Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1241Soru →

An older adult client with advanced Parkinson's disease is admitted for the management of severe dysphagia and a new sacral pressure injury. The client is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a gastrostomy tube. During the shift, the client becomes restless, repeatedly attempts to pull on their medical tubing, and experiences sudden new-onset urinary incontinence. Which basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Perform oral hygiene every 4 hours using a suction-equipped toothbrush and an alcohol-free moisturizing mouthwash.; Camouflage the gastrostomy tubing beneath loose clothing and provide a textured sensory blanket for the client to manipulate.

Cevap

The correct interventions are performing frequent oral hygiene using a suction toothbrush and camouflaging the gastrostomy tubing while providing a sensory distraction blanket.
Clients with dysphagia and enteral tubes require frequent oral hygiene with suction to maintain mucosal comfort and prevent the aspiration of colonized oral flora. Additionally, using sensory distractions and hiding medical tubing promotes comfort and safety by serving as a non-restrictive alternative to physical restraints for restless clients.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's physiological needs (dysphagia, enteral feeding) and comfort/safety needs (restlessness, pulling lines).
Identified the need for meticulous oral care to prevent aspiration and the need for safe, non-restrictive methods to manage the restlessness.
Basic care mandates proactive prevention of complications (like aspiration pneumonia) and prioritizing the least restrictive environment.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and delegation tasks.
Identified that lowering the bed while feeding infuses is dangerous, and delegating assessment to a UAP is outside their scope of practice.
Proper positioning is critical for airway protection, and proper delegation ensures safe care delivery.
3
Assess the approach to the client's new-onset incontinence and agitation.
Recognized that sudden incontinence is abnormal (not a product of aging) and that restraints cannot be used as a first-line intervention.
Distinguishing pathology from normal aging is crucial for prompt treatment, and restraint application has strict regulatory limitations.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care encompasses physiological maintenance (oral hygiene, safe positioning during feeding) and the implementation of non-pharmacological comfort measures to manage agitation without prematurely resorting to physical restraints.
Soru 1242Soru →

A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Which action regarding the client's positioning and basic care is correct?

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Cevap: Placing an abductor wedge between the client's legs while the client is resting in bed.

Cevap

Placing an abductor wedge between the client's legs while the client is resting in bed.
For a client who has undergone a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, maintaining the hip in a state of abduction is critical to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. Using an abductor wedge or pillows between the legs keeps the hip properly aligned and prevents accidental adduction.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and approach from the client's history.
The client underwent a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a posterior approach.
The specific surgical approach dictates the movement precautions necessary to maintain joint stability.
2
Determine the necessary positioning precautions for a posterior approach.
Standard precautions include avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, avoiding hip adduction (crossing the midline), and avoiding internal rotation.
These specific movements place excessive stress on the posterior joint capsule and can force the prosthetic head out of the socket.
3
Evaluate each nursing action against these safety precautions.
Using an abductor wedge maintains the required abduction and prevents adduction, making it the safe and correct nursing action.
The other proposed actions involve contraindicated movements (excessive flexion, adduction) or improper delegation of an initial nursing assessment.

Anahtar Kavram

Following a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, nursing care must focus on maintaining abduction and avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees to prevent prosthesis dislocation.
Soru 1243Soru →

During morning rounds, a client who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach the previous day informs the nurse of the need to have a bowel movement. The client is currently restricted to bed rest. Which intervention should the nurse implement to safely facilitate elimination?

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Cevap: Maintain the head of the bed at 30 degrees, ask the client to use an overhead trapeze to lift the pelvis, and slide a fracture bedpan underneath.

Cevap

The safest method is to keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees, utilize an overhead trapeze to elevate the client's pelvis, and use a fracture bedpan.
A fracture bedpan is specifically designed with a shallow end that requires minimal pelvic elevation, reducing stress on the hip joint. Concurrently, keeping the head of the bed at 30 degrees ensures the hip angle remains well below the 90-degree flexion limit required for a posterior approach arthroplasty, preventing dislocation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure and associated safety parameters.
The client had a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, which strictly requires avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, leg adduction, and internal rotation.
Recognizing specific surgical precautions is necessary to prevent severe complications like joint dislocation during routine basic care.
2
Evaluate the proposed interventions against the established safety parameters.
High-Fowler's position violates the flexion limit. Delegating a skin assessment violates the nursing scope of practice. Dismissing sudden severe pain ignores a potential joint dislocation.
Each intervention must be systematically ruled out if it poses a physiological or legal risk to the client.
3
Select the intervention that facilitates elimination while strictly maintaining joint alignment.
Using an overhead trapeze with the head of the bed at 30 degrees allows for the placement of a low-profile fracture pan without exceeding 90 degrees of hip flexion.
This method ensures the client's basic comfort and elimination needs are met without compromising the integrity of the surgical site.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Operative Total Hip Arthroplasty Comfort and Precautions
Soru 1244Soru →

A 14-day-old neonate is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with suspected bacterial meningitis. The neonate has a single peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter infusing Lactated Ringer's solution at 10 mL/hr10 \text{ mL/hr}. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of intravenous ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg50 \text{ mg/kg}. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider to request an alternative antibiotic prescription.

Cevap

The priority action is to withhold the ceftriaxone and contact the healthcare provider for a different antibiotic.
Ceftriaxone is contraindicated in neonates (28 days of age or younger) if they are receiving any calcium-containing intravenous fluids, such as Lactated Ringer's or total parenteral nutrition (TPN). This is due to the high risk of fatal ceftriaxone-calcium precipitates forming in the neonate's lungs and kidneys. Unlike in older pediatric and adult populations, these solutions cannot be given sequentially or even through separate IV lines in neonates. The nurse must recognize this critical safety alert, withhold the medication, and contact the provider for an alternative antibiotic (such as cefotaxime).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the prescribed medication and the current continuous infusion.
The medication is ceftriaxone, and the continuous infusion is Lactated Ringer's, which contains calcium.
Identifying components of IV fluids is essential for determining drug-drug compatibilities.
2
Evaluate the patient's demographic information against medication safety alerts.
The patient is a 14-day-old neonate.
Age is a critical factor in pharmacokinetics and drug safety, particularly for neonates (28 days or younger).
3
Determine the specific contraindication related to this clinical scenario.
Ceftriaxone and calcium-containing solutions are strictly contraindicated in neonates due to the risk of fatal ceftriaxone-calcium precipitates in the lungs and kidneys.
Unlike older clients, neonates cannot receive these two solutions even through separate lines or sequentially.
4
Select the safest nursing intervention.
The nurse must withhold the dose and clarify the prescription with the provider to obtain a safe alternative.
Patient safety is the highest priority; administering the drug would cause severe harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Ceftriaxone Administration and Calcium Incompatibility in Neonates
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1245Soru →

A client with a complete T4 spinal cord injury suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache and profound nasal congestion. The nurse observes profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury and a suddenly elevated blood pressure of 218/114 mm Hg. Arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed. (Place the first action at the top and the final action at the bottom.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate mechanical reduction of blood pressure (elevating the head of the bed), followed by removing external triggers (loosening clothing), addressing internal triggers (checking the bladder/catheter), administering medications if needed, and finally documenting the event.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency characterized by uncontrolled sympathetic nervous system activation below the level of the spinal cord injury, leading to life-threatening hypertension. The immediate, first-line priority is to lower the blood pressure by utilizing orthostasis (raising the head of the bed). After this initial stabilizing action, the nurse should remove external restrictive stimuli, investigate and resolve the most common internal triggers (such as a kinked catheter or distended bladder), administer antihypertensives if the noxious stimulus cannot be found or resolved, and finally document the event.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the signs of an acute medical emergency.
Autonomic dysreflexia is identified.
A pounding headache, severe hypertension, and diaphoresis above the injury level in a client with a T4 spinal cord injury are classic indicators of a dysreflexic crisis.
2
Prioritize immediate physiological safety by altering the client's position.
The head of the bed is elevated to a high Fowler's position.
Sitting the client upright induces orthostatic hypotension, which rapidly lowers the dangerously high blood pressure and reduces stroke risk.
3
Remove secondary external triggers from the client.
Restrictive clothing and binders are loosened.
Cutaneous and tactile stimuli can further aggravate the uninhibited sympathetic response.
4
Identify and resolve the primary internal trigger.
The bladder and urinary catheter are assessed.
Bladder distention or a kinked catheter is the most common precipitating cause of autonomic dysreflexia.
5
Administer targeted pharmacological therapy if symptoms do not resolve.
Antihypertensive medication is given.
Medications are required if removing the noxious stimulus fails to lower the blood pressure safely.

Anahtar Kavram

Autonomic Dysreflexia Emergency Management
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1246Soru →

While conducting a shift assessment on a surgical unit, the nurse evaluates a client who is 6 hours post-operative following a total abdominal hysterectomy. The electronic health record shows the client's blood pressure was 134/76 mm Hg two hours ago, but it is currently 112/88 mm Hg. The apical pulse has risen from 82 to 116 beats per minute, and respirations are 26 per minute. The client's skin is cool to the touch, and they report feeling unusually anxious. What is the priority nursing intervention?

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Cevap: Administer a prescribed bolus of intravenous isotonic crystalloid fluids.

Cevap

Administer a prescribed bolus of intravenous isotonic crystalloid fluids.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of early compensatory hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock. The narrowing pulse pressure (decreasing from 58 to 24 mm Hg), tachycardia, tachypnea, cool skin, and new-onset anxiety indicate decreasing cardiac output and massive peripheral vasoconstriction. The immediate priority is to restore intravascular volume with isotonic fluids to maintain tissue perfusion while preparing to identify and treat the source of bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends to identify the underlying physiological process.
The blood pressure shows a narrowing pulse pressure (decreasing from 58 mm Hg to 24 mm Hg). Combined with tachycardia, tachypnea, cool skin, and anxiety, this indicates early compensatory hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock.
Recognizing early compensatory mechanisms is crucial before irreversible end-organ damage occurs.
2
Determine the highest priority need based on the pathophysiological state.
The primary issue is a critical loss of intravascular volume leading to decreased tissue perfusion.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), restoring circulating blood volume is the immediate circulatory priority in hypovolemic shock.
3
Select the appropriate nursing intervention to address the priority need.
Administering isotonic crystalloid fluids is the standard first-line treatment to expand intravascular volume and improve cardiac output.
Fluid resuscitation directly addresses the absolute hypovolemia caused by post-operative bleeding.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and management of hypovolemic shock
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1247Soru →

A 71-year-old client with a history of early-stage vascular dementia is 4 hours post-percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery. The client suddenly becomes highly agitated, reports vague lower abdominal pressure, and repeatedly attempts to sit upright and pull at the groin dressing. The client has not voided since before the procedure. Which action should the nurse take to safely address the client's basic care and comfort needs?

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Cevap: Maintain the head of the bed at 20 degrees, perform a bedside bladder ultrasound, and assist the client with using a fracture pan if retention is present.

Cevap

The safest action is to maintain the head of the bed at 20 degrees, perform a bedside bladder ultrasound, and assist the client with using a fracture pan if urinary retention is present.
The correct action synthesizes the need for elimination assistance with strict post-procedural safety. Agitation in this context points to a full bladder. A bedside ultrasound confirms retention, while keeping the head of the bed at 20 degrees and using a fracture pan prevents dangerous hip flexion, safeguarding the femoral arterial puncture site from rupture.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and recognize the primary problem.
The client's sudden agitation, lower abdominal pressure, and lack of voiding for over 4 hours strongly indicate acute urinary retention, rather than just confusion.
Agitation in older adults or clients with cognitive impairment is frequently the first sign of a physiological unmet need, such as a full bladder.
2
Identify the contraindications based on the recent medical procedure.
The client is 4 hours post-PCI via the right femoral artery, meaning the right leg must remain straight and the head of the bed (HOB) must not be elevated above 30 degrees.
Excessive hip flexion (such as sitting upright) drastically increases the risk of arterial bleeding or retroperitoneal hematoma at the femoral puncture site.
3
Select the nursing intervention that safely resolves the basic care need (elimination) while adhering to positioning constraints.
Using a fracture pan with the HOB at 20 degrees allows for elimination without requiring the client to bend the affected hip or sit upright.
A fracture pan has a lower profile than a standard bedpan, allowing it to be slipped under the client with minimal lifting or rolling, protecting the femoral access site.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care Positioning and Elimination for Post-Procedural Clients
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1248Soru →

A client on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a continuous peripheral infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride with added potassium chloride. The client's electronic health record indicates that a scheduled dose of intravenous famotidine is currently due. Which step is essential for the nurse to take before proceeding with the medication administration?

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Cevap: Consult a pharmacological resource to verify that famotidine is compatible with the primary continuous fluid.

Cevap

Consult a pharmacological resource to verify that famotidine is compatible with the primary continuous fluid.
Verifying compatibility is a fundamental safety requirement before administering any secondary intravenous medication into an existing continuous infusion. This action prevents potential chemical reactions, such as precipitation, which can cause severe harm like an embolism or render the medications completely ineffective.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary fluid currently infusing.
The client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride with potassium chloride.
Knowing the exact composition of the primary fluid is necessary to determine compatibility.
2
Identify the prescribed medication to be administered.
The prescribed medication is intravenous famotidine.
The nurse must know which new medication is being introduced into the system.
3
Check a reliable drug compatibility resource.
The nurse determines if the famotidine can safely mix with the primary fluid in the IV tubing.
Preventing drug-drug incompatibilities is a fundamental safety standard to avoid precipitation or toxicity.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Compatibility
Soru 1249Soru →

A client is 4 hours postoperative following a bowel resection. The surgical dressing is saturated with bright red blood, and the hemovac drain contains 300 mL of fresh sanguineous fluid. Which assessment findings indicate the client is developing early hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Heart rate of 118 beats per minute; New onset of restlessness; Capillary refill time of 5 seconds

Cevap

The assessment findings indicating early hypovolemic shock are a heart rate of 118 beats per minute, new onset of restlessness, and a capillary refill time of 5 seconds.
In early hypovolemic shock, the body's compensatory mechanisms activate the sympathetic nervous system to preserve tissue perfusion. This physiological response manifests as an increased heart rate (tachycardia) to boost cardiac output, peripheral vasoconstriction (prolonged capillary refill) to redirect blood flow to essential organs, and early signs of cerebral hypoxia such as restlessness or anxiety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary clinical risk presented in the scenario.
The client has acute blood loss, putting them at risk for hypovolemic shock.
Recognizing the risk guides the focus toward early signs of decreased perfusion.
2
Evaluate each option against the expected physiological changes in the compensatory stage of shock.
Tachycardia, delayed capillary refill, and altered mental status are early signs. Normal urine output and bounding pulses contradict the pathophysiology of hypovolemia.
Sympathetic nervous system activation causes specific, predictable vital sign and assessment changes to maintain blood pressure.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Indicators of Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 1250Soru →

During afternoon rounding on the cardiovascular progressive care unit, the charge nurse evaluates the status of a client who underwent a right femoral percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) two hours ago. Which specific finding necessitates an immediate interruption by the charge nurse to mitigate a severe physiological risk?

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Cevap: The client is sitting upright in bed at a 60-degree angle to comfortably consume a lunch tray.

Cevap

The finding that requires immediate intervention is the client sitting upright at a 60-degree angle to eat, as this positioning is heavily contraindicated following a femoral procedure.
Following a percutaneous coronary intervention via the femoral artery, standard risk-reduction protocols dictate that the client must remain supine or with the head of the bed elevated no more than 30 degrees. Elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees causes severe flexion at the groin. This flexion directly increases pressure on the femoral artery puncture site, which can dislodge the clot and lead to massive external arterial bleeding or a hidden, life-threatening retroperitoneal hemorrhage.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the critical physiological risk associated with a recent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the femoral artery approach.
The primary immediate risk is severe bleeding, hematoma formation, or retroperitoneal hemorrhage at the femoral puncture site.
Understanding the anatomical and procedural risks is necessary to guide safe post-operative care and positioning.
2
Analyze the provided clinical observations against evidence-based safety protocols to distinguish normal findings from dangerous deviations.
Elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees bends the hip and stresses the puncture site. Conversely, the ABG values are normal, the assessment sequence is clinically accurate, and the vital signs do not indicate impending shock.
Discriminating between expected clinical data and unsafe practices is essential for effective risk reduction.
3
Prioritize the finding that presents the most immediate threat to the client's physiological integrity.
The charge nurse must interrupt the client sitting at 60 degrees to immediately lower the bed.
Swift correction of contraindicated positioning is required to prevent a life-threatening arterial hemorrhage.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Procedure Client Positioning and Hemorrhage Prevention
Soru 1251Soru →

A client weighing 76 kg76 \text{ kg} is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of unfractionated heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The current infusion rate is 16 units/kg/hr16 \text{ units/kg/hr}. The IV bag is labeled "Heparin sodium 25,000 units25,000 \text{ units} in 500 mL500 \text{ mL} 0.45% NaCl0.45\% \text{ NaCl}". The client's morning activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 112 seconds112 \text{ seconds} (reference range: 30−40 seconds30-40 \text{ seconds}).

The facility's heparin titration protocol specifies the following actions based on aPTT results:
- aPTT 71−90 seconds71-90 \text{ seconds}: Decrease infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}.
- aPTT >90 seconds> 90 \text{ seconds}: Stop the infusion for 11 hour, then decrease the rate by 3 units/kg/hr3 \text{ units/kg/hr}.

Based on the protocol, which sequence of actions and newly programmed IV pump rate should the nurse implement? (Round the final pump rate to the nearest tenth).

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the IV infusion for 11 hour, then restart the pump at 19.8 mL/hr19.8 \text{ mL/hr}.

Cevap

Stop the IV infusion for 11 hour, then restart the pump at 19.8 mL/hr19.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
The correct answer accurately synthesizes clinical prioritization with complex medication math. Because the aPTT (112 seconds112 \text{ seconds}) is greater than 90 seconds90 \text{ seconds}, the priority is to stop the infusion for 11 hour to mitigate bleeding risk. The new dose is calculated by subtracting 3 units/kg/hr3 \text{ units/kg/hr} from the current rate, yielding 13 units/kg/hr13 \text{ units/kg/hr}. Multiplying this by the client's weight (76 kg76 \text{ kg}) gives 988 units/hr988 \text{ units/hr}. Dividing the required units by the solution concentration (25,000 units/500 mL=50 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} / 500 \text{ mL} = 50 \text{ units/mL}) results in 19.76 mL/hr19.76 \text{ mL/hr}, which correctly rounds to 19.8 mL/hr19.8 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Interpret the laboratory result against the protocol.
The aPTT is 112 seconds112 \text{ seconds}, which falls into the >90 seconds> 90 \text{ seconds} category.
Determines the correct clinical intervention to prevent severe hemorrhage.
2
Identify the required immediate action.
The infusion must be stopped for 11 hour.
Allows the dangerously high level of anticoagulation to begin wearing off.
3
Calculate the new weight-based dose.
16 units/kg/hr−3 units/kg/hr=13 units/kg/hr16 \text{ units/kg/hr} - 3 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 13 \text{ units/kg/hr}.
The protocol requires a decrease of 3 units/kg/hr3 \text{ units/kg/hr} for this critical value.
4
Calculate the total units required per hour.
76 kg×13 units/kg/hr=988 units/hr76 \text{ kg} \times 13 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 988 \text{ units/hr}.
Converts the weight-based dose into the total required hourly dose.
5
Calculate the concentration of the IV solution.
25,000 units÷500 mL=50 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} \div 500 \text{ mL} = 50 \text{ units/mL}.
Required to convert the ordered dose (units) into the pump setting (mL).
6
Calculate the final IV pump rate.
988 units/hr÷50 units/mL=19.76 mL/hr988 \text{ units/hr} \div 50 \text{ units/mL} = 19.76 \text{ mL/hr}. Rounded to the nearest tenth, this is 19.8 mL/hr19.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
Determines the exact volume to program into the infusion pump.

Anahtar Kavram

High-risk medication titration requires precise weight-based calculations and strict adherence to protocols, prioritizing the temporary suspension of therapy when critical laboratory values indicate impending harm.
Tahmini Süre:3m 0s
Soru 1252Soru →

A nurse is planning care for a client who has just returned to the nursing unit following a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of post-procedure complications?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for 4 to 8 hours.

Cevap

Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for 4 to 8 hours.
Following a lumbar puncture, the client is at high risk for developing a spinal headache caused by the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the puncture site in the dura mater. Maintaining the client in a flat, supine position for a prescribed period (typically 4 to 8 hours) equalizes pressure in the subarachnoid space. This significantly reduces the risk of CSF leakage and subsequent complications, thereby promoting safe physiological adaptation and risk reduction.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the procedure the client underwent.
The client had a lumbar puncture.
Different diagnostic procedures require specific post-procedure positioning and care to mitigate unique risks.
2
Determine the primary physiological risk associated with the procedure.
The primary immediate risk following a lumbar puncture is the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the dural puncture site.
Understanding the potential complication allows the nurse to implement targeted risk reduction strategies.
3
Select the appropriate intervention to minimize this risk.
Positioning the client flat and supine is the correct action.
A flat position equalizes CSF pressure, preventing leakage and subsequent spinal headaches.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning and Complication Prevention
Soru 1253Soru →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a wheelchair. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence to ensure a safe transfer.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first prepare the wheelchair on the strong side, then assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed, apply the transfer belt and footwear, help the client stand, and finally instruct them to pivot and sit in the wheelchair.
Safe transfer of a client with unilateral weakness requires a systematic approach prioritizing environmental safety, physiological readiness, and mechanical support. By placing the chair on the strong side first, the client can use their unaffected limbs to assist in the transfer. Dangling allows cardiovascular adjustment to prevent syncope. The transfer belt and footwear provide essential safety measures. Finally, pivoting on the strong leg and reaching for the armrests ensures a controlled descent into the wheelchair.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prepare the environment and wheelchair.
The wheelchair is locked and positioned correctly on the client's unaffected side.
Ensures the equipment is stable and positioned to maximize the client's use of their strong side.
2
Assist the client to a dangling position.
The client is safely sitting on the side of the bed.
Allows the nurse to assess for orthostatic hypotension and ensures the client has their balance before standing.
3
Apply the transfer belt and non-slip footwear.
The client is properly equipped for a safe weight-bearing transfer.
Provides a secure point of contact for the nurse and prevents the client from slipping on the floor.
4
Assist the client to a standing position.
The client is upright and bearing weight primarily on the strong leg.
Initiates the physical transfer toward the wheelchair while maintaining safety and control.
5
Instruct the client to pivot and reach for the armrests.
The client safely transitions into the wheelchair seat.
Reaching for the armrests provides stability and prevents the client from missing the chair or falling during the descent.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Client Transfer and Mobility
Soru 1254Soru →

A 45-year-old client with acute necrotizing pancreatitis is being monitored in the high-acuity unit. Over a four-hour observation period, the client's serum calcium drops dramatically from 8.8 mg/dL to 6.5 mg/dL, accompanied by a rising heart rate of 118 bpm. The client reports a progressive 'pins and needles' sensation around the mouth and in the fingertips. As an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) approaches the bedside and begins wrapping a sphygmomanometer cuff around the client's upper arm, what represents the paramount risk reduction action?

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Cevap: Stop the cuff inflation immediately, as inducing ischemia in the arm will precipitate Trousseau's sign and indicates an impending risk of airway obstruction from laryngospasm.

Cevap

The clinician must immediately stop the UAP from inflating the blood pressure cuff, as it will induce ischemia and provoke a severe carpopedal spasm (Trousseau's sign), signaling high risk for fatal laryngospasm.
The correct answer accurately identifies that a serum calcium level of 6.5 mg/dL is critically low. In this state of severe neuromuscular excitability, inflating a blood pressure cuff induces local tissue ischemia, which triggers Trousseau's sign (a painful carpopedal spasm). Eliciting this sign indicates the client is at extreme risk for widespread tetany, including life-threatening laryngospasm. The nurse must prioritize preventing this iatrogenic trigger over routine data collection.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the laboratory and clinical trends.
Serum calcium has plummeted to 6.5 mg/dL (severe hypocalcemia), and the client is exhibiting circumoral and peripheral paresthesia.
Hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability, leading to tetany, arrhythmias, and potentially fatal laryngospasm.
2
Evaluate the UAP's impending action.
The UAP is about to inflate a blood pressure cuff on the client's arm.
Understanding how routine procedures interact with severe electrolyte imbalances is critical for risk reduction.
3
Synthesize the physiological risk associated with the UAP's action.
Inflating the cuff above systolic pressure induces localized ischemia, which triggers Trousseau's sign (carpopedal spasm) in hypocalcemic clients.
Triggering this reflex can cause severe pain, exacerbate tetany, and indicates an extreme risk for sudden airway obstruction via laryngospasm.
4
Determine the highest priority intervention.
Halting the blood pressure measurement is the absolute priority to prevent an iatrogenic crisis.
Risk reduction mandates preventing predictable, life-threatening complications before they occur.

Anahtar Kavram

Severe Hypocalcemia and Risk of Iatrogenic Tetany/Laryngospasm
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1255Soru →

An adult client is receiving care in the emergency department for a severe asthma exacerbation. Following one hour of continuous albuterol nebulization and intravenous corticosteroids, the client's respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, and auscultation reveals that the previously loud, bilateral expiratory wheezes are now significantly diminished. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air reveals a pH of 7.36, a PaCO2 of 44 mm Hg, and a PaO2 of 61 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the client's immediate risk of physiological deterioration?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Gather emergency airway supplies and notify the healthcare provider of impending respiratory failure.

Cevap

The priority action is to gather emergency airway supplies and notify the healthcare provider of impending respiratory failure.
The correct action is to prepare for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation. This client is demonstrating two classic signs of impending respiratory arrest: the 'silent chest' (diminished wheezing due to a lack of airflow) and pseudo-normalization of arterial blood gases. A tachypneic asthmatic should have a low PaCO2; therefore, a 'normal' PaCO2 (44 mm Hg) indicates profound fatigue and an inability to sustain ventilation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's physical assessment findings.
The client is highly tachypneic (32 breaths/minute) but has diminished wheezing.
In acute asthma, a sudden decrease in wheezing without overall clinical improvement indicates a 'silent chest' where airflow is severely restricted, representing a life-threatening emergency.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical presentation.
The ABG shows a 'normal' pH (7.36) and PaCO2 (44 mm Hg), with mild hypoxemia (PaO2 61 mm Hg).
During an asthma attack, tachypnea typically causes a low PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis). A rising or 'normal' PaCO2 (pseudo-normalization) in a struggling, tachypneic client signals respiratory muscle fatigue and impending failure.
3
Determine the most appropriate risk reduction nursing intervention.
The nurse must anticipate the need for advanced airway management.
Because the client is deteriorating and losing the ability to ventilate adequately, the immediate priority is to prepare for endotracheal intubation to secure the airway and prevent cardiopulmonary arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of impending respiratory failure in severe asthma exacerbation, specifically identifying the 'silent chest' phenomenon and pseudo-normalization of ABG values.
Soru 1256Soru →

A client with short bowel syndrome is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a single-lumen central venous catheter. The electronic health record indicates a new prescription for an intermittent intravenous antibiotic. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client does not have any other established venous access. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Obtain supplies and establish a new peripheral venous access site for the antibiotic.

Cevap

Establish a new peripheral venous access site for the antibiotic.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) must always be infused through a dedicated line or a dedicated lumen of a central catheter. This prevents drug-nutrient incompatibilities, precipitation, and reduces the risk of central line-associated bloodstream infections. Because the client only has a single-lumen central line, establishing a new peripheral IV is the only safe and appropriate action.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current intravenous therapy.
The client is receiving continuous TPN through a single-lumen central line.
Understanding the properties of the current infusion is essential for safe medication administration.
2
Evaluate the rules for parenteral nutrition administration.
TPN requires a dedicated intravenous line. No other medications or fluids should be infused through the same lumen.
TPN solutions are highly complex and prone to precipitation when mixed with other drugs. The high dextrose content also increases infection risk if the line is accessed frequently.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the newly prescribed antibiotic.
A separate intravenous access must be obtained.
Since the central line is a single lumen dedicated to TPN, a new peripheral IV is necessary to safely give the antibiotic without interrupting nutrition or risking incompatibility.

Anahtar Kavram

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) must be administered through a dedicated intravenous line or a dedicated lumen of a multi-lumen catheter. Other medications should never be piggybacked or administered through a dedicated TPN line.
Soru 1257Soru →

A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a right above-the-knee amputation. Which interventions should the nurse include to promote comfort, mobility, and proper positioning? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the client prone for 20 to 30 minutes every 3 to 4 hours.; Ensure an overhead trapeze bar is securely attached to the client's bed.; Wash the residual limb gently with mild soap and water, then pat it completely dry.

Cevap

The correct interventions are positioning the client prone periodically, utilizing an overhead trapeze bar, and washing and drying the residual limb thoroughly.
Appropriate basic care for a client with a recent above-the-knee amputation focuses on preventing hip flexion contractures, maintaining skin integrity, and promoting independent mobility. Periodic prone positioning counteracts flexion, a trapeze bar encourages independent movement, and gentle washing with complete drying protects the vulnerable skin from breakdown.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's postoperative timeframe and surgical procedure.
The client is 48 hours post-op from an above-the-knee amputation, putting them at high risk for hip flexion contractures and requiring focused skin and mobility care.
Understanding the timeline and procedure identifies contracture prevention as a primary goal.
2
Evaluate the positioning options for contracture risk.
Prone positioning stretches the hip flexors, while continuous pillow elevation and prolonged sitting promote excessive hip flexion.
Correct positioning is fundamental to basic care and maintaining future prosthesis viability.
3
Assess the delegation and hygiene interventions.
An RN must perform skin evaluations, not a UAP. A trapeze aids mobility, and proper washing prevents maceration.
Safe basic care requires appropriate task delegation and promoting optimal skin integrity.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of flexion contractures and promotion of safe basic care following lower extremity amputation.
Soru 1258Soru →

An intensive care nurse is caring for a client who is receiving positive pressure mechanical ventilation. The ventilator's high-pressure alarm suddenly sounds, and the client's oxygen saturation drops to 84%. Assessment reveals absent breath sounds over the right lung field, a blood pressure of 82/40 mm Hg, and the trachea deviated toward the left. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate performing immediately?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assisting the provider with an emergent needle thoracostomy

Cevap

The nurse should immediately assist the provider with an emergent needle thoracostomy.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a tension pneumothorax (absent breath sounds on one side, tracheal deviation, and hypotension), which is a known complication of positive pressure ventilation (barotrauma). The increased intrathoracic pressure compresses the heart and great vessels, causing obstructive shock. The immediate life-saving intervention is needle thoracostomy (decompression) to release the trapped air, followed by chest tube insertion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the assessment findings.
Absent breath sounds on the right, hypotension, and left-sided tracheal deviation in a ventilated client indicate a right-sided tension pneumothorax.
Positive pressure ventilation can cause barotrauma, leading to trapped air in the pleural space.
2
Identify the pathophysiological priority.
The trapped air increases intrathoracic pressure, collapsing the lung and compressing the heart and great vessels (obstructive shock).
This compression drastically reduces venous return and cardiac output, causing severe hypotension and hypoxia.
3
Determine the immediate life-saving intervention.
Needle thoracostomy must be performed to quickly release the trapped air.
Relieving the pressure restores venous return and allows the unaffected lung to expand, stabilizing the client.

Anahtar Kavram

Tension pneumothorax requires immediate clinical recognition and decompression; it is a form of obstructive shock where delayed intervention is fatal.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1259Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a primary intravenous infusion of 1,0001,000 mL of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride over 88 hours. At what rate should the nurse program the electronic infusion pump in mL/hr? (Record your answer as a whole number.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 125

Cevap

125
To determine the correct infusion rate in mL/hr, divide the total volume to be infused (1,0001,000 mL) by the total time for the infusion (88 hours). Therefore, 1,000÷8=1251,000 \div 8 = 125 mL/hr.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the total volume of fluid to be infused.
1,0001,000 mL
This value serves as the numerator in the rate calculation formula.
2
Identify the total time over which the fluid is prescribed to infuse.
88 hours
This value serves as the denominator in the rate calculation formula.
3
Divide the total volume by the total time.
1,000÷8=1251,000 \div 8 = 125 mL/hr
The standard formula for determining an infusion pump rate is Volume (mL) divided by Time (hours).

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Infusion Pump Rate Calculation
Soru 1260Soru →

A rapid response team is called to an inpatient unit for a client who is experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The seizure activity has been continuous for 12 minutes without the client regaining consciousness. Upon arrival, the nurse notes circumoral cyanosis and audible gurgling respirations. Arrange the following emergent interventions in the priority sequence they must be executed.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate airway clearance and safety (lateral position), followed by oxygenation, establishing access, stopping the active seizure with a rapid-acting agent, and finally preventing recurrence with a long-acting agent.
The correct sequence follows the fundamental principles of resuscitation: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, and then targeted pharmacological therapy. In status epilepticus, the physical airway is compromised by patient position and secretions, making lateral positioning the first action. Once the airway is open, providing oxygen treats the immense cerebral metabolic demand and cyanosis. Next, circulation and access must be verified to safely administer medications. The immediate pharmacological goal is to break the seizure using a rapid-acting benzodiazepine. Finally, a long-acting antiepileptic drug is given to provide sustained seizure prophylaxis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Turn the client onto a lateral decubitus position and protect the head from trauma.
The airway is cleared of pooling secretions, reducing aspiration risk, and the head is protected from concussive injury.
Airway patency and safety are the most immediate life-saving priorities in an actively seizing client.
2
Apply high-flow supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Hypoxemia (evidenced by cyanosis) is treated, and cerebral oxygen delivery is maximized.
Status epilepticus significantly increases cerebral oxygen consumption; oxygen must be applied immediately after the airway is physically cleared.
3
Verify the patency of the client's existing intravenous catheter.
A secure route for emergency medication administration is confirmed.
Intravenous access must be verified before administering vesicant or critical care medications to avoid delays or extravasation.
4
Administer the prescribed rapid-acting intravenous lorazepam.
The continuous seizure activity is pharmacologically aborted.
Benzodiazepines are the evidence-based first-line therapy to stop status epilepticus, minimizing further neurological damage.
5
Initiate a prescribed intravenous loading dose of fosphenytoin.
Therapeutic levels of an antiepileptic drug are established in the bloodstream.
A long-acting antiepileptic is required following a benzodiazepine to prevent the seizure from recurring once the short-acting agent wears off.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in Status Epilepticus Management
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 63 | Examkin