the pleural space is required.
Delaying treatment for diagnostics or administering fluids and medications fails to resolve the mechanical obstruction that is causing the life-threatening shock and acidosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Tension pneumothorax causes obstructive shock and respiratory acidosis, requiring immediate clinical diagnosis and emergency decompression rather than delayed diagnostic testing or pharmacological management.
ÖncekiSayfa 53 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 53 | Examkin