Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1341Soru →

A nurse is preparing to perform open suctioning for an adult client with a tracheostomy tube. To minimize the risk of complications such as hypoxia and mucosal trauma, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for tracheostomy suctioning is to first assess the client's baseline respiratory status, hyperoxygenate to prevent hypoxia, advance the catheter without suction to prevent trauma, apply intermittent suction only while withdrawing the catheter, and finally document the findings.
Following the standard sequence of assessment, pre-oxygenation, careful insertion, active withdrawal suctioning, and documentation ensures that the client's airway is cleared while systematically mitigating the risks of severe hypoxemia and mucosal tissue damage.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's baseline breath sounds and oxygen saturation.
Establishes a baseline for comparison.
Risk reduction begins with obtaining accurate baseline data to determine the necessity of the procedure.
2
Hyperoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen.
Increases alveolar oxygen reserves.
Prevents procedure-induced hypoxia, a critical risk during airway clearance.
3
Advance the catheter into the tracheostomy tube without applying suction.
Positions the catheter safely near the carina.
Prevents severe tissue trauma to the mucosal lining.
4
Apply intermittent suction while rotating and withdrawing the catheter.
Clears mucus and respiratory secretions.
Safely removes secretions while minimizing airway damage.
5
Document the characteristics of the secretions and the client's response.
Completes the medical record.
Ensures continuity of care and legal documentation of the therapeutic procedure.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Procedures: Safe sequence for tracheostomy suctioning to reduce the risk of hypoxia and mucosal trauma.
Soru 1342Soru →

Following a motor vehicle collision, a young adult client is admitted to the neurosurgical unit with a traumatic brain injury. The latest assessment reveals a blood pressure of 172/68 mm Hg and a heart rate of 52 beats per minute. Previous vital signs were a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg and a heart rate of 88 beats per minute. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to perform?

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees.

Cevap

The most appropriate initial action is to elevate the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees.
The client's vital signs demonstrate a significantly widening pulse pressure and new-onset bradycardia. In a client with a traumatic brain injury, these are classic components of Cushing's triad, which indicates a dangerous physiological adaptation to an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is the priority initial action because it promotes venous return from the brain, helping to reduce ICP.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign changes over time.
The systolic blood pressure increased from 130 to 172 mm Hg (creating a significantly widening pulse pressure), and the heart rate decreased from 88 to 52 beats per minute.
Recognizing these specific trends is crucial for identifying Cushing's triad, a classic physiological response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
2
Determine the immediate clinical priority.
The priority is to implement measures that reduce intracranial pressure and maintain adequate cerebral perfusion.
Unrelieved increased ICP can rapidly lead to fatal brain herniation.
3
Select the most appropriate initial nursing intervention.
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is selected.
This specific position promotes jugular venous outflow by gravity, thereby lowering intracranial pressure effectively without causing harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Cushing's Triad and Management of Increased Intracranial Pressure
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1343Soru →

A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results for a client with a long history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following ABG findings indicates that the client's body has physiologically compensated for the chronic respiratory condition?

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Cevap: An elevated bicarbonate (HCO3-) level

Cevap

An elevated bicarbonate (HCO3-) level
In clients with severe COPD, chronic retention of carbon dioxide leads to respiratory acidosis. Over time, the body physiologically adapts to this state through renal compensation. The kidneys retain and increase the production of bicarbonate (a base) to buffer the excess acid and maintain the blood pH as close to the normal range as possible.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary acid-base imbalance associated with COPD.
COPD causes chronic airflow limitation, leading to the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2), which creates a state of chronic respiratory acidosis.
Understanding the underlying pathophysiology is necessary to anticipate the body's compensatory mechanisms.
2
Determine the body's physiological compensatory mechanism for respiratory acidosis.
The kidneys respond to elevated CO2 levels by retaining and producing more bicarbonate (HCO3-) to buffer the acid and raise the blood pH back toward normal.
Renal compensation is the primary way the body adapts to chronic respiratory acid-base imbalances.

Anahtar Kavram

Renal compensation in chronic respiratory acidosis
Soru 1344Soru →

A client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for an acute exacerbation. The client's initial arterial blood gas (ABG) values on admission were pH 7.247.24, PaCO 2_2 7676 mm Hg, PaO 2_2 5252 mm Hg, and HCO 3−_3^- 3434 mEq/L. After 90 minutes of continuous NIPPV therapy, a repeat ABG reveals pH 7.317.31, PaCO 2_2 6464 mm Hg, PaO 2_2 6262 mm Hg, and HCO 3−_3^- 3434 mEq/L. Upon entering the room to review these results, the nurse observes that the client is now difficult to arouse, moans only in response to a sternal rub, and exhibits absent gag and swallow reflexes. Which action should the nurse take immediately?

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Cevap: Remove the non-invasive ventilation mask and prepare the client for emergent endotracheal intubation.

Cevap

The nurse must immediately prepare for endotracheal intubation because the client has lost the ability to protect their airway, which is an absolute contraindication for continuing non-invasive ventilation.
Although the client's arterial blood gas values are demonstrating objective physiological improvement (increasing pH, decreasing PaCO2, and increasing PaO2), the clinical neurological assessment indicates severe deterioration. A decreased level of consciousness to the point of responding only to pain, combined with the loss of protective airway reflexes (absent gag and swallow), are absolute contraindications for non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV). The risk of emesis and subsequent massive aspiration is critically high. The nurse must recognize that treating the patient's airway patency (the 'A' in ABCs) supersedes the improving ventilation numbers, necessitating immediate endotracheal intubation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the progression of the arterial blood gas values.
The pH has increased, PaCO2 has decreased, and PaO2 has increased, indicating that the NIPPV is effectively improving alveolar ventilation and oxygenation.
To evaluate the physiological effectiveness of the current respiratory intervention.
2
Evaluate the current neurological and airway assessment findings.
The client is obtunded (responding only to pain) and lacks gag and swallow reflexes, demonstrating a profound inability to clear secretions or protect the airway from aspiration.
To determine if the client meets the strict safety criteria required for non-invasive positive pressure ventilation.
3
Synthesize the objective data with the clinical presentation to determine priority.
The life-threatening clinical deterioration (loss of airway protection) supersedes the improving laboratory data. NIPPV is now inherently dangerous, and an advanced airway is required.
Airway patency is the highest physiological priority. A patient must be alert enough to protect their airway to safely use NIPPV.

Anahtar Kavram

Clinical indications and contraindications for invasive versus non-invasive airway management during acute respiratory failure.
Soru 1345Soru →

While a nurse is changing the needleless connector caps on a 65-year-old client's right subclavian central venous catheter, the client suddenly gasps for air, reports sharp chest pain, and develops peripheral cyanosis. Recognizing the signs of a potential air embolism, in what order should the nurse perform the following emergency interventions? Arrange the steps from first priority to last priority.

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Cevap

The correct sequence of actions for a suspected central line air embolism is to first clamp the catheter, then position the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position, followed by administering 100% oxygen, activating the rapid response team, and finally continuously monitoring vital signs.
In the event of a suspected air embolism from a central venous catheter, priority interventions follow the principles of source control and preventing further physiological harm. The nurse must first clamp the line to stop the influx of air. Immediately after, the client is placed in a left lateral Trendelenburg position. This is a critical, specific intervention that uses gravity and buoyancy to keep the air bubble in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the pulmonary arterial bed and causing a fatal outflow obstruction. Once the air is trapped, administering 100% oxygen is the next priority to treat hypoxia and create a nitrogen gradient that helps dissolve the bubble. Only after these immediate, life-saving physical maneuvers are complete should the nurse activate the rapid response team and prepare for further deterioration, as taking time to call for help first could allow the embolus to migrate fatally.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the central venous catheter.
Halts further introduction of air into the venous circulation.
When an air embolism is suspected, the immediate priority is to eliminate the source to prevent the embolus from becoming larger and more lethal.
2
Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air in the right side of the heart.
This specific gravitational positioning prevents the air bubble from traveling through the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery, averting a catastrophic right ventricular outflow tract obstruction.
3
Administer high-flow 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Alleviates hypoxia and reduces the size of the air embolus.
High-concentration oxygen not only treats the resulting hypoxemia but also establishes a nitrogen diffusion gradient that accelerates the resorption of the air bubble, which is primarily composed of nitrogen.
4
Activate the rapid response team and notify the healthcare provider.
Summons advanced medical assistance.
After immediate life-saving physical interventions are complete, the nurse must quickly mobilize the medical team for further stabilization, such as potential needle aspiration of the air or transfer to the ICU.
5
Obtain continuous vital signs and prepare equipment for possible intubation.
Ensures readiness for physiological deterioration.
The client remains critically unstable and may rapidly progress to cardiopulmonary arrest. Continuous monitoring and preparation for advanced airway management are essential while awaiting the rapid response team.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of a Central Line-Associated Air Embolism requires immediate cessation of air entry, specialized positioning to prevent pulmonary obstruction, and oxygen therapy to shrink the embolus.
Soru 1346Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client with symptomatic anemia. Arrange the following actions in the correct chronological sequence to ensure safe administration.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first verify the prescription and consent, then assess IV patency and baseline vital signs, followed by obtaining the blood from the blood bank. Afterward, perform the two-nurse bedside verification, and finally, initiate the transfusion slowly.
Safe administration of blood products requires a strict, logical sequence to prevent life-threatening errors and product waste. The nurse must first ensure authorization (prescription and consent). Next, the nurse must ensure the client is physically ready (patent IV and stable baseline vitals) before obtaining the blood, because PRBCs must be hung within 30 minutes of leaving the blood bank. After retrieving the blood, the nurse must perform the mandatory two-nurse verification at the bedside to ensure exact compatibility. Finally, the transfusion is started slowly while the nurse remains with the client for the first 15 minutes to monitor for acute severe reactions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Verify the healthcare provider's prescription and confirm informed consent.
Legal and medical authorization is confirmed.
Blood administration requires explicit consent due to the risk of severe reactions and transmission of infectious diseases.
2
Assess the patency of the IV catheter and obtain baseline vital signs.
The client's physical readiness to receive the transfusion is established.
If IV access fails or the client has an elevated temperature, the transfusion cannot proceed. Blood must be returned to the blood bank if not hung within 30 minutes, so readiness must be verified before retrieval.
3
Obtain the unit of PRBCs from the blood bank.
The blood product is brought to the clinical unit.
The blood must be retrieved only when the client is fully prepared to receive the transfusion immediately.
4
Perform a joint verification with another registered nurse at the bedside.
The correct blood product is verified for the correct client.
Strict two-nurse verification is the primary safeguard against fatal ABO incompatibility errors.
5
Initiate the transfusion slowly and remain with the client for 15 minutes.
The transfusion begins safely, and the client is monitored during the highest-risk period.
Most life-threatening transfusion reactions occur within the first 15 minutes or first 50 mL of the infusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of Blood Products
Soru 1347Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes after the transfusion begins, the client suddenly reports severe lower back pain, chills, and dyspnea. Place the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, then maintain intravenous access with normal saline using new tubing, assess the client's vital signs, notify the healthcare provider, and finally send the blood products back to the blood bank.
In an acute hemolytic or allergic transfusion reaction, the priority follows a strict physiological adaptation protocol. The absolute highest priority is stopping the source of harm (the blood). The second priority is maintaining vascular access with new tubing to avoid flushing more blood into the client. Once the line is secure, the nurse assesses the client to determine the extent of the physiological compromise. This assessment data is then communicated to the healthcare provider to obtain emergency prescriptions. Returning the blood bag for diagnostic analysis is an administrative task that occurs last.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the transfusion immediately.
The infusion of the potentially incompatible blood product is halted.
This is the most critical step to prevent further antigen exposure and minimize the severity of the reaction.
2
Disconnect tubing and start 0.9% sodium chloride with new tubing.
Intravenous access is maintained with a neutral fluid.
It ensures a route for emergency medications is open while preventing the remaining blood in the old tubing from being pushed into the client.
3
Assess vital signs and respiratory status.
Baseline data on the severity of the reaction is obtained.
The nurse needs current hemodynamic data (blood pressure, heart rate, oxygenation) to provide a complete SBAR report to the provider.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and blood bank.
Medical intervention is initiated and the facility's reaction protocol is activated.
The provider must prescribe subsequent treatments (e.g., antihistamines, corticosteroids, or vasopressors).
5
Return the blood bag and tubing to the blood bank.
The offending blood product is secured for laboratory investigation.
The blood bank must analyze the remaining blood and tubing to identify the exact cause of the adverse reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Blood Transfusion Reactions
Soru 1348Soru →

A registered nurse is preparing to apply knee-length anti-embolism stockings to a client who is on strict bed rest. Place the following nursing actions in the correct order from first to last. (All steps are required.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence begins with measuring the client's legs to ensure proper sizing, followed immediately by elevating the legs to promote venous drainage. The nurse then prepares the stocking by turning it inside out, applies it over the foot and heel, and finally smooths it up the calf to prevent wrinkles.
The correct sequence ensures that stockings provide optimal therapeutic benefit. Proper sizing and pre-elevation of the legs prevent the trapping of venous blood. The specific inside-out application technique minimizes friction and prevents skin shearing during application, while smoothing the fabric prevents dangerous tourniquet effects.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Measure the client's calf circumference and leg length to determine the appropriate stocking size.
Secures the correct fit for the client's specific anatomy.
Accurate sizing is required prior to application to ensure therapeutic compression without restricting arterial flow.
2
Place the client in a supine position and elevate the legs for 15 to 30 minutes.
Empties engorged superficial veins.
Applying compression stockings while blood is pooled in the lower extremities traps venous blood and can promote, rather than prevent, thrombus formation.
3
Insert a hand into the stocking, grasp the heel pocket, and turn the stocking inside out.
Inverts the stocking down to the heel section.
This specific technique allows the stocking to be rolled smoothly onto the leg rather than bunched up, minimizing skin shearing.
4
Slide the foot portion of the stocking smoothly over the client's toes and heel.
Anchors the stocking correctly on the distal extremity.
Aligning the heel patch exactly over the client's heel prevents localized friction and pressure ulcers.
5
Pull the remaining fabric up over the calf and smooth out any wrinkles.
Completes the application process with uniform compression.
Wrinkles, folds, or rolled top edges act as a tourniquet, cutting off venous return and increasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Immobility Interventions: Anti-embolism Stockings Application
Soru 1349Soru →

During the first post-surgical shift following an exploratory laparotomy, a client's clinical parameters demonstrate a subtle but continuous shift. The client's systolic blood pressure has drifted from 138138 mm Hg to 118118 mm Hg, while the diastolic pressure has climbed from 7070 mm Hg to 8888 mm Hg. Concurrently, the resting heart rate has accelerated from 7878 to 115115 beats per minute, and the respiratory rate is currently 2828 breaths per minute. The most recent hourly urine measurement yielded 1515 mL. Which underlying pathophysiological mechanism best accounts for this symptom complex?

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Cevap: Sympathetic nervous system activation aiming to maintain cardiac output in the presence of an absolute fluid deficit.

Cevap

The client's presentation reflects sympathetic nervous system activation aiming to maintain cardiac output in the presence of an absolute fluid deficit.
The correct answer accurately identifies the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock. The client is experiencing an absolute fluid deficit (likely hemorrhage or third-spacing post-surgery). To compensate and preserve perfusion to vital organs, the sympathetic nervous system triggers peripheral vasoconstriction, which drives the diastolic pressure up. Simultaneously, decreased venous return and stroke volume cause the systolic pressure to fall, resulting in a distinctly narrowed pulse pressure. Tachycardia and oliguria further confirm this compensatory hypovolemic state.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the blood pressure trend.
The initial pulse pressure was 6868 mm Hg (138−70138 - 70). It has now narrowed significantly to 3030 mm Hg (118−88118 - 88).
Calculating pulse pressure is critical for differentiating the types of physiological shock.
2
Evaluate the remaining vital signs and urine output.
The client has developed tachycardia (115115 bpm), tachypnea (2828 breaths/min), and oliguria (1515 mL/hr).
These parameters indicate how well the body is perfusing vital organs and compensating for physiological stress.
3
Synthesize the findings to identify the pathophysiological state.
A narrowing pulse pressure combined with tachycardia and low urine output is the hallmark presentation of early, compensated hypovolemic (or hemorrhagic) shock.
The sympathetic nervous system causes vasoconstriction (raising diastolic BP) to compensate for the fluid loss (lowering systolic BP), while increasing the heart rate to maintain overall cardiac output.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock through narrowing pulse pressure and compensatory autonomic responses.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1350Soru →

A client with osteoarthritis is prescribed oral ibuprofen 600 mg600 \text{ mg} every 8 hours as needed for joint pain. The medication is available on the unit as an oral suspension with a concentration of 100 mg/5 mL100 \text{ mg} / 5 \text{ mL}. How many milliliters (mL\text{mL}) should the nurse administer for a single dose?

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Cevap: 30 mL30 \text{ mL}

Cevap

The nurse should administer 30 mL30 \text{ mL} for a single dose.
To calculate the correct liquid dosage, the formula (Desired / Have) × Volume is used. The desired dose is 600 mg600 \text{ mg} and the available dose is 100 mg100 \text{ mg} in a volume of 5 mL5 \text{ mL}. Calculating 600100×5\frac{600}{100} \times 5 yields 30 mL30 \text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the desired (prescribed) dose.
Desired dose = 600 mg600 \text{ mg}
This is the target amount of medication the provider ordered for the client.
2
Identify the dose you have available and its corresponding volume.
Have = 100 mg100 \text{ mg}, Volume = 5 mL5 \text{ mL}
This represents the concentration of the medication supplied by the pharmacy.
3
Apply the standard dosage formula: (Desired / Have) × Volume.
600 mg100 mg×5 mL=6×5 mL=30 mL\frac{600 \text{ mg}}{100 \text{ mg}} \times 5 \text{ mL} = 6 \times 5 \text{ mL} = 30 \text{ mL}
This determines the exact physical volume of liquid needed to deliver the prescribed milligrams of medication.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Medication Dosage Calculation
Soru 1351Soru →

A nurse is assessing a postoperative client who recently underwent major abdominal surgery. Which clinical findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing the early, compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Heart rate of 118 beats per minute; Restlessness and apprehension; Cool, pale skin on the extremities

Cevap

The correct findings are a heart rate of 118 beats per minute, restlessness and apprehension, and cool, pale skin on the extremities.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body attempts to maintain adequate cardiac output and vital organ perfusion despite volume loss. This is achieved through sympathetic nervous system stimulation, which increases the heart rate (tachycardia) and causes peripheral vasoconstriction, leading to cool, pale extremities. Additionally, mild hypoxia to the brain causes early neurological changes such as restlessness, anxiety, or apprehension.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's condition and the stage of shock asked in the question.
The question asks specifically for signs of the 'early, compensatory stage' of hypovolemic shock.
Different stages of shock present with vastly different clinical symptoms. Focusing on early mechanisms is key.
2
Identify physiological responses during the compensatory stage.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. This results in an increased heart rate, peripheral vasoconstriction, and mild hypoxia.
These compensatory mechanisms attempt to overcome the loss of circulating volume.
3
Evaluate each option against known early compensatory mechanisms.
Tachycardia, restlessness (from mild hypoxia), and cool/pale skin (from vasoconstriction) are early signs. Hypotension and bounding pulses are incorrect.
Eliminating late signs and pathophysiologically incorrect findings isolates the correct early indicators.

Anahtar Kavram

Compensatory Mechanisms in Early Shock
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1352Soru →

An emergency department nurse initiates a prescribed sodium nitroprusside continuous intravenous infusion for a patient presenting with acute hypertensive encephalopathy and underlying renal insufficiency. To ensure patient safety during this high-alert parenteral therapy, which interventions must the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Shield the medication reservoir with an opaque cover immediately upon preparation to prevent rapid photodegradation.; Discontinue the infusion immediately if the solution in the intravenous tubing turns dark blue, green, or red.; Assess the patient for tinnitus, hyperreflexia, and confusion, as these indicate thiocyanate accumulation.

Cevap

The essential nursing interventions include shielding the medication from light, discontinuing the solution if it changes to a dark blue, green, or red color, and closely monitoring for neurological signs of thiocyanate toxicity due to the patient's renal insufficiency.
Sodium nitroprusside requires specialized handling because of its rapid degradation when exposed to light, which can be identified by the solution turning dark blue, green, or red (normal is faint brown). Furthermore, it is metabolized into thiocyanate, which is renally excreted. Because this patient has renal insufficiency, the nurse must rigorously monitor for thiocyanate toxicity, characterized by central nervous system disturbances such as tinnitus, confusion, and hyperreflexia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pharmacological properties of sodium nitroprusside.
Identify that it is a highly potent, light-sensitive vasodilator metabolized into cyanide and thiocyanate.
Understanding the drug's metabolism and physical properties dictates safe handling, such as using opaque covers and assessing fluid color.
2
Evaluate the patient's comorbid conditions in the context of the therapy.
Recognize that underlying renal insufficiency severely impairs the excretion of thiocyanate.
Impaired renal function exponentially increases the risk of life-threatening thiocyanate toxicity, requiring vigilant neurological assessment for hyperreflexia and confusion.
3
Assess the incorrect options for safety violations related to parenteral therapies and physiological adaptation.
Identify that placing a hypotensive patient in high-Fowler's, sharing an IV line with pantoprazole, and expecting respiratory alkalosis are critical clinical errors.
Safe parenteral administration requires dedicated lines for vasoactive drips, correct interpretation of metabolic acidosis as a toxicity sign, and appropriate flat or Trendelenburg positioning for shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration, compatibility rules, and toxicity monitoring for continuous sodium nitroprusside infusions.
Soru 1353Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following an open abdominal surgery. Which interventions should the nurse implement to reduce the client's risk of developing a venous thromboembolism (VTE)? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the lower extremities.; Encourage the client to perform active ankle and foot exercises hourly while awake.; Assist the client with early ambulation as prescribed by the healthcare provider.

Cevap

The correct interventions are applying sequential compression devices, encouraging active leg exercises, and assisting with early ambulation.
Applying sequential compression devices, encouraging active leg exercises, and assisting with early ambulation are standard, evidence-based nursing interventions. These actions mechanically promote venous return, activate the calf muscle pump, and prevent blood stasis, thereby significantly reducing the risk of venous thromboembolism in immobile postoperative clients.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's status and the clinical goal.
The client is postoperative and at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to immobility and surgical trauma. The goal is to identify actions that prevent blood stasis and promote venous return.
Understanding the physiological risks of the postoperative period guides appropriate prophylactic nursing care.
2
Evaluate each intervention for its effect on venous circulation.
SCDs, leg exercises, and ambulation all actively promote blood flow back to the heart. Pillows placed under the knees and leg massages are contraindicated.
Evidence-based practice dictates that nursing actions must support, not hinder, physiological processes.

Anahtar Kavram

Venous Thromboembolism (VTE) Prophylaxis
Soru 1354Soru →

An emergency department nurse is managing a client in a hypertensive crisis. The client weighs 85 kg85\text{ kg} and is currently receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of sodium nitroprusside at 25 mL/hr25\text{ mL/hr}. The IV bag contains 50 mg50\text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside mixed in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5%5\% Dextrose in Water (D5WD_5W). According to the facility protocol, the nurse must titrate the infusion upward by 0.5 mcg/kg/min0.5\text{ mcg/kg/min} if the mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains above 80 mm Hg80\text{ mm Hg}. The client's current MAP is 94 mm Hg94\text{ mm Hg}. After increasing the dosage by one increment, what will be the new infusion pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? Record your answer to the nearest tenth.

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Cevap: 37.8

Cevap

37.8
To safely titrate the sodium nitroprusside, the nurse must first establish the concentration of the solution (50,000 mcg/250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000\text{ mcg} / 250\text{ mL} = 200\text{ mcg/mL}). Next, the nurse calculates the required dose increase based on the client's weight (0.5 mcg/kg/min×85 kg=42.5 mcg/min0.5\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 85\text{ kg} = 42.5\text{ mcg/min}). Because infusion pumps run in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, this dose must be multiplied by 6060 minutes to find the hourly dose increase (2,550 mcg/hr2,550\text{ mcg/hr}). Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the rate increase in volume (2,550 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=12.75 mL/hr2,550\text{ mcg/hr} \div 200\text{ mcg/mL} = 12.75\text{ mL/hr}). Finally, adding this increase to the current rate gives the new total rate (25 mL/hr+12.75 mL/hr=37.75 mL/hr25\text{ mL/hr} + 12.75\text{ mL/hr} = 37.75\text{ mL/hr}), which rounds to 37.8 mL/hr37.8\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the total medication mass from milligrams to micrograms.
50 mg×1,000 mcg/mg=50,000 mcg50\text{ mg} \times 1,000\text{ mcg/mg} = 50,000\text{ mcg}
The prescribed titration increment is provided in micrograms, so the concentration must be in the same unit.
2
Calculate the concentration of the sodium nitroprusside IV solution.
50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000\text{ mcg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 200\text{ mcg/mL}
Determining the amount of medication per milliliter of fluid is necessary to convert the required dose into a pump rate.
3
Calculate the dose increase per minute based on the client's weight.
0.5 mcg/kg/min×85 kg=42.5 mcg/min0.5\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 85\text{ kg} = 42.5\text{ mcg/min}
Weight-based dosing requires multiplying the prescribed parameter by the client's total body weight in kg.
4
Convert the per-minute dose increase to a per-hour dose.
42.5 mcg/min×60 min/hr=2,550 mcg/hr42.5\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 2,550\text{ mcg/hr}
IV infusion pumps are programmed in milliliters per hour, so the dose must reflect an hourly rate.
5
Calculate the volume increase required to deliver the hourly dose.
2,550 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=12.75 mL/hr2,550\text{ mcg/hr} \div 200\text{ mcg/mL} = 12.75\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the desired hourly dose by the fluid concentration yields the required increase in the pump rate.
6
Add the rate increase to the client's current continuous infusion rate.
25 mL/hr+12.75 mL/hr=37.75 mL/hr25\text{ mL/hr} + 12.75\text{ mL/hr} = 37.75\text{ mL/hr}
The question asks for the new total infusion rate, which is the sum of the previous rate and the titration increase.
7
Round the final answer to the nearest tenth as directed.
37.8 mL/hr37.8\text{ mL/hr}
Clinical calculations must adhere strictly to the rounding instructions provided in the order or prompt.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based Intravenous Medication Titration
Soru 1355Soru →

A client is prescribed an intravenous (IV) dose of phenytoin for seizure management. The client has a single peripheral IV access site with a continuous primary infusion of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). Which action should the nurse take to safely administer the phenytoin?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the primary D5W infusion and flush the IV line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after administering the medication.

Cevap

The nurse must stop the primary D5W infusion and flush the IV line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride both before and after administering the phenytoin.
Phenytoin is physically incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions, such as D5W, and will precipitate (form solid crystals) if they mix. Because the client has only one IV access site, the safest and only correct method is to stop the D5W infusion and thoroughly flush the IV tubing with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride (normal saline) before administering the phenytoin. After the medication is fully administered, the line must be flushed again with normal saline before the D5W infusion can be safely resumed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the compatibility of the prescribed IV medication (phenytoin) with the current continuous IV fluid (D5W).
Identify that phenytoin is incompatible with all dextrose-containing solutions.
Mixing phenytoin with D5W causes rapid precipitation and crystallization in the IV tubing.
2
Determine the necessary intervention to safely administer the medication through the single existing IV line.
Plan to temporarily stop the primary continuous infusion and clear the line of any incompatible fluid.
The line must be completely free of dextrose before the phenytoin is introduced.
3
Select the correct flushing solution and proper sequence.
Flush the line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin at the correct safe rate, and flush again with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.
0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride is the only standard IV fluid compatible with phenytoin.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous medication compatibility and safe administration practices for phenytoin.
Soru 1356Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation. The client's high-pressure ventilator alarm begins sounding continuously, and the nurse notes that the client has become highly agitated. The latest arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.217.21, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 72 mm Hg72\text{ mm Hg}, PaO2\text{PaO}_2 of 52 mm Hg52\text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- of 25 mEq/L25\text{ mEq/L}. Over the last 10 minutes, the client's blood pressure has dropped from 122/76 mm Hg122/76\text{ mm Hg} to 84/42 mm Hg84/42\text{ mm Hg}, and the heart rate has increased from 98 bpm98\text{ bpm} to 136 bpm136\text{ bpm}. Auscultation reveals absent breath sounds over the right lung field. Which action is the highest priority for the nurse to take to reduce the risk of cardiovascular collapse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Prepare the client for an emergent needle thoracostomy.

Cevap

The correct action is to prepare the client for an emergent needle thoracostomy.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a tension pneumothorax, a known complication of positive-pressure ventilation (barotrauma). The high-pressure ventilator alarm, sudden hypotension, tachycardia, severe hypoxemia, and absent unilateral breath sounds indicate that air is trapped in the pleural space, causing a mediastinal shift and obstructive shock. The immediate life-saving intervention to reduce the risk of cardiovascular collapse is a needle thoracostomy to release the trapped air.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and assessment findings.
The client has a sudden onset of severe hypotension, tachycardia, absent breath sounds on the right side, and a continuously sounding high-pressure ventilator alarm.
Identifying acute changes in vital signs and physical assessment helps determine the underlying physiological complication.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG demonstrates severe, uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, significantly elevated PaCO2), indicating a sudden, catastrophic failure of ventilation.
Understanding the gas exchange failure confirms a severe structural or mechanical impairment in the pulmonary system.
3
Diagnose the specific complication based on the synthesis of all data.
The combination of positive-pressure mechanical ventilation, absent unilateral breath sounds, high airway pressures, and obstructive shock strongly indicates a right-sided tension pneumothorax.
Recognizing a tension pneumothorax (barotrauma) is critical because it is a life-threatening emergency requiring a specific, immediate intervention.
4
Determine the highest priority risk-reduction intervention.
The immediate life-saving action is to release the trapped intrapleural air via an emergent needle thoracostomy, followed by chest tube insertion.
Decompressing the pleural space removes the mechanical pressure on the mediastinum, restoring venous return to the heart and resolving the obstructive shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and emergency management of a tension pneumothorax as a complication of positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1357Soru →

A nurse is formulating a basic care and comfort plan for an 82-year-old client who experienced a right hemispheric ischemic stroke 48 hours ago. The client exhibits left-sided hemiparesis, impulsive behavior, moderate dysphagia, and new-onset urinary incontinence. Which intervention is the most appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position during meals and maintain this position for at least 30 minutes after oral intake.

Cevap

The most appropriate intervention is to elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position during meals and maintain this position for at least 30 minutes after oral intake.
For a client with moderate dysphagia following a stroke, airway protection is the highest priority. Elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's (90-degree) position during meals and keeping it elevated for 30 to 45 minutes afterward utilizes gravity to prevent aspiration of food or fluids into the lungs.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has a recent stroke, left-sided hemiparesis, impulsive behavior, dysphagia, and new-onset incontinence.
Identifying the client's deficits helps prioritize basic care interventions, particularly those related to airway safety.
2
Evaluate the risk associated with moderate dysphagia.
Dysphagia places the client at a high risk for aspiration pneumonia, which is a life-threatening complication.
Airway protection is the highest priority in this scenario according to standard nursing guidelines.
3
Select the appropriate nursing intervention for dysphagia.
Positioning the client upright at 90 degrees (high-Fowler's) uses gravity to facilitate swallowing and prevent aspiration.
Maintaining the upright position during and after meals allows time for food to safely clear the esophagus.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Dysphagia Management and Positioning
Soru 1358Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client newly admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations. Initial laboratory results reveal a serum blood glucose of 680 mg/dL (37.7 mmol/L), an arterial pH of 7.12, and a serum potassium of 2.7 mEq/L (2.7 mmol/L). In what order should the nurse implement the collaborative interventions? Arrange the actions from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Initiate 0.9% sodium chloride, 2) Administer potassium chloride, 3) Begin regular insulin infusion, 4) Assess blood glucose hourly, 5) Add 5% dextrose to fluids when glucose reaches 250 mg/dL.
In the management of DKA, restoring intravascular volume with isotonic saline is always the first priority to reverse hypovolemic shock. While standard protocols follow fluid resuscitation immediately with a continuous insulin infusion, this client presents with severe hypokalemia (2.7 mEq/L). Insulin actively transports potassium from the extracellular fluid into the cells. Administering insulin prior to correcting this profound hypokalemia would induce a lethal drop in serum potassium, triggering fatal cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, potassium replacement is the critical second step and must strictly precede the insulin infusion. Once potassium is suitably replaced (>3.3 mEq/L), regular insulin is initiated to halt ketogenesis and lower glucose. Because IV insulin rapidly alters glucose levels, hourly monitoring is mandatory. Finally, when the blood glucose approaches 250 mg/dL, 5% dextrose is added to the maintenance fluids to prevent a rapid fluid shift into the brain (cerebral edema) and to avoid iatrogenic hypoglycemia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's laboratory values and clinical presentation.
The client has severe DKA complicated by critical hypokalemia (potassium 2.7 mEq/L).
Identifying critical values alters the standard DKA algorithm, specifically regarding the timing and safety of continuous insulin administration.
2
Identify the most immediate life-threatening physiological deficit.
Profound dehydration and hypovolemia are the most immediate threats to systemic perfusion.
Initial fluid resuscitation with isotonic saline (0.9% NaCl) is required to restore blood pressure and vital organ perfusion before addressing the underlying metabolic derangements.
3
Determine the safety of initiating insulin therapy.
Insulin therapy is currently contraindicated due to the serum potassium level being critically below 3.3 mEq/L.
Insulin facilitates the intracellular shift of both glucose and potassium. Administering insulin to a severely hypokalemic client will rapidly lower intravascular potassium further, risking lethal cardiac arrhythmias. Potassium replacement must occur first.
4
Sequence the remaining metabolic interventions.
Insulin is started after potassium is replaced, followed by strict monitoring and eventually adding dextrose.
Once potassium is safe, insulin corrects the acidosis. Hourly glucose monitoring ensures safe titration. Dextrose is added at 250 mg/dL to prevent cerebral edema from rapid osmolality shifts.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of interventions in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) with concurrent severe hypokalemia.
Soru 1359Soru →

A registered nurse (RN) is planning morning hygiene care for a client who has right-sided hemiparesis and is receiving continuous enteral nutrition. The RN is delegating parts of the care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which instruction provided by the RN is the most appropriate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Please notify me when you are ready to begin so I can pause the enteral feeding pump before the bed is lowered.

Cevap

The most appropriate instruction is to have the UAP notify the RN so the RN can pause the feeding pump before the bed is lowered.
The correct answer protects the client from aspiration while ensuring care is performed safely and within legal scopes of practice. To properly bathe the back and change linens, the client must be rolled side-to-side. Doing this with the head of the bed elevated causes harmful shearing forces on the skin and is physically difficult. Therefore, the bed must be lowered. Because the client is on continuous enteral feeding, lowering the bed without pausing the feeding creates a severe aspiration risk. Since managing the feeding pump is strictly an RN responsibility, the UAP must coordinate with the RN to pause the feeding before repositioning the bed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary risks associated with the client's current treatments during hygiene care.
The client receives continuous enteral feeding (risk of aspiration if flat) and requires turning for a bath (risk of shearing if elevated).
Understanding competing safety needs dictates the correct sequence of care.
2
Determine the necessary positioning for a complete bed bath and linen change.
The bed should be lowered to a flat or nearly flat position to safely roll the client and minimize skin shearing.
Proper ergonomics and skin protection are essential components of basic care and comfort.
3
Apply delegation principles and aspiration precautions to the required positioning.
The RN must intervene to pause the feeding pump before the UAP lowers the bed, as UAPs cannot manage the pump.
Maintaining the client's airway and adhering to scope of practice are non-negotiable safety standards.

Anahtar Kavram

To prevent aspiration during basic hygiene care, continuous enteral feedings must be paused by the RN before lowering the head of the bed to turn the client.
Soru 1360Soru →

Following the removal of 1,5001,500 mL of pleural fluid via a right-sided thoracentesis, a client suddenly develops acute respiratory distress. The continuous monitor displays a heart rate of 128128 beats/minute and a blood pressure of 84/5284/52 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals absent breath sounds on the right side and a leftward tracheal shift. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Gather equipment for an immediate needle thoracostomy and chest tube placement

Cevap

Gather equipment for an immediate needle thoracostomy and chest tube placement.
The client's sudden respiratory distress, absent unilateral breath sounds, hypotension, tachycardia, and tracheal deviation are classic signs of a tension pneumothorax. This is a life-threatening complication of thoracentesis that causes obstructive shock. The condition requires immediate decompression via needle thoracostomy or chest tube placement. The nurse must recognize these signs of decompensation and immediately prepare the necessary equipment for the provider.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the post-procedure clinical presentation.
The client exhibits sudden respiratory distress, absent unilateral breath sounds, hypotension, tachycardia, and a tracheal shift.
Identifying these classic signs is necessary to diagnose a tension pneumothorax, a known severe complication of thoracentesis.
2
Determine the physiological impact of the complication.
Trapped air in the pleural space is rapidly increasing intrathoracic pressure, collapsing the right lung, and compressing the heart and great vessels.
This compression leads to decreased venous return and obstructive shock, explaining the severe hypotension and tachycardia.
3
Prioritize the required nursing intervention based on ABC principles.
Immediate mechanical decompression of the pleural space is required to restore cardiac output and ventilation.
Gathering equipment for needle decompression and chest tube insertion prepares for the only definitive life-saving treatment.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and emergency management of a tension pneumothorax following thoracentesis.
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