Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1601Soru →

A nurse is evaluating the arterial blood gas (ABG) results of a client who suddenly developed dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain 48 hours after a total hip arthroplasty. The ABG reveals a pH of 7.52, PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg, PaO2 of 65 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 24 mEq/L. Which of the following pathophysiological processes best explains this acid-base imbalance?

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Cevap: Alveolar hyperventilation in response to hypoxemia leading to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide

Cevap

Alveolar hyperventilation in response to hypoxemia leading to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide
The client's ABG results indicate uncompensated respiratory alkalosis: an elevated pH (alkalemia), a decreased PaCO2 (respiratory origin), and a normal HCO3 (no metabolic compensation yet). The sudden onset of dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain in a post-operative client strongly suggests an acute pulmonary embolism. The resulting hypoxemia and pain trigger tachypnea (hyperventilation), which causes the lungs to exhale excessive amounts of carbon dioxide, leading directly to a decreased PaCO2 and an elevated pH.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pH value.
The pH is 7.52, which is greater than the normal upper limit of 7.45. This indicates alkalosis.
Determining the primary acid-base state (acidosis vs. alkalosis) is the first step in ABG interpretation.
2
Analyze the PaCO2 and HCO3 values to determine the etiology.
The PaCO2 is 28 mm Hg (decreased from normal 35-45 mm Hg), and the HCO3 is 24 mEq/L (normal range 22-26 mEq/L).
Matching the abnormal parameter to the pH determines if the imbalance is respiratory or metabolic. A low PaCO2 causes alkalosis, which matches the pH.
3
Correlate the findings with the clinical scenario.
The client has sudden dyspnea and chest pain post-operatively, strongly suggesting a pulmonary embolism (PE). The resulting hypoxemia (PaO2 65 mm Hg) and pain cause tachypnea.
Tachypnea (hyperventilation) causes the excessive exhalation or 'blowing off' of carbon dioxide, directly resulting in respiratory alkalosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Respiratory alkalosis occurs when hyperventilation leads to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide, commonly seen as an early sign of pulmonary embolism or acute hypoxemia.
Soru 1602Soru →

A client admitted with cardiogenic shock weighs 198 lbs198\text{ lbs}. The provider initially orders a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine at 4 mcg/kg/min4\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The pharmacy dispenses a premixed IV bag containing 800 mg800\text{ mg} of dopamine in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5% Dextrose5\%\text{ Dextrose} in water (D5WD_5W). Two hours later, the client's mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains at 55 mmHg55\text{ mmHg}, and the provider increases the dopamine infusion order to 7 mcg/kg/min7\text{ mcg/kg/min}. At what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse set the infusion pump to deliver the newly ordered dose? (Record your answer rounding to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in your answer.)

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Cevap: 11.8

Cevap

11.8
To calculate the new IV pump rate, first convert the client's weight to kilograms (198 lbs÷2.2=90 kg198\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 90\text{ kg}). Next, identify the correct active dose to administer, which is the newly ordered 7 mcg/kg/min7\text{ mcg/kg/min}. Calculate the hourly dose required: 7 mcg/kg/min×90 kg=630 mcg/min7\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 90\text{ kg} = 630\text{ mcg/min}, then multiply by 60 minutes60\text{ minutes} to determine the hourly requirement of 37,800 mcg/hr37,800\text{ mcg/hr}. Convert this value to milligrams (37.8 mg/hr37.8\text{ mg/hr}) so it matches the supplied medication's unit of measurement. Determine the IV bag concentration by dividing the total drug amount by the total volume: 800 mg÷250 mL=3.2 mg/mL800\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 3.2\text{ mg/mL}. Finally, divide the required hourly dose by the concentration: 37.8 mg/hr÷3.2 mg/mL=11.8125 mL/hr37.8\text{ mg/hr} \div 3.2\text{ mg/mL} = 11.8125\text{ mL/hr}. According to the rounding instructions, this rounds to 11.8 mL/hr11.8\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
198÷2.2=90 kg198 \div 2.2 = 90\text{ kg}
Weight-based medication dosing requires the weight to be in kilograms.
2
Determine the active prescribed dose.
7 mcg/kg/min7\text{ mcg/kg/min}
The provider increased the dose from the initial 4 mcg/kg/min4\text{ mcg/kg/min} due to the client's hypotensive state.
3
Calculate the required dose per minute.
7 mcg/kg/min×90 kg=630 mcg/min7\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 90\text{ kg} = 630\text{ mcg/min}
This establishes the total micrograms of dopamine the client needs every minute.
4
Convert the minute dose to an hourly dose.
630 mcg/min×60 min/hr=37,800 mcg/hr630\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 37,800\text{ mcg/hr}
Intravenous infusion pumps are programmed in milliliters per hour, so the time unit must be converted.
5
Convert micrograms to milligrams.
37,800 mcg÷1,000 mcg/mg=37.8 mg/hr37,800\text{ mcg} \div 1,000\text{ mcg/mg} = 37.8\text{ mg/hr}
The medication supplied by the pharmacy is measured in milligrams, so the units must match.
6
Calculate the concentration of the supplied IV bag.
800 mg÷250 mL=3.2 mg/mL800\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 3.2\text{ mg/mL}
This determines exactly how many milligrams of dopamine are in each milliliter of fluid.
7
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr.
37.8 mg/hr÷3.2 mg/mL=11.8125 mL/hr37.8\text{ mg/hr} \div 3.2\text{ mg/mL} = 11.8125\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the fluid concentration provides the correct pump rate.
8
Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.
11.811.8
The question explicitly specifies rounding to the nearest tenth.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous IV infusion calculation with dose titration.
Soru 1603Soru →

A client who underwent a bowel resection three days ago has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to continuous low wall suction. The client's morning arterial blood gas (ABG) results display a pH of 7.54, PaCO2 of 42 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 32 mEq/L. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action to reduce the client's risk for complications?

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Cevap: Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring to assess for cardiac dysrhythmias.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring to assess for cardiac dysrhythmias.
The client's arterial blood gas values indicate metabolic alkalosis (pH > 7.45, HCO3- > 26 mEq/L), an expected complication of prolonged gastric acid loss from NG suctioning. Metabolic alkalosis is closely associated with severe hypokalemia due to the direct loss of potassium in gastric fluids and the intracellular shift of potassium to compensate for the lack of hydrogen ions. Hypokalemia drastically increases the risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, making continuous ECG monitoring the most appropriate priority action to reduce the client's risk for physiological complications.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The pH of 7.54 indicates alkalemia, and the elevated HCO3- of 32 mEq/L confirms metabolic alkalosis.
To identify the physiological imbalance caused by the continuous loss of gastric secretions from the NG tube.
2
Connect the acid-base imbalance to potential electrolyte shifts.
Metabolic alkalosis is commonly accompanied by severe hypokalemia, as potassium is lost in gastric fluids and shifts into cells in exchange for hydrogen ions.
To identify the secondary physiological risk associated with the primary imbalance.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the identified complication risk.
Because hypokalemia causes myocardial irritability and dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias, continuous ECG monitoring is the priority intervention.
To establish patient safety and actively monitor for life-threatening complications.

Anahtar Kavram

Metabolic Alkalosis and Hypokalemia Risk Reduction
Soru 1604Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury who suddenly develops a severe, throbbing headache, profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury, and a blood pressure of 220/115 mm Hg. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the priority order of execution.

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Cevap

The correct sequence of actions for autonomic dysreflexia is: 1. Place the client in a high Fowler's position, 2. Examine the urinary catheter system for kinks or obstruction, 3. Assess the rectum for the presence of fecal impaction, and 4. Administer a prescribed rapid-acting antihypertensive medication.
The utmost priority in autonomic dysreflexia is to immediately lower blood pressure to prevent severe complications, such as a hemorrhagic stroke. Elevating the head of the bed accomplishes this rapidly through orthostatic changes. The subsequent steps focus on locating and eliminating the noxious stimulus triggering the sympathetic response, checking the most common causes first: the bladder, then the bowel. If these nursing measures fail to resolve the crisis, rapid-acting antihypertensives are administered.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the clinical presentation of autonomic dysreflexia.
The client is identified as experiencing a life-threatening hypertensive emergency due to an exaggerated sympathetic response.
The combination of a T4 spinal cord injury, extreme hypertension, diaphoresis, and a severe headache strongly indicates autonomic dysreflexia.
2
Determine the most immediate physical intervention to mitigate stroke risk.
Identify that elevating the head of the bed (high Fowler's) takes precedence over all other actions.
This position leverages gravity to pool blood in the lower extremities, thereby reducing venous return and acutely lowering blood pressure.
3
Identify the logical sequence for assessing and removing potential noxious stimuli.
Prioritize checking the bladder first, followed by the bowel.
Bladder issues (such as a kinked catheter) are the most frequent cause and the quickest to resolve, making it the next logical step before assessing the bowel.
4
Determine when pharmacological intervention is indicated.
Place medication administration as the final step in the sequence.
Antihypertensives are utilized if the underlying cause cannot be found or if blood pressure remains dangerously high after attempting to remove the stimulus.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of interventions for autonomic dysreflexia in clients with spinal cord injuries.
Soru 1605Soru →

A nurse enters a client's room and observes that the client's chest tube has accidentally been pulled completely out of the pleural space. The client is awake and alert. To reduce the risk of a life-threatening complication, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological order of priority.

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence is to first instruct the client to exhale forcefully and bear down, immediately cover the site with an occlusive dressing, tape the dressing on exactly three sides, auscultate breath sounds and monitor oxygenation, and finally notify the healthcare provider.
The immediate priority when a chest tube is dislodged is to prevent atmospheric air from entering the pleural space, which causes lung collapse. Having the client bear down (Valsalva maneuver) increases intrathoracic pressure, actively pushing air out and preventing air from rushing in. The nurse must then quickly cover the site with a sterile, occlusive dressing. Taping the dressing on exactly three sides is a critical risk-reduction measure; it creates a one-way flutter valve that allows trapped air to escape during exhalation but prevents air entry during inhalation, mitigating the risk of a tension pneumothorax. Once the wound is safely sealed and the immediate physiological threat is neutralized, the nurse must assess the client's respiratory status to determine the severity of the incident. Finally, the nurse notifies the healthcare provider to prepare for chest tube reinsertion, as this is the definitive medical treatment required.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Instruct the client to forcefully exhale and bear down (Valsalva maneuver).
Intrathoracic pressure immediately increases.
Prevents atmospheric air from rushing into the pleural space during the brief moment the wound is exposed, reducing pneumothorax severity.
2
Cover the insertion site with a sterile, occlusive petroleum gauze dressing.
The open chest wound is physically sealed.
Re-establishes a barrier to prevent continuous air entry into the pleural space with each inspiration.
3
Secure the dressing to the chest wall with tape on exactly three sides.
A one-way flutter valve is successfully created over the wound.
Allows any trapped intrapleural air to escape during exhalation while preventing air entry during inhalation, significantly reducing the risk of a tension pneumothorax.
4
Auscultate bilateral breath sounds and monitor oxygen saturation.
The physiological impact of the dislodgement is evaluated.
Confirms the effectiveness of the immediate interventions and identifies if the client is experiencing severe respiratory compromise.
5
Notify the healthcare provider to prepare for chest tube reinsertion.
Definitive medical management is initiated.
The client requires invasive medical treatment (reinsertion of the chest tube) which is outside the independent scope of nursing practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in airway and breathing emergencies requires neutralizing immediate physical threats before performing thorough assessments or notifying providers.
Soru 1606Soru →

A nurse is formulating a basic care and comfort plan for an 80-year-old client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The client has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), mobility impairments, and has recently developed urinary incontinence with mild confusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Pause the continuous enteral feeding pump whenever it is necessary to lower the head of the bed for repositioning or hygiene.; Cleanse the perineal area with a pH-balanced, no-rinse skin cleanser and apply a moisture barrier ointment after each incontinent episode.; Provide oral hygiene every 4 hours using a soft-bristled toothbrush and a non-alcohol-based rinse.

Cevap

The correct interventions are: pausing the continuous feeding before lowering the head of the bed, providing oral hygiene every 4 hours, and applying moisture barrier ointment to the perineum after incontinence episodes.
Pausing the feeding before lowering the bed prevents pulmonary aspiration. Applying a moisture barrier after incontinent episodes protects skin integrity. Providing regular oral hygiene prevents mucous membrane breakdown and reduces the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's risk factors and current interventions.
The client is older, immobilized, has GERD, and is receiving continuous enteral nutrition. New symptoms include incontinence and confusion.
Identifying these factors highlights the primary risks: aspiration, skin breakdown, and potential acute infection.
2
Evaluate the interventions related to enteral nutrition safety and comfort.
The head of the bed must remain elevated (30-45 degrees) to prevent aspiration. The feeding must be paused if lowering the bed is required. Frequent oral care is mandatory to maintain mucous membrane health.
Enteral feeding bypasses normal oral stimulation, causing dry mouth, and concurrent GERD increases regurgitation risk.
3
Evaluate interventions for skin integrity related to incontinence.
Prompt perineal cleansing with pH-balanced cleansers and the application of moisture barriers are required.
Moisture-associated skin damage (MASD) can quickly progress to pressure injuries in immobilized older adults.
4
Identify inappropriate or unsafe clinical actions among the choices.
Delegating residual assessment to a UAP is a legal scope-of-practice violation. Lowering the bed flat while feeds run is a safety hazard. Dismissing new confusion as 'normal aging' is a diagnostic error.
These represent common procedural, delegation, and pathological misconceptions.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care and comfort for a client on continuous enteral feeding requires vigilant positioning to prevent aspiration, proactive oral and perineal hygiene to maintain tissue integrity, and the recognition that sudden cognitive or elimination changes in older adults warrant acute assessment.
Soru 1607Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled intermittent bolus feeding via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for an older adult client recovering from a stroke. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence of performance. (Place the first action at the top and the last action at the bottom.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Elevate the head of the bed, 2) Aspirate and measure residual volume, 3) Flush with 30 mL of water, 4) Administer the feeding formula, 5) Flush with a final 30 mL of water and clamp.
The safe administration of an enteral tube feeding follows a logical sequence to protect the airway, assess tolerance, and maintain equipment. The nurse must first elevate the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees to utilize gravity in preventing aspiration. Next, the nurse aspirates and measures the gastric residual volume to ensure the previous feeding has been digested, returning the aspirate to maintain electrolyte balance. The tube is then flushed with 30 mL of water to verify patency. Afterward, the formula is administered by gravity to avoid overwhelming the stomach, which can cause cramping or dumping syndrome. Finally, the tube is flushed with another 30 mL of water to clear the lumen of formula, preventing occlusions, and the tube is clamped.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed.
The client is in a semi-Fowler's position.
Gravity helps prevent reflux and pulmonary aspiration during the procedure.
2
Aspirate and measure gastric residual.
Gastric emptying and feeding tolerance are assessed.
High residual volumes may indicate delayed emptying, which increases aspiration risk if more feeding is added.
3
Flush the tube with water.
Tube patency is confirmed.
Ensures the tube is clear and functioning properly before the thicker formula is administered.
4
Administer the formula by gravity.
The client receives the prescribed nutrition.
Gravity flow reduces gastrointestinal distress and cramping compared to a rapid bolus push.
5
Flush and clamp the tube.
The tube is cleared of formula and secured.
Prevents the formula from drying and clogging the tube, while clamping prevents air entry or leakage.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of enteral tube feedings
Soru 1608Soru →

A 65-year-old client is 2 hours post-thoracentesis during which 1,500 mL of pleural fluid was removed from the right hemithorax. The client abruptly develops severe dyspnea, a persistent dry cough that progresses to producing frothy sputum, and extreme restlessness.

Assessment findings:
- Vital signs: Blood pressure 88/54 mm Hg, heart rate 124 bpm, respiratory rate 30 breaths/min, SpO2SpO_2 84% on room air.
- Respiratory: Diffuse crackles auscultated over the right lung fields; breath sounds are clear over the left lung. The trachea is midline.
- Arterial Blood Gas (ABG): pHpH 7.26, PaCO2PaCO_2 56 mm Hg, PaO2PaO_2 52 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 24 mEq/L.

Which of the following is the most appropriate priority action by the nurse to reduce the client's risk of impending cardiopulmonary arrest?

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Cevap: Position the client with the left side dependent and prepare to initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

Cevap

Position the client with the left side dependent and prepare to initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
The client is exhibiting classic signs of re-expansion pulmonary edema (REPE), a rare but life-threatening complication occurring after the rapid removal of a large volume of pleural fluid (typically >1,000 mL). Signs include severe hypoxemia, hypercapnia (as seen on the ABG), hypotension, and unilateral crackles with frothy sputum. The priority is to optimize oxygenation and ventilation. Positioning the client with the unaffected ('good') lung dependent (left lateral decubitus) maximizes perfusion to the healthy lung due to gravity, optimizing the ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio. Concurrently, CPAP provides positive intrathoracic pressure, which helps push fluid out of the alveoli back into the pulmonary interstitium.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and procedure history.
The rapid removal of 1,500 mL of fluid, followed by unilateral right-sided crackles, frothy sputum, and a midline trachea, strongly indicates re-expansion pulmonary edema (REPE).
Identifying the specific complication is necessary to select the appropriate intervention and differentiate it from a pneumothorax.
2
Interpret the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) and vital signs.
The ABG reveals acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis and severe hypoxemia. The hypotension is a secondary consequence of hypoxia and fluid shifts into the lungs.
Understanding the primary physiological failure prevents inappropriate treatments, such as administering fluid boluses that would worsen pulmonary flooding.
3
Determine the priority positioning and intervention to reduce physiological risk.
Positioning the client with the unaffected left lung dependent (down) and applying CPAP is the priority action.
Placing the 'good lung down' directs blood flow to the well-ventilated lung, optimizing V/Q matching. CPAP reduces alveolar fluid and improves oxygenation.

Anahtar Kavram

Re-expansion Pulmonary Edema (REPE) and Ventilation/Perfusion (V/Q) Matching
Soru 1609Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute decompensated heart failure. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of milrinone through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate, one-time IV bolus of furosemide. Which action by the nurse is the safest method to administer the furosemide?

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Cevap: Start a separate peripheral IV line to administer the furosemide bolus

Cevap

The safest method is to establish a new, separate peripheral IV line to administer the furosemide.
Establishing a separate peripheral IV line is the only safe action. Milrinone and furosemide are highly incompatible and will immediately precipitate if they come into contact. Furthermore, because the client has a single-lumen PICC, the standard practice of pausing the infusion and flushing the line with saline is contraindicated. The catheter's dead space contains a high concentration of milrinone; flushing it would inadvertently deliver a rapid, concentrated bolus of the inotrope directly into the central circulation, which can trigger profound hypotension and lethal arrhythmias.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the chemical compatibility between the continuous infusion and the prescribed stat medication.
Milrinone and furosemide are physically incompatible and will form a precipitate if mixed.
Mixing incompatible medications can lead to crystallization and life-threatening emboli.
2
Assess the mechanical risks associated with the client's current venous access (single-lumen PICC).
The PICC contains a significant volume of catheter dead space filled with concentrated milrinone.
Flushing the line to clear it would deliver a rapid, unintended bolus of the vasoactive drug, causing severe hypotension.
3
Determine the safest alternative route for medication administration.
A new peripheral IV line must be inserted.
This avoids both drug precipitation and the risk of a vasoactive bolus while ensuring timely administration of the diuretic.

Anahtar Kavram

Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies: Central Line Dead Space and Vasoactive IV Compatibility
Soru 1610Soru →

A nurse is preparing to discontinue a non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC) from a client's internal jugular vein. To minimize the risk of procedural complications, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct chronological sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to position the client supine, instruct them to perform the Valsalva maneuver, withdraw the catheter, apply immediate firm pressure, secure an occlusive dressing, and finally inspect the catheter tip.
The correct sequence prioritizes the reduction of risk potential, specifically preventing an air embolism and hemorrhage. The client must first be positioned supine to increase central venous pressure. Instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver creates positive intrathoracic pressure just before the catheter is withdrawn. Once the catheter is out, immediate pressure ensures hemostasis and prevents air entry. This is followed by securing an air-occlusive dressing for continuous protection. Finally, inspecting the catheter tip ensures no fragments were left behind in the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the client supine
Increases central venous pressure
Minimizes the initial risk of air entering the vein by raising internal pressure above atmospheric levels.
2
Instruct to perform Valsalva maneuver
Increases intrathoracic pressure
Creates a positive pressure gradient to actively prevent an air embolism during the actual removal of the catheter.
3
Withdraw the catheter smoothly
Catheter is removed from the vein
Must be done exactly while the client holds their breath and bears down to prevent air entry.
4
Apply immediate firm pressure
Site is manually compressed
Promotes hemostasis and immediately stops any potential air entry while the vein closes.
5
Apply an air-occlusive dressing
Insertion site is completely sealed
Provides a continuous barrier against atmospheric air entering the healing tissue tract.
6
Inspect the catheter tip
Catheter integrity is verified
Ensures no fragments remain in the vascular system, preventing a life-threatening catheter embolus.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of air embolism and catheter embolus during central line discontinuation.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1611Soru →

A client who underwent a subtotal thyroidectomy 12 hours ago experiences a sudden onset of severe agitation. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 172 bpm172\text{ bpm}, a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min32\text{ breaths/min}, and a temperature of 105.1∘F105.1^\circ\text{F} (40.6∘C40.6^\circ\text{C}). The healthcare provider diagnoses a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm). Arrange the following prescribed nursing interventions in the priority order they should be implemented.

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Cevap

The priority sequence is: 1) Establish a patent airway and administer high-flow oxygen, 2) Administer intravenous propranolol, 3) Administer propylthiouracil (PTU), 4) Administer an iodine preparation, and 5) Apply a hypothermia blanket and administer acetaminophen.
The management of a thyrotoxic crisis follows a specific physiological progression based on the ABCs and the mechanism of thyroid hormone production. Oxygenation is prioritized first due to massive systemic metabolic demand. Next, extreme sympathetic overactivity must be halted with a beta-blocker to prevent immediate heart failure. Pharmacological management of the thyroid itself follows a strict sequence: an antithyroid agent (PTU) must be given first to block new hormone synthesis, followed by iodine to prevent the release of stored hormones. If iodine is given before PTU, it acts as a substrate for new hormone production. Finally, hyperthermia is managed with cooling measures and acetaminophen (salicylates are avoided as they displace thyroid hormone from binding proteins, increasing free hormone levels).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prioritize airway patency and administer oxygen.
Meets the massive cellular oxygen demand caused by hypermetabolism.
Airway and breathing (ABCs) must be secured first to prevent hypoxic tissue injury.
2
Administer a beta-blocker (propranolol).
Decreases heart rate and sympathetic overstimulation.
Extreme tachycardia (172 bpm172\text{ bpm}) can rapidly lead to heart failure and cardiovascular collapse if not immediately antagonized.
3
Administer an antithyroid medication (PTU).
Halts the synthesis of new thyroid hormones.
The source of the physiological crisis must be addressed by stopping the production of the hormone.
4
Administer an iodine solution (Lugol's solution).
Prevents the release of stored thyroid hormones into the bloodstream.
This must strictly follow PTU administration so the iodine is not utilized to manufacture more hormone.
5
Implement cooling measures and administer acetaminophen.
Reduces the core body temperature of 105.1∘F105.1^\circ\text{F}.
Symptomatic management of hyperthermia is necessary but secondary to stabilizing the cardiopulmonary system and the endocrine cascade.

Anahtar Kavram

Priority physiological interventions for thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)
Soru 1612Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) four hours ago. The client has been on a continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin and 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride. Current laboratory results indicate a serum glucose level of 235 mg/dL235\text{ mg/dL} (13.0 mmol/L13.0\text{ mmol/L}). The arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis shows a pH of 7.287.28, PaCO 2_2 of 28 mm Hg28\text{ mm Hg}, and HCO 3−_3^- of 14 mEq/L14\text{ mEq/L}. The client presents with deep, rhythmic respirations at a rate of 2424 breaths per minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform next?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Change the continuous intravenous fluids to include 5%5\% dextrose.

Cevap

Change the continuous intravenous fluids to include 5% dextrose.
In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), continuous intravenous insulin is required to halt ketogenesis and resolve the underlying metabolic acidosis. Because blood glucose levels typically decline faster than the acidosis resolves, 5%5\% dextrose must be added to the intravenous maintenance fluids once the serum glucose reaches 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} (13.9 mmol/L13.9\text{ mmol/L}) or lower. This critical physiological adaptation intervention prevents severe hypoglycemia and rapid fluid shifts that can cause cerebral edema, while allowing the insulin infusion to continue until the metabolic acidosis is fully corrected.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current serum glucose level.
The blood glucose has fallen to 235 mg/dL235\text{ mg/dL} (13.0 mmol/L13.0\text{ mmol/L}).
Identifying that the glucose level is below the critical threshold of 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} (13.9 mmol/L13.9\text{ mmol/L}) dictates a necessary change in intravenous fluid management.
2
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG shows a pH of 7.287.28 and HCO 3−_3^- of 14 mEq/L14\text{ mEq/L}, indicating ongoing uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
This confirms that continuous intravenous insulin must be maintained to halt ketogenesis and resolve the acidosis, regardless of the dropping glucose levels.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the combined physiological findings.
The nurse must add dextrose to the maintenance intravenous fluids.
Adding dextrose prevents hypoglycemia while allowing the necessary insulin infusion to continue treating the unresolved metabolic acidosis.

Anahtar Kavram

In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), intravenous fluids must be changed to include dextrose when blood glucose reaches 250 mg/dL to prevent hypoglycemia, while insulin is continued until the metabolic acidosis fully resolves.
Soru 1613Soru →

A dependent client is receiving a continuous enteral tube feeding via a nasogastric tube. The care team needs to perform a complete bed bath and change the linens, which requires placing the client in a flat, supine position. Which nursing action is the highest priority before lowering the head of the bed?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Halt the enteral feeding pump to stop the continuous infusion.

Cevap

The highest priority action is to halt the enteral feeding pump to stop the continuous infusion before lowering the head of the bed.
When a client is receiving a continuous enteral feeding, the head of the bed must remain elevated at least 30 to 45 degrees to utilize gravity in preventing gastric reflux and subsequent pulmonary aspiration. Because the bed bath and linen change require placing the client in a flat, supine position, the nurse must first halt the feeding pump. This prioritized action directly protects the client's airway during the procedure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary physiological risk associated with the planned positional change.
Lowering the head of the bed for a client with an active enteral feeding significantly increases the risk of gastric reflux and pulmonary aspiration.
Gravity is required to keep gastric contents from flowing back up the esophagus when the stomach is receiving continuous liquid nutrients.
2
Determine the necessary preventative nursing action.
The continuous feeding must be temporarily stopped.
Halting the infusion ensures that no new volume is added to the stomach while the client is supine, thereby protecting the airway.
3
Evaluate other options against the highest priority of airway protection.
Flushing the tube or assessing bowel sounds do not protect the airway. Delegating an airway assessment is legally out of scope for assistive personnel.
Airway protection (ABC priority) must always precede routine maintenance or delegation tasks.

Anahtar Kavram

Aspiration Prevention during Enteral Nutrition Administration
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1614Soru →

An emergency department nurse receives a client who sustained blunt abdominal trauma from a fall. Upon arrival, the client is alert, reports moderate abdominal tenderness, and has an intact airway. The nurse monitors the client's vital signs over the first 45 minutes of the assessment:

TimeBlood Pressure (mm Hg)Heart Rate (bpm)Respiratory Rate (breaths/min)SpO2 (%)
14:00122/74881698
14:15118/76961897
14:30114/821042097
14:45110/861122296

Based on the physiological trend presented in the table, which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of the client's condition and the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The client is developing compensatory hypovolemic shock evidenced by a narrowing pulse pressure; prepare for immediate rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation.

Cevap

The client is developing compensatory hypovolemic shock evidenced by a narrowing pulse pressure; prepare for immediate rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation.
The client is exhibiting a progressive narrowing of the pulse pressure (from 48 mm Hg down to 24 mm Hg) along with steadily increasing tachycardia and tachypnea. In the context of blunt abdominal trauma, this specific vital sign trend represents the body's sympathetic compensatory response to internal hemorrhage (the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock). As intravascular blood volume decreases, peripheral vasoconstriction increases the diastolic blood pressure, while the systolic blood pressure is maintained or slightly decreases, leading to a narrowed pulse pressure. The priority nursing action is to recognize this deterioration and prepare for immediate rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation to restore volume.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's mechanism of injury and initial clinical presentation.
The client has sustained blunt abdominal trauma, placing them at an exceptionally high risk for occult internal hemorrhage.
Establishing the clinical context is essential for maintaining a high index of suspicion and correctly interpreting vital sign trends.
2
Calculate the pulse pressure (systolic minus diastolic blood pressure) for each recorded time interval.
14:00 (48 mm Hg); 14:15 (42 mm Hg); 14:30 (32 mm Hg); 14:45 (24 mm Hg). The pulse pressure is progressively narrowing.
Pulse pressure is a critical hemodynamic indicator. A narrowing trend is a hallmark early sign of compensatory shock due to peripheral vasoconstriction.
3
Correlate the narrowing pulse pressure with other concurrent vital sign changes.
The narrowing pulse pressure is accompanied by a steady, concurrent increase in heart rate (88 to 112 bpm) and respiratory rate (16 to 22 breaths/min).
These combined findings reflect the body's sympathetic nervous system attempting to maintain cardiac output and tissue oxygenation in the face of decreasing intravascular volume.
4
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the physiological interpretation of the data.
The findings strongly indicate early (compensatory) hypovolemic shock, requiring the nurse to prepare for immediate rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation.
Restoring intravascular volume is the primary, life-saving treatment for hypovolemic shock to prevent progression to a decompensated state and irreversible organ failure.

Anahtar Kavram

In clients at risk for hemorrhage, a progressively narrowing pulse pressure combined with tachycardia is one of the earliest and most reliable indicators of compensatory hypovolemic shock, necessitating immediate fluid resuscitation.
Soru 1615Soru →

An adult client who has been experiencing intractable vomiting for the last 72 hours is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Based on the significant loss of gastric contents, which acid-base disturbance should the nurse most anticipate when reviewing the client's laboratory results?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Metabolic alkalosis

Cevap

Metabolic alkalosis
Prolonged vomiting causes a severe depletion of gastric secretions, which are rich in hydrochloric acid. The continuous loss of these hydrogen ions from the body leaves a relative excess of circulating bicarbonate. This imbalance raises the systemic pH and directly results in metabolic alkalosis as a physiological adaptation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario for the primary mechanism of fluid or electrolyte loss.
The client has experienced prolonged vomiting, leading to a significant loss of gastric secretions.
Identifying the specific source and nature of volume loss is the crucial first step in predicting subsequent acid-base changes.
2
Determine the chemical composition of the lost gastrointestinal fluids.
Gastric fluid is highly acidic due to the presence of large amounts of hydrochloric acid.
Understanding the pH and composition of the lost fluids explains how the systemic balance will shift.
3
Predict the resulting systemic physiological adaptation and imbalance.
The extensive loss of systemic acid leaves a relative excess of bicarbonate, elevating the blood pH and causing metabolic alkalosis.
A primary deficit of hydrogen ions directly tips the acid-base balance toward an alkaline state.

Anahtar Kavram

Acid-Base Imbalances: Metabolic Alkalosis from Gastric Acid Loss
Soru 1616Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who is receiving intravenous morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump following an abdominal laparotomy. The client is profoundly lethargic with a respiratory rate of 7 breaths per minute. A stat arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn and yields the following results: pH 7.25, PaCO2 62 mm Hg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L. To immediately reduce the client's risk for cardiopulmonary arrest, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the continuous morphine infusion and prepare to administer the prescribed opioid antagonist.

Cevap

The correct action is to stop the continuous morphine infusion and prepare to administer the prescribed opioid antagonist.
The client is experiencing opioid-induced respiratory depression, evidenced by profound lethargy, a respiratory rate of 7 breaths per minute, and ABG results demonstrating uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH and significantly elevated PaCO2). The priority action to reduce the risk of cardiopulmonary arrest is to immediately stop the offending agent (morphine) and prepare to administer an opioid antagonist, such as naloxone, to restore an adequate respiratory drive.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Interpret the client's clinical presentation and ABG results.
The client has severe hypoventilation (7 breaths/min) resulting in uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.25, elevated PaCO2 62 mm Hg, normal HCO3 24 mEq/L).
Opioid analgesics like morphine cause central nervous system depression, which slows the respiratory drive and leads to carbon dioxide retention.
2
Determine the highest priority intervention based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The immediate life-threatening issue is compromised breathing due to opioid toxicity.
Stopping the source of the toxicity (morphine) and reversing it with an antagonist (such as naloxone) is critical to restore adequate spontaneous ventilation and prevent arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

Anticipating and managing severe physiological complications of pharmacological therapies (opioid-induced respiratory acidosis).
Soru 1617Soru →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for an 82-year-old client with advanced Parkinson's disease who requires assistance with activities of daily living due to generalized weakness, dysphagia, and muscle rigidity. Which basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the head of the bed at a 90-degree angle during meals and for at least 30 minutes afterward.; Schedule uninterrupted rest periods between hygiene tasks and physical therapy sessions.; Provide frequent oral care using a suction toothbrush to manage excess saliva and prevent aspiration.

Cevap

The correct interventions are maintaining the head of the bed at 90 degrees during and after meals, scheduling rest periods, and providing oral care with a suction toothbrush.
Clients with Parkinson's disease and dysphagia are at high risk for aspiration and severe fatigue. Elevating the head of the bed during and after meals uses gravity to prevent food and fluids from entering the airway. Scheduling regular rest periods conserves the client's energy and mitigates generalized weakness. Using a suction toothbrush for oral care safely removes excess secretions and pooled saliva, further reducing aspiration risk while maintaining mucosal integrity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and risk factors.
The client has advanced Parkinson's disease, dysphagia, weakness, and rigidity, placing them at high risk for aspiration, fatigue, and immobility complications.
Identifying risk factors dictates the necessary basic care and comfort measures.
2
Evaluate the interventions for airway and aspiration safety.
Positioning the client upright for meals and using a suction toothbrush for oral hygiene effectively mitigate aspiration risks associated with dysphagia.
Aspiration pneumonia is a severe, preventable complication of dysphagia.
3
Evaluate the interventions for mobility and comfort.
Scheduling rest periods addresses the generalized weakness. However, placing a pillow under the popliteal space is contraindicated due to deep vein thrombosis risk.
Basic care must promote comfort without introducing new circulatory or mobility risks.
4
Evaluate the delegation and assessment interventions.
The RN must perform initial swallowing assessments, and sudden changes in cognition or continence must be investigated as pathology rather than normal aging.
UAPs cannot assess, and acute mental status changes in older adults often indicate infection or delirium.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care, comfort, and safety interventions for clients with neuromuscular deficits and dysphagia.
Soru 1618Soru →

A 59-year-old client with a history of chronic hepatitis C is currently 2 hours post-procedure following an ultrasound-guided percutaneous liver biopsy. The client is resting in the recovery unit. The nurse is reviewing the client's clinical data and performing a focused assessment. Which of the following assessment findings is a subtle indicator of impending physiological decompensation that requires immediate nursing intervention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A steady increase in the resting heart rate from 72 to 108 beats/min combined with a narrowing pulse pressure.

Cevap

A steady increase in the resting heart rate from 72 to 108 beats/min combined with a narrowing pulse pressure.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, making hemorrhage the most critical risk following a percutaneous liver biopsy. A steadily increasing heart rate (tachycardia) and a narrowing pulse pressure are classic early, subtle compensatory mechanisms indicating hypovolemia and impending hemorrhagic shock. As blood volume drops, the sympathetic nervous system triggers tachycardia and vasoconstriction, which raises the diastolic pressure and narrows the gap between systolic and diastolic values before a significant, late-stage drop in systolic blood pressure occurs. This finding requires immediate nursing intervention, such as obtaining a full set of vital signs, assessing the biopsy site, and notifying the healthcare provider.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the specific procedure performed.
The client had a percutaneous liver biopsy, which carries a high risk of severe internal bleeding because the liver is a highly vascular organ.
Identifying the primary procedural risk directs the focus of the post-operative assessment toward early signs of hemorrhage.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding to distinguish between expected post-procedure outcomes and signs of complications.
Right shoulder pain, resting in a right lateral position, and hypoactive bowel sounds assessed correctly are all expected or therapeutic findings.
Differentiating normal from abnormal findings prevents unnecessary interventions and highlights actual emergencies.
3
Identify the finding that indicates an acute physiological decline.
A rising heart rate with a narrowing pulse pressure is identified as an early sign of compensatory shock.
As blood volume decreases from internal hemorrhage, the sympathetic nervous system increases the heart rate and causes vasoconstriction (narrowing the pulse pressure) to maintain cardiac output before a major drop in systolic blood pressure occurs.

Anahtar Kavram

Early detection of hemorrhagic shock following highly vascular invasive procedures.
Soru 1619Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a 42-year-old client 24 hours after a total thyroidectomy. The client appears highly anxious and reports new-onset numbness around the lips and fingertips.

Current vital signs:
- Blood pressure: 138/86 mm Hg
- Heart rate: 112 beats/min
- Respiratory rate: 28 breaths/min
- SpO2: 96% on room air

Current laboratory results:
- Total serum calcium: 7.4 mg/dL (1.85 mmol/L)
- Arterial blood gas (ABG): pH 7.51, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, HCO3 23 mEq/L, PaO2 94 mm Hg

To most rapidly mitigate the client's risk for an impending life-threatening complication, which action should the nurse implement first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Coach the client to systematically slow their respiratory rate and breathe into a paper bag.

Cevap

The most immediate action is to coach the client to systematically slow their respiratory rate and breathe into a paper bag.
The client is experiencing hypocalcemia secondary to a total thyroidectomy, which is currently being severely exacerbated by respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation. In an alkalotic state, hydrogen ions detach from serum albumin, freeing up negatively charged binding sites that immediately bind ionized calcium. This acute drop in free, active calcium levels precipitates life-threatening tetany and laryngospasm. By coaching the client to slow their breathing and re-breathe carbon dioxide, the nurse effectively corrects the respiratory alkalosis. As the pH normalizes, calcium is released from the albumin, rapidly increasing the ionized calcium levels and mitigating the immediate physiological risk of airway compromise.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's postoperative risk and clinical manifestations.
The client is 24 hours post-thyroidectomy and exhibiting circumoral numbness and anxiety, which are classic early signs of hypocalcemia resulting from inadvertent parathyroid gland removal or damage.
Identifying the underlying complication is the critical first step in clinical judgment.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) and laboratory results.
The ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.51, PaCO2 29 mm Hg). The total serum calcium is critically low at 7.4 mg/dL.
The client's tachypnea (respiratory rate of 28) is blowing off excessive CO2, causing the alkalotic state.
3
Link the acid-base imbalance to the electrolyte disturbance.
In an alkalotic state, hydrogen ions dissociate from serum albumin, freeing up negatively charged binding sites. Ionized (active) calcium rapidly binds to these newly available sites, drastically lowering the free ionized calcium level in the blood.
This acute drop in ionized calcium heavily exacerbates the symptoms of hypocalcemia, placing the client at immediate risk for life-threatening tetany or laryngospasm.
4
Select the most appropriate, immediate intervention to mitigate the risk.
Coaching the client to slow their breathing or breathe into a paper bag retains CO2, thereby lowering the blood pH. This reverses the alkalosis, causes calcium to detach from albumin, and rapidly increases active ionized calcium levels.
This physiological temporizing measure quickly mitigates the imminent threat of airway compromise while the nurse prepares for safe, slow intravenous calcium replacement.

Anahtar Kavram

Acid-Base Effects on Calcium Ionization
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1620Soru →

A client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with acute decompensated heart failure and is experiencing severe orthopnea and significant bilateral peripheral edema. The nurse is planning care to optimize the client's respiratory status and physical comfort. Which of the following positioning strategies is most appropriate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assisting the client to sit on the edge of the bed while leaning forward with their arms supported on a padded overbed table.

Cevap

The most appropriate positioning strategy is to assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed, leaning forward with arms supported on a padded overbed table.
The orthopneic position (sitting up and leaning forward over a supported surface) is the optimal intervention for severe orthopnea. It utilizes gravity to shift abdominal organs away from the diaphragm, maximizing lung expansion and allowing effective use of accessory respiratory muscles. Furthermore, having the client sit on the edge of the bed keeps the legs dependent, which intentionally pools blood in the lower extremities, thereby reducing venous return (preload) to the right side of the heart and alleviating pulmonary congestion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has acute decompensated heart failure with severe orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying flat) and peripheral edema.
Understanding the pathophysiology of heart failure is essential for selecting the correct comfort measures.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic impact of various positioning strategies.
Positions that increase venous return (preload) will worsen pulmonary congestion, while positions that decrease venous return will alleviate symptoms.
Nursing interventions for heart failure must balance respiratory support with fluid dynamic management.
3
Select the position that maximizes lung expansion and minimizes preload.
The orthopneic position (leaning forward over a table with legs dependent) achieves both goals.
This position allows gravity to pull abdominal organs downward, freeing the diaphragm for maximum excursion, while dangling the legs deliberately reduces venous return to the failing heart.

Anahtar Kavram

Orthopneic Positioning in Heart Failure
ÖncekiSayfa 81 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 81 | Examkin