Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1301Soru →

A client with a systemic fungal infection has a double-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The proximal lumen is dedicated to a continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusion. The distal lumen is infusing 0.9% sodium chloride with 20 mEq of potassium chloride at 75 mL/hr. The healthcare provider prescribes a daily intermittent intravenous (IV) infusion of amphotericin B deoxycholate. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates the correct technique for administering this medication?

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Cevap: Pause the saline and potassium infusion, flush the distal lumen with 5% dextrose in water (D5W), administer the amphotericin B, and flush again with D5W.

Cevap

The correct approach is to pause the incompatible saline and potassium infusion, flush the line thoroughly with 5% dextrose in water (D5W), administer the amphotericin B, and then flush again with D5W before restarting the primary fluids.
The correct action demonstrates advanced pharmacological knowledge of high-risk parenteral therapies. Because the TPN line must remain dedicated, the nurse must use the distal lumen. Since amphotericin B precipitates when mixed with normal saline or electrolytes (potassium), the nurse must pause the primary infusion and clear the line completely using 5% dextrose in water (D5W), which is the only compatible flush solution for this medication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the current IV infusions and line access.
The client has a double-lumen PICC. One lumen has TPN, the other has normal saline with potassium chloride.
Establishing what access is available is the first step in safe parenteral medication administration.
2
Determine the compatibility of amphotericin B with the existing continuous infusions.
Amphotericin B is highly incompatible with both TPN and 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline).
Amphotericin B precipitates in the presence of electrolytes and saline, posing a severe risk to the client if mixed.
3
Select the appropriate lumen for administration.
The distal lumen must be used.
The proximal lumen contains TPN, which must remain a dedicated line and cannot be interrupted or used for secondary medications.
4
Determine the correct flush protocol for the selected lumen.
The primary saline infusion must be paused, and the line must be flushed with 5% dextrose in water (D5W) before and after the amphotericin B infusion.
D5W is the only compatible solution for flushing and diluting amphotericin B. Using the standard normal saline flush will cause immediate medication precipitation in the catheter.

Anahtar Kavram

Amphotericin B Parenteral Compatibility and Dedicated IV Line Management
Soru 1302Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute decompensated heart failure who weighs 198 lbs198 \text{ lbs}. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of milrinone at 0.375 mcg/kg/min0.375 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The pharmacy supplies milrinone as 20 mg20 \text{ mg} in 100 mL100 \text{ mL} of 5% Dextrose5\% \text{ Dextrose} in water (D5W). At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse set the IV infusion pump? (Record answer to the nearest tenth.)

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Cevap: 10.1

Cevap

10.1
To solve this problem, first convert the weight to kilograms (198÷2.2=90 kg198 \div 2.2 = 90 \text{ kg}). Next, find the per-minute dose (0.375 mcg×90 kg=33.75 mcg/min0.375 \text{ mcg} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 33.75 \text{ mcg/min}). Convert this to an hourly dose by multiplying by 60 (33.75×60=2025 mcg/hr33.75 \times 60 = 2025 \text{ mcg/hr}). Then, find the concentration of the supplied bag by converting mg to mcg (20 mg=20,000 mcg20 \text{ mg} = 20,000 \text{ mcg}) and dividing by the volume (20,000 mcg÷100 mL=200 mcg/mL20,000 \text{ mcg} \div 100 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}). Finally, divide the required hourly dose by the concentration (2025÷200=10.1252025 \div 200 = 10.125) and round to the nearest tenth (10.110.1).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lbs) to kilograms (kg).
198 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=90 kg198 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 \text{ lbs/kg} = 90 \text{ kg}
The medication is prescribed in a weight-based format using kilograms.
2
Calculate the prescribed dose per minute based on the client's weight in kilograms.
0.375 mcg/kg/min×90 kg=33.75 mcg/min0.375 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 33.75 \text{ mcg/min}
This establishes the exact amount of medication the client needs to receive every minute.
3
Convert the dose per minute to the dose per hour.
33.75 mcg/min×60 min/hr=2025 mcg/hr33.75 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 2025 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr, so the medication dose must reflect an hourly rate.
4
Convert the supplied milrinone dose from milligrams (mg) to micrograms (mcg).
20 mg×1000 mcg/mg=20,000 mcg20 \text{ mg} \times 1000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 20,000 \text{ mcg}
Standardizing units is required because the prescription is in micrograms but the supply is in milligrams.
5
Determine the concentration of the supplied medication in mcg/mL.
20,000 mcg÷100 mL=200 mcg/mL20,000 \text{ mcg} \div 100 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}
This shows how many micrograms of milrinone are contained in every 1 mL of the IV fluid.
6
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr by dividing the hourly dose by the concentration.
2025 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=10.125 mL/hr2025 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 10.125 \text{ mL/hr}
This translates the required hourly medication dose into the fluid volume the pump must deliver.
7
Round the calculated infusion rate to the nearest tenth.
10.125 mL/hr10.125 \text{ mL/hr} rounds to 10.1 mL/hr10.1 \text{ mL/hr}
Adhering to the specific rounding instructions provided in the stem.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-Based Continuous IV Infusion Dosage Calculations
Soru 1303Soru →

The charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is reviewing the electronic health records of four assigned clients. Which client requires the most immediate assessment to reduce the risk of severe physiological deterioration?

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Cevap: A client 6 hours post-percutaneous renal biopsy who is exhibiting sudden restlessness, a resting heart rate of 115 bpm, and a urinary output of 15 mL over the past hour

Cevap

The client who is 6 hours post-percutaneous renal biopsy exhibiting sudden restlessness, tachycardia, and oliguria requires the most immediate assessment.
The correct answer identifies the client post-percutaneous renal biopsy as the highest priority. The kidney is highly vascular, placing the client at significant risk for hemorrhage. Sudden restlessness is often the earliest sign of diminished cerebral perfusion. Combined with tachycardia and a sharp drop in urinary output (oliguria), this clinical picture strongly indicates early hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock due to retroperitoneal bleeding. This client requires immediate physiological intervention to prevent cardiovascular collapse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the clinical presentation of the client post-renal biopsy.
The client has developed sudden restlessness, a heart rate of 115 bpm, and a urinary output of 15 mL/hr.
The kidney is a highly vascular organ. These findings are classic early indicators of hemorrhagic shock secondary to retroperitoneal bleeding, representing an acute life-threatening emergency.
2
Analyze the ABG results for the client with COPD.
The ABG shows a pH of 7.36, PaCO2 of 57 mmHg, and HCO3 of 31 mEq/L.
This indicates a fully compensated respiratory acidosis. For a client with severe COPD, this is an expected chronic baseline rather than an acute deterioration.
3
Assess the symptoms and positioning of the client post-lumbar puncture.
The client has a positional headache while lying flat.
A post-dural puncture headache is an expected complication caused by CSF leakage. Maintaining a flat, supine position is the correct intervention, and the symptom is not life-threatening.
4
Review the laboratory values for the client with ESRD awaiting hemodialysis.
Elevated creatinine (7.5 mg/dL), BUN (88 mg/dL), and mild metabolic acidosis (pH 7.32).
These values represent chronic, expected uremia and acidosis that will be corrected by the scheduled treatment, not an immediate physiological crisis.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization requires distinguishing between expected chronic or post-procedural baselines and subtle, early indicators of acute, life-threatening complications such as hemorrhagic shock.
Soru 1304Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a 6565-year-old client admitted for a severe acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client is currently prescribed oxygen at 22 L/min via nasal cannula. During the latest assessment, the nurse discovers that the client is extremely lethargic, difficult to arouse, and breathing at a shallow rate of 1010 breaths/min. The results of a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) draw are as follows:

* pH: 7.227.22
* PaCO 2_2: 7474 mm Hg
* PaO 2_2: 5858 mm Hg
* HCO 3−_3^-: 2929 mEq/L

To mitigate the risk of impending physiological decompensation, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Activate the rapid response team and prepare the client for immediate positive pressure ventilation

Cevap

The correct action is to activate the rapid response team and prepare the client for immediate positive pressure ventilation to address the acute respiratory failure.
The correct answer requires prioritizing airway and ventilation. The client is exhibiting signs of acute, uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.227.22, elevated PaCO 2_2 of 7474 mm Hg) superimposed on chronic COPD (indicated by the elevated HCO 3−_3^- of 2929 mEq/L). The clinical signs of lethargy and severe bradypnea (1010 breaths/min) indicate hypercapnic encephalopathy and impending respiratory failure. The priority is to establish effective ventilation, which requires rapid response team activation and mechanical support (such as BiPAP or intubation) to clear the excess carbon dioxide.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is lethargic with a slow, shallow respiratory rate (1010 breaths/min).
These are classic signs of hypercapnic encephalopathy (carbon dioxide narcosis) indicating impending respiratory failure.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH is 7.227.22 (acidosis), PaCO 2_2 is 7474 mm Hg (respiratory origin), and HCO 3−_3^- is 2929 mEq/L (partial compensation).
This represents an uncompensated, acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on risk reduction.
Recognize that the client can no longer adequately ventilate independently.
Immediate positive pressure ventilation (BiPAP or intubation) is required to reduce the risk of cardiopulmonary arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and Management of Acute Hypercapnic Respiratory Failure in COPD
Soru 1305Soru →

An adult client receiving volume-controlled mechanical ventilation suddenly exhibits profound clinical deterioration. The ventilator triggers continuous high peak airway pressure alarms. Simultaneously, the cardiac monitor displays a heart rate of 142142 beats per minute, and the arterial line shows a precipitous blood pressure drop to 68/38 mmHg68/38 \text{ mmHg}. Arrange the following emergency nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence for managing this acute crisis.

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence is to first detach the client from the ventilator and manually ventilate, then assess the lung fields for signs of tension pneumothorax. This is followed by preparing for immediate needle decompression, assembling a chest drainage unit for definitive treatment, and finally obtaining a post-procedure chest radiograph.
When a mechanically ventilated client develops sudden high peak airway pressures accompanied by hemodynamic collapse (tachycardia and severe hypotension), a tension pneumothorax causing obstructive shock must be suspected immediately. The evidence-based DOPE mnemonic (Displacement, Obstruction, Pneumothorax, Equipment) guides the initial approach. The absolute first action is to disconnect the ventilator and manually ventilate using a bag-valve-mask with 100%100\% oxygen. This safely removes equipment malfunction as a variable, halts forced barotrauma, and allows the nurse to feel for severe resistance (stiff compliance). Second, the nurse rapidly assesses for asymmetric breath sounds and tracheal deviation to clinically confirm the complication. Third, once tension pneumothorax is identified, the priority shifts to assisting with immediate, life-saving needle decompression to relieve intrapleural pressure and restore cardiac output. Fourth, a chest tube drainage unit is prepared for definitive, continuous evacuation of the pleural space. Finally, diagnostic imaging is obtained to evaluate the effectiveness of the interventions and verify correct tube placement.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Detach the endotracheal tube from the mechanical ventilator and manually ventilate.
Halts continuous positive pressure from the machine and allows the nurse to manually assess lung compliance.
Continuing mechanical ventilation in the presence of a tension pneumothorax exacerbates intrathoracic pressure and obstructive shock.
2
Auscultate bilateral lung fields and assess tracheal deviation.
Identifies absent breath sounds on one side and a trachea shifted away from the affected side.
Confirms the clinical suspicion of a tension pneumothorax before initiating invasive emergency procedures.
3
Delegate alerting the provider and prepare a 1414-gauge catheter.
Ensures the life-saving equipment is immediately ready for the provider to perform a needle thoracostomy.
Needle decompression is the most rapid way to vent trapped pleural air and restore cardiac output in a crashing client.
4
Assemble a closed water-seal chest drainage unit.
Prepares the equipment needed for chest tube insertion.
Needle decompression is a temporary measure; a chest tube is the definitive treatment for a pneumothorax.
5
Coordinate a portable chest radiograph.
Provides visual confirmation of lung re-expansion and correct tube placement.
Post-procedure evaluation is necessary to ensure the interventions were successful and no further complications exist.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of Respiratory Emergencies and Obstructive Shock Management
Soru 1306Soru →

A client receiving an intravenous infusion of vincristine reports severe pain and burning at the peripheral intravenous site. The nurse observes swelling and blanching around the insertion site. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for managing a vincristine extravasation is to first stop the infusion, then aspirate the residual drug, remove the intravenous catheter, administer the subcutaneous antidote (hyaluronidase), and finally apply a warm compress and elevate the affected extremity.
Managing a vesicant extravasation requires a prioritized, protocol-driven approach to minimize severe tissue necrosis. The infusion must be stopped immediately as the absolute first action to halt further exposure. Leaving the catheter in place temporarily allows the nurse to aspirate any residual drug from the catheter and the immediate subcutaneous pocket. Once aspirated, the catheter is removed. For vinca alkaloids like vincristine, the specific antidote (hyaluronidase) is injected subcutaneously around the site to break down connective tissue. Finally, warm compresses are applied—a unique requirement for vinca alkaloids—to induce vasodilation, which helps disperse the drug systemically and reduces local tissue damage. Elevation helps to reduce edema.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary emergency intervention.
The infusion must be stopped immediately.
Vincristine is a vesicant. Halting the infusion is the most critical first step to prevent further extravasation into the tissue.
2
Determine the sequence for local catheter management.
Aspirate residual medication before removing the catheter.
Aspiration removes drug remaining in the catheter lumen and immediate tissue. Removing the catheter first would leave this toxic volume in the subcutaneous tissue.
3
Remove the access device.
The peripheral intravenous catheter is discontinued.
The catheter is no longer viable and must be removed to allow for the administration of the subcutaneous antidote.
4
Administer the specific pharmacologic antidote.
Inject hyaluronidase subcutaneously around the extravasation site.
Hyaluronidase breaks down hyaluronic acid in connective tissue, allowing the extravasated vincristine to disperse and be absorbed rapidly, minimizing local necrosis.
5
Apply appropriate thermal and positional therapy.
Apply a warm compress and elevate the extremity.
Unlike most vesicants which require cold compresses to localize the drug, vinca alkaloids uniquely require warm compresses to induce vasodilation and further disperse the drug. Elevation helps reduce local edema.

Anahtar Kavram

Vesicant Extravasation Management (Vinca Alkaloids)
Soru 1307Soru →

An 7878-year-old client with a history of heart failure is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of furosemide and is scheduled for an intermittent IV push dose of digoxin. During the morning assessment, the client reports nausea, anorexia, and seeing "yellow halos" around the lights in the room. The nurse assesses an irregular apical heart rate of 52 beats/min52 \text{ beats/min}. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Withhold the scheduled dose of intravenous digoxin, obtain a serum potassium level, and notify the healthcare provider.

Cevap

Withhold the scheduled dose of intravenous digoxin, obtain a serum potassium level, and notify the healthcare provider.
The correct action prioritizes client safety by immediately recognizing life-threatening medication toxicity. Digoxin has a very narrow therapeutic index, and toxicity manifests with gastrointestinal (nausea, anorexia), neurological (visual halos), and cardiac (bradycardia, dysrhythmias) symptoms. Because furosemide causes rapid potassium depletion, this client is at extreme risk for hypokalemia-induced digoxin toxicity. Withholding the drug, assessing the potassium level, and notifying the provider are the essential priority actions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's assessment findings and vital signs.
The client presents with bradycardia (52 beats/min52 \text{ beats/min}), nausea, anorexia, and yellow visual halos.
These specific manifestations are classic systemic and neurological indicators of digoxin toxicity.
2
Identify contributing pharmacological factors from the medication record.
The client is receiving a continuous infusion of furosemide.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium excretion. Hypokalemia strongly precipitates and exacerbates digoxin toxicity.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must prioritize withholding the digoxin dose and notifying the provider to obtain a serum potassium and digoxin level.
Administering further doses would worsen the toxicity and potentially cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.

Anahtar Kavram

Digoxin Toxicity and Pharmacological Interactions
Soru 1308Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with a confirmed pulmonary embolism who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin at 18 units/kg/hr18 \text{ units/kg/hr} through a single-lumen peripheral venous catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled dose of IV levofloxacin 500 mg500 \text{ mg} to infuse over 60 minutes60 \text{ minutes} for a concurrent bacterial pneumonia. Upon reviewing a pharmacological reference, the nurse discovers that heparin and levofloxacin are physically incompatible. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Cevap: Insert a new peripheral venous catheter in a different extremity to administer the levofloxacin.

Cevap

Insert a new peripheral venous catheter in a different extremity to administer the levofloxacin.
The correct action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous access site. Because heparin and levofloxacin are physically incompatible, they cannot be mixed in the same IV tubing or single-lumen catheter without risking crystallization and precipitation. Furthermore, because heparin is a critical high-alert medication with a very short half-life, pausing the infusion for the 60 minutes required to administer the antibiotic would place the client at immediate risk for thrombus extension.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pharmacological properties of the current continuous infusion.
Heparin has a very short half-life and is critical for preventing thrombus extension in a client with a pulmonary embolism.
To determine if the infusion can be safely interrupted for secondary medication administration.
2
Evaluate the physical compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Heparin and levofloxacin are physically incompatible.
To determine if the medications can be administered simultaneously through the same intravenous line.
3
Formulate a safe administration plan based on the client's vascular access.
The client only has a single-lumen catheter. A second intravenous access site must be established.
Mixing incompatible drugs causes precipitation, and pausing a critical heparin infusion for 60 minutes severely compromises patient safety.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Continuous Infusion Safety
Soru 1309Soru →

A pediatric client with otitis media is prescribed amoxicillin 250 mg250 \text{ mg} by mouth every 88 hours. The pharmacy dispenses an oral suspension labeled 125 mg/5 mL125 \text{ mg} / 5 \text{ mL}. Based on this information, how many milliliters (mL\text{mL}) should the nurse administer for each individual dose?

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Cevap: 10 mL10 \text{ mL}

Cevap

The nurse should administer 10 mL10 \text{ mL} of the medication for each dose.
The correct answer is 10 mL10 \text{ mL}. To determine the appropriate volume, the nurse uses the formula (Desired / Have) ×\times Quantity. The desired dose is 250 mg250 \text{ mg} and the available concentration is 125 mg125 \text{ mg} per 5 mL5 \text{ mL}. The calculation is (250125)×5=2×5=10 mL(\frac{250}{125}) \times 5 = 2 \times 5 = 10 \text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the prescribed (desired) dose.
Desired dose = 250 mg250 \text{ mg}.
This is the target amount of medication ordered by the provider for a single administration.
2
Identify the available medication concentration.
Have = 125 mg125 \text{ mg}, Quantity = 5 mL5 \text{ mL}.
This information is found on the pharmacy label of the medication bottle.
3
Calculate the volume to administer using the formula: (Desired/Have)×Quantity(\text{Desired} / \text{Have}) \times \text{Quantity}.
(250125)×5=2×5=10 mL(\frac{250}{125}) \times 5 = 2 \times 5 = 10 \text{ mL}.
Applying the standard medication math formula ensures the correct liquid volume is prepared.

Anahtar Kavram

Medication Dosage Calculation
Soru 1310Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Ten minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports sudden chills, severe lower back pain, and shortness of breath. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order to manage this situation from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion to prevent further exposure, then maintain IV access with new tubing and normal saline, followed by a rapid assessment of the client. After mitigating immediate threats, the nurse notifies the provider and blood bank, and finally returns the equipment for diagnostic investigation.
In a suspected acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the most critical risk reduction action is to remove the offending agent by stopping the transfusion immediately. Next, patent IV access must be maintained with completely new tubing and normal saline to prevent flushing residual blood into the client and to allow for emergency medication administration. Only after securing safety and access should the nurse assess the client's current status to report accurate findings to the provider. Finally, the remaining blood products are sent to the blood bank for mandatory analysis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the blood transfusion.
The infusion of incompatible blood is halted.
This is the primary risk reduction strategy to prevent further antigen-antibody reactions and organ damage.
2
Change the IV tubing and initiate normal saline.
Patent venous access is secured without flushing more blood into the client.
Vascular access is required for emergency resuscitation, but the existing tubing contains incompatible blood that must not be infused.
3
Assess the client.
Baseline data on the severity of the reaction is obtained.
The nurse needs current vital signs, oxygen saturation, and respiratory status to report to the provider.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and blood bank.
Medical interventions are prescribed and facility protocols are activated.
Collaborative care is necessary to treat the systemic reaction and begin the root-cause analysis.
5
Return the blood bag and tubing to the laboratory.
Evidence is preserved for typing and cross-matching analysis.
The laboratory must test the remaining product to identify the specific incompatibility that caused the reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Soru 1311Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache, and the nurse notes profound facial flushing and diaphoresis above the level of the injury. The client's current blood pressure is 218/114 mm Hg. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the priority order they should be performed, from first to last.

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Cevap

The priority sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, followed by loosening constrictive clothing, assessing for the noxious stimulus, administering antihypertensives if the condition persists, and finally documenting the event.
In autonomic dysreflexia, the immediate goal is to lower the blood pressure to prevent a stroke while simultaneously hunting for the trigger. Elevating the head of the bed achieves the fastest drop in blood pressure. Once positioned safely, the nurse systematically removes triggers from least invasive (clothing) to most common (bladder/bowel). Medications are reserved for when removing triggers fails to resolve the severe hypertension.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the signs of autonomic dysreflexia.
Identify the medical emergency requiring immediate blood pressure reduction.
A T4 spinal cord injury combined with sudden extreme hypertension, headache, and diaphoresis indicates this life-threatening syndrome.
2
Position the client upright.
Blood pressure begins to lower.
Gravity promotes venous pooling in the lower extremities, reducing venous return and subsequently providing an immediate, non-pharmacological reduction in blood pressure.
3
Eliminate sensory triggers.
Noxious stimuli are removed.
Loosening tight clothing and draining the bladder directly address the root causes triggering the exaggerated sympathetic nervous system response.
4
Administer medications and document.
Blood pressure normalizes and the care record is updated.
Persistent hypertension requires pharmacological management, followed by accurate legal and clinical documentation once the crisis is resolved.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of autonomic dysreflexia in spinal cord injuries
Soru 1312Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent intravenous (IV) antibiotic piggyback to a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following nursing actions are required for safe administration? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic with 0.9% sodium chloride using a drug reference guide.; Assess the IV insertion site for signs of infiltration, such as coolness or edema, prior to administration.; Scrub the hub of the primary IV tubing's Y-site with an antiseptic swab before connecting the piggyback.

Cevap

The correct actions include verifying the compatibility of the antibiotic with the primary fluid, assessing the IV insertion site for complications, and scrubbing the Y-site hub with an antiseptic swab.
Safe intravenous administration requires a multi-step approach focused on preventing complications. Verifying compatibility prevents chemical reactions inside the tubing. Assessing the IV site confirms the catheter is correctly placed in the vein, preventing extravasation or infiltration. Finally, scrubbing the connection hub with an antiseptic is a critical infection control measure to prevent catheter-associated bloodstream infections.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the need for compatibility verification.
The nurse must verify compatibility, as no fluid is universally compatible with all medications.
This prevents precipitation and crystallization inside the IV tubing.
2
Evaluate the physical assessment requirements for the IV site.
The nurse must inspect the site for infiltration and phlebitis.
Administering medications into a compromised IV site can cause severe tissue damage.
3
Evaluate infection control practices.
The nurse must scrub the injection port (hub) prior to connection.
This maintains a sterile line and prevents bloodstream infections.
4
Evaluate the method for determining the infusion rate.
The nurse must mathematically calculate the drops per minute or use an electronic infusion pump.
Visual estimation is inaccurate and can lead to dangerous dosage errors or speed shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Intravenous (IV) Medication Administration Principles
Soru 1313Soru →

A nurse is providing care for a client who has just returned to the nursing unit following a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of post-procedure complications?

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Cevap: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the prescribed amount of time.

Cevap

The nurse should maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the prescribed amount of time.
Following a lumbar puncture, the primary goal is to prevent the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the dural puncture site, which can lead to a severe spinal headache. Maintaining the client in a flat, supine position for a prescribed period (typically 1 to 4 hours, depending on facility policy and provider orders) minimizes hydrostatic pressure on the puncture site, allowing it to seal properly and reducing the risk of this complication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the procedure the client underwent.
The client had a lumbar puncture.
Understanding the procedure is essential to anticipate potential post-procedure complications.
2
Determine the most common complication associated with this procedure.
A post-lumbar puncture headache (spinal headache) caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
Identifying the primary risk dictates the appropriate nursing interventions.
3
Select the intervention that directly mitigates this specific risk.
Keeping the client in a flat, supine position minimizes pressure on the puncture site.
This positioning reduces cerebrospinal fluid leakage and prevents the development of a spinal headache.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Lumbar Puncture Care and Positioning
Soru 1314Soru →

A client in septic shock is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine. The medication is formulated as 4 mg4 \text{ mg} of norepinephrine in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W\text{D}_5\text{W}) and is currently infusing via a peripheral intravenous line at 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}. The client's mean arterial pressure (MAP) drops to 52 mm Hg52 \text{ mm Hg}. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate dose titration to 8 mcg/min8 \text{ mcg/min}. During the assessment, the nurse observes that the peripheral intravenous insertion site is cool, pale, and edematous. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Stop the infusion immediately, aspirate any residual medication from the catheter, leave the catheter in place, and prepare to administer phentolamine.

Cevap

Stop the infusion immediately, aspirate any residual medication from the catheter, leave the catheter in place, and prepare to administer phentolamine.
Norepinephrine is a potent vesicant that causes severe tissue necrosis if extravasation occurs. The absolute priority is to immediately stop the infusion to prevent further tissue damage. The catheter must be left in place so the nurse can aspirate any residual medication from the line and inject the specific antidote, phentolamine (an alpha-blocker), directly into the extravasated tissue to induce vasodilation and restore perfusion. Only after the antidote is administered should the catheter be removed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the intravenous site assessment findings against the infusing medication.
The site is cool, pale, and edematous, indicating extravasation of norepinephrine.
Norepinephrine is a potent alpha-adrenergic agonist (vesicant) that causes severe localized vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis if it leaks into subcutaneous tissues.
2
Determine the priority intervention considering the conflicting clinical demands (low MAP vs. extravasation).
The infusion must be stopped immediately despite the critical MAP of 52 mm Hg.
Continuing the infusion will not effectively raise the systemic blood pressure since the drug is pooling in the tissue, and it will guarantee catastrophic localized tissue loss.
3
Calculate the current and ordered dosage to evaluate distracting clinical options.
Concentration is 4000 mcg/250 mL=16 mcg/mL4000 \text{ mcg} / 250 \text{ mL} = 16 \text{ mcg/mL}. Current rate of 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr} delivers 240 mcg/hr240 \text{ mcg/hr} or 4 mcg/min4 \text{ mcg/min}. The ordered 8 mcg/min8 \text{ mcg/min} requires 30 mL/hr30 \text{ mL/hr}.
Accurate dose calculation proves that options leaving the rate at 15 mL/hr are mathematically incorrect in addition to being clinically unsafe.
4
Formulate the correct sequence for vesicant extravasation management.
Stop the pump, aspirate residual drug, leave the catheter intact, and administer phentolamine.
The existing catheter provides direct access to the extravasated tissue bed to administer the antidote (phentolamine, an alpha-adrenergic antagonist), which restores local perfusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Vesicant Extravasation Management and Dosage Calculation
Soru 1315Soru →

A registered nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult client who is on strict bed rest due to a severe exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. The client has recently developed urinary incontinence and exhibits extremely dry, itchy skin on the upper extremities. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the basic care and comfort plan? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Float the client's heels off the mattress surface by placing a supportive pillow under the lower legs.; Apply a moisture barrier ointment to the perineal region after cleansing following each incontinent episode.; Apply a prescribed emollient lotion to the client's upper extremities immediately after bathing while the skin remains damp.

Cevap

The correct interventions are floating the client's heels off the mattress, applying a moisture barrier to the perineum after incontinence, and applying emollient lotion to the extremities while the skin is damp.
Appropriate basic care and comfort measures for a bedridden client with incontinence and dry skin must focus heavily on preventing pressure injuries and maintaining skin integrity. Floating the heels completely off the bed removes pressure from the vulnerable calcaneus bone. Applying a moisture barrier protects perineal skin from the corrosive effects of urine. Using emollients immediately after bathing seals in essential moisture to treat excessively dry, itchy skin.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation to identify risk factors related to basic care and comfort.
The client is completely immobile (strict bed rest), has newly developed moisture issues (urinary incontinence), and impaired skin barrier function (extremely dry skin).
Identifying specific physiological risk factors dictates the necessary nursing interventions to maintain skin integrity and comfort.
2
Evaluate each proposed nursing intervention for safety, appropriate delegation, and evidence-based practice guidelines.
Heel floating, moisture barrier application, and damp-skin emollient use are safe, evidence-based practices. Continuous high-Fowler's positioning, delegating skin evaluation to a UAP, and dismissing incontinence as normal aging are incorrect and unsafe actions.
Differentiating between therapeutic interventions and contraindicated practices ensures the delivery of safe, high-quality patient care.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Skin Integrity, Positioning, and Scope of Practice
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1316Soru →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has left-sided hemiparesis from the bed to a wheelchair. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the steps from first to last.)

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence begins with positioning the wheelchair on the strong (right) side, followed by assisting the client to sit and applying a gait belt. The nurse then braces the weak (left) knee, helps the client stand and pivot on the strong (right) foot, and finally has the client grasp the armrest with the strong (right) hand before sitting.
When transferring a client with unilateral weakness (hemiparesis), the nurse must optimize the client's remaining strength and ensure safety. The sequence begins with environmental setup: placing the wheelchair on the unaffected (right) side so the client can lead the transfer with their strong side. Locking the brakes is mandatory. Next, the client is assisted to sit (to stabilize hemodynamics) and a gait belt is applied for safety. The nurse then stands directly in front, grasping the belt and crucially bracing the weak (left) knee to prevent it from collapsing. The client is assisted to stand and pivot on their strong (right) leg. Finally, the client uses their strong (right) arm to reach back for the armrest, ensuring a safe, controlled descent into the chair.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the wheelchair on the client's right side and ensure the brakes are locked.
The environment is prepared for a safe transfer toward the client's strong side.
Placing the chair on the unaffected side allows the client to pivot safely on their strong leg without crossing the weak leg.
2
Assist the client to a sitting position on the edge of the bed and apply a transfer belt.
The client is physiologically stabilized and the nurse has a secure method to support them.
Dangling prevents orthostatic hypotension, and the transfer belt ensures the nurse can safely guide the client's center of gravity.
3
Stand facing the client, grasp the transfer belt, and brace the client's left knee.
The nurse provides critical physical support to the hemiparetic extremity.
Bracing the weak left knee with the nurse's knee prevents it from buckling during weight-bearing.
4
Assist the client to stand and instruct them to pivot on the right foot.
The client moves safely from the bed toward the wheelchair.
The strong right leg must bear the majority of the weight to ensure a safe, balanced pivot maneuver.
5
Instruct the client to reach back and grasp the wheelchair armrest with the right hand.
The client is safely and securely seated in the wheelchair.
Reaching with the unaffected arm provides stability, widens the base of support, and guides the client's descent into the seat.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe client transfer and positioning for a client with hemiparesis
Soru 1317Soru →

A healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of aminophylline at a rate of 0.5 mg/kg/hr0.5 \text{ mg/kg/hr} for a client experiencing a severe exacerbation of asthma. The client weighs 75 kg75 \text{ kg}. The pharmacy supplies an IV bag containing aminophylline 500 mg500 \text{ mg} in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride}. At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse set the IV infusion pump? Record your answer rounding to the nearest tenth.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 18.8

Cevap

The correct infusion rate is 18.8 mL/hr18.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
To determine the correct IV pump setting, the nurse must first calculate the total hourly dose based on the client's weight (0.5 mg/kg/hr×75 kg=37.5 mg/hr0.5 \text{ mg/kg/hr} \times 75 \text{ kg} = 37.5 \text{ mg/hr}). Next, the nurse divides this required hourly dose by the concentration of the medication provided by the pharmacy (500 mg/250 mL=2 mg/mL500 \text{ mg} / 250 \text{ mL} = 2 \text{ mg/mL}). The resulting calculation (37.5 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=18.75 mL/hr37.5 \text{ mg/hr} \div 2 \text{ mg/mL} = 18.75 \text{ mL/hr}) is then rounded to the nearest tenth as instructed, resulting in a final programmed pump setting of 18.8 mL/hr18.8 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the required hourly dose.
37.5 mg/hr37.5 \text{ mg/hr}
The prescription is weight-based, so the client's total weight must be multiplied by the per-kg dose parameter.
2
Determine the medication concentration.
2 mg/mL2 \text{ mg/mL}
To find the volume needed per hour, the concentration of the available medication must be established.
3
Calculate the IV infusion rate.
18.75 mL/hr18.75 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the total volume to infuse per hour.
4
Round to the nearest tenth.
18.8 mL/hr18.8 \text{ mL/hr}
The question specifies rounding the final answer to the nearest tenth for programming the infusion pump.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating weight-based continuous IV infusion rates
Soru 1318Soru →

A nurse preceptor is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare and administer parenteral medications. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse indicate a safety hazard and require the preceptor to intervene? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Connecting a secondary infusion of intravenous ceftriaxone to a primary IV line infusing Lactated Ringer's solution.; Programming a continuous dobutamine infusion pump based on the client's weight documented in pounds.; Flushing a central venous catheter with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride using a standard 3 mL3 \text{ mL} syringe.; Stopping a continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusion to administer an intravenous push analgesic through the same port.

Cevap

The actions requiring intervention are: connecting ceftriaxone with Lactated Ringer's, calculating a weight-based drip using pounds, flushing a central line with a 3 mL3 \text{ mL} syringe, and administering an IV push medication through a dedicated TPN line.
The correct selections represent critical breaches of parenteral safety protocols. Intravenous ceftriaxone and Lactated Ringer's solution are incompatible and form a dangerous precipitate. Weight-based infusions must always be calculated using kilograms; using pounds causes massive overdoses. Flushing a central venous catheter with a 3 mL3 \text{ mL} syringe creates excessive pressure that can rupture the line. Finally, total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a strictly dedicated line to prevent infection and avoid complex drug incompatibilities.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the compatibility of ceftriaxone and Lactated Ringer's.
Identified as a severe safety hazard.
Calcium-containing solutions like Lactated Ringer's precipitate with ceftriaxone, which can be fatal.
2
Assess the methodology for programming weight-based critical care infusions.
Identified as a medication calculation hazard.
Using pounds instead of kilograms will more than double the intended dose, leading to severe toxicity.
3
Analyze the equipment chosen for flushing a central venous catheter.
Identified as a mechanical safety hazard.
A 3 mL3 \text{ mL} syringe generates too much pressure and can rupture the central line; a minimum 10 mL10 \text{ mL} syringe is required.
4
Evaluate the rate of administration for intravenous furosemide.
Identified as a safe practice.
The standard safe push rate for furosemide is 20 mg/minute20 \text{ mg/minute} to avoid ototoxicity, making 40 mg40 \text{ mg} over 2 minutes2 \text{ minutes} correct.
5
Assess the protocol for total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administration.
Identified as an incompatibility and infection hazard.
TPN lines must remain dedicated. Pushing other medications through a TPN line risks precipitation and introduces pathogens.
6
Evaluate the safety precautions for administering a vesicant medication like promethazine.
Identified as a safe practice.
Aspirating for blood return confirms central line patency, which is critical before administering vesicants to prevent severe tissue necrosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe parenteral medication administration requires strict adherence to IV compatibility guidelines, precise weight-based calculation using kilograms, appropriate equipment selection to prevent catheter damage, and the maintenance of dedicated lines for high-risk infusions like TPN.
Soru 1319Soru →

While conducting hourly rounds, a nurse observes that the intravenous administration set has completely disconnected from a client's central venous catheter hub. The client abruptly exhibits severe dyspnea, a dry cough, and grasps their chest in distress. In which sequence must the nurse execute the following interventions? (Arrange the actions in order of clinical priority, from first to last.)

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The nurse must first clamp the catheter, then place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position, administer high-flow oxygen, activate the rapid response team, and finally obtain vital signs.
An air embolism is a life-threatening complication of central venous access devices that occurs when the system is open to atmospheric pressure. The sequence of actions follows the principle of immediate risk reduction and airway/breathing stabilization. The absolute first priority is to stop the source of the air by clamping the catheter. Next, positioning the client on their left side with the head down (Trendelenburg) uses gravity to trap the air in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing a fatal pulmonary artery occlusion. After securing the source and mitigating migration, 100% oxygen is applied to treat hypoxia and shrink the nitrogen-rich air bubble. Finally, the nurse calls for advanced help and assesses vital signs to guide the team's ongoing resuscitation efforts.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the central venous catheter.
Stops the entrainment of air.
The absolute first priority is removing the immediate hazard by closing the pathway that allows air to enter the bloodstream.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air embolus in the right ventricle.
This maneuver prevents the air from advancing into the pulmonary artery, averting a right ventricular outflow tract obstruction.
3
Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather face mask.
Relieves hypoxia and reduces the size of the embolus.
Providing 100% oxygen promotes the diffusion of nitrogen out of the air bubble, effectively shrinking the embolus while treating ischemia.
4
Activate the rapid response team.
Mobilizes advanced medical support.
Additional personnel and advanced interventions are necessary, but calling for help must not delay the initial life-saving physical maneuvers.
5
Measure the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation.
Establishes a baseline for the responding team.
Assessment data is required to evaluate the severity of the physiological decompensation, but it is the lowest priority compared to active resuscitation efforts.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of immediate risk mitigation for central venous access device (CVAD) complications, specifically suspected air embolism.
Soru 1320Soru →

A client presents to the emergency department with a severe asthma exacerbation. The initial assessment reveals tachypnea with a respiratory rate of 3434 breaths/min and diffuse wheezing. An initial arterial blood gas (ABG) shows a pH of 7.527.52, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 2828 mm Hg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2424 mEq/L. Two hours later, the client appears drowsy, wheezing is diminished, and the respiratory rate has decreased to 1414 breaths/min. A repeat ABG reveals a pH of 7.317.31, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 5656 mm Hg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2424 mEq/L. Based on these findings, what is the most accurate clinical conclusion?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The client is experiencing respiratory muscle fatigue, indicating impending respiratory failure.

Cevap

The client is experiencing respiratory muscle fatigue, indicating impending respiratory failure.
The correct answer accurately identifies that the client is tiring out. Initially, the client was hyperventilating (respiratory alkalosis) to maintain oxygenation and overcome airway resistance. The later findings of a low pH (acidosis) and high PaCO2PaCO_2 (hypercapnia), combined with a depressed level of consciousness and a decreased respiratory rate, indicate the respiratory muscles are failing. This causes carbon dioxide to rapidly accumulate, signaling impending respiratory arrest that requires immediate medical intervention, such as intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the initial arterial blood gas (ABG) and clinical presentation.
The initial pH is 7.527.52 (alkalotic), PaCO2PaCO_2 is 2828 mm Hg (low), and HCO3−HCO_3^- is 2424 mEq/L (normal).
The client is initially hyperventilating in response to the asthma attack, causing 'blowing off' of carbon dioxide and resulting in respiratory alkalosis.
2
Evaluate the clinical changes and the repeat ABG after two hours.
The client is now drowsy with a decreased respiratory rate. The repeat ABG shows a pH of 7.317.31 (acidotic), PaCO2PaCO_2 of 5656 mm Hg (high), and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2424 mEq/L (normal).
The client is now retaining carbon dioxide, which has led to uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
3
Correlate the laboratory findings with the clinical picture to draw a conclusion.
The transition from hyperventilation to hypoventilation, along with drowsiness and diminished wheezing, indicates respiratory muscle fatigue.
The client is exhausted and no longer able to maintain the effort required to breathe against airway resistance, leading to CO2 accumulation and impending respiratory failure.

Anahtar Kavram

In an acute asthma exacerbation, a transition from respiratory alkalosis (hyperventilation) to respiratory acidosis (carbon dioxide retention), accompanied by a decreasing respiratory rate, diminished wheezing, and drowsiness, is an ominous clinical sign indicating severe respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure.
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 66 | Examkin