Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1861Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who is 44 hours postoperative following an open abdominal procedure. The surgical dressing is dry and intact, and a closed-suction drain has collected 15 mL15\text{ mL} of serosanguineous fluid. The client has become increasingly restless over the past hour. Current vital signs are: blood pressure 104/86 mmHg104/86\text{ mmHg}, heart rate 118 beats/min118\text{ beats/min}, and respiratory rate 24 breaths/min24\text{ breaths/min}. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.337.33, PaCO 2_2 of 32 mmHg32\text{ mmHg}, and HCO 3−_3^- of 16 mEq/L16\text{ mEq/L}. Based on this physiological presentation, which is the priority nursing intervention?

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Cevap: Prepare to administer a rapid intravenous bolus of an isotonic crystalloid solution.

Cevap

The correct priority intervention is to prepare to administer a rapid intravenous bolus of an isotonic crystalloid solution.
The client is in the early compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock, likely due to a concealed internal hemorrhage following abdominal surgery. This is evidenced by the narrowed pulse pressure (18 mmHg18\text{ mmHg}), tachycardia, and restlessness. The inadequate tissue perfusion has led to anaerobic metabolism and lactic acidosis, reflected in the ABG as a partially compensated metabolic acidosis. The absolute priority is to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion by administering isotonic crystalloids.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs to identify hemodynamic trends.
The blood pressure of 104/86 mmHg shows a significantly narrowed pulse pressure of 18 mmHg. Combined with tachycardia (118 beats/min) and restlessness, this strongly indicates early compensatory hypovolemic shock, likely from a concealed internal hemorrhage.
Recognizing subtle early signs of shock is critical before the client decompensates into irreversible hypotension.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The pH of 7.33 indicates acidemia. The HCO3- of 16 mEq/L is low (indicating primary metabolic acidosis), and the PaCO2 of 32 mmHg is low (indicating partial respiratory compensation).
ABG analysis helps determine the physiological impact of the shock state. Tissue hypoperfusion leads to anaerobic metabolism, causing lactic acidosis.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the physiological root cause.
The root cause of the metabolic acidosis and vital sign changes is intravascular volume depletion. The priority is to restore circulating volume with isotonic crystalloids.
Treating the underlying cause (hypovolemia) will restore tissue perfusion, resolve the lactic acidosis, and stabilize the vital signs.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition and Management of Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 1862Soru →

A client with a right tibial fracture is non-weight-bearing on the affected extremity. The nurse is instructing the client on how to safely ascend a flight of stairs using axillary crutches. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for ascending stairs with crutches is to first place body weight on the crutches, step up with the unaffected leg, shift weight to the unaffected leg, and finally bring the crutches and the affected leg up to the stair tread.
When ascending stairs with crutches, the standard safety principle is 'up with the good.' The client must first stabilize their body by supporting their weight on the crutches. Next, they advance the unaffected (strong) leg up to the stair tread. Once the strong leg is firmly placed, they transfer their body weight onto it. Finally, they use the strength of the unaffected leg to lift their body, bringing both the crutches and the affected (injured) leg up to the same stair tread. This specific sequence maintains center of gravity, ensures stability, and protects the non-weight-bearing extremity from bearing an unsafe load.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Place weight on crutches.
The unaffected leg is free to move without compromising balance.
Ensures complete stability and a solid base of support before attempting to step up against gravity.
2
Advance the unaffected leg onto the stair.
The strong leg is positioned on the higher level.
The strong leg is required to lift the body's entire weight. This follows the 'up with the good' principle.
3
Transfer body weight to the unaffected leg.
The arms and crutches are relieved of the body's weight.
Prepares the client to lift the assistive devices and safely elevate the injured extremity.
4
Bring the crutches and affected leg up to the stair.
The entire body and assistive devices rest on the same stair tread.
Completes the upward movement while maintaining strict non-weight-bearing status on the affected leg.

Anahtar Kavram

Assistive Devices: Crutch Walking on Stairs
Soru 1863Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) push medication through the lowest injection port of a primary IV line. The client has a single-lumen central venous catheter with a continuous infusion of a medication that is physically incompatible with the prescribed IV push drug. Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order to safely administer this medication.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the pump, clamp the primary tubing, flush to clear the incompatible drug, administer the IV push medication slowly, flush again at the same slow rate to clear the line, and finally unclamp and restart the pump.
Safe administration of an IV push medication through a line with an incompatible continuous infusion requires complete isolation and clearing of the catheter. The pump must be stopped and the tubing clamped to prevent retrograde flow and mixing. The line is flushed before administration to clear the incompatible fluid, and flushed after administration at the same slow rate to prevent a rapid bolus of the medication residing in the catheter's dead space.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the continuous intravenous infusion pump.
The flow of the incompatible medication is halted without triggering pressure alarms.
Stopping the pump prevents active flow against the upcoming clamp and stops the delivery of the incompatible fluid.
2
Clamp or pinch the primary IV tubing above the injection port closest to the client.
The injection port is isolated from the rest of the primary tubing.
This prevents retrograde flow of the IV push medication up into the primary line, preventing mixture and precipitation.
3
Scrub the injection port hub, aspirate for a blood return, and flush the line with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride.
The catheter lumen is completely cleared of the continuous infusion medication.
A complete flush is required to ensure no incompatible medication remains in the catheter lumen before the IV push drug is introduced.
4
Administer the prescribed IV push medication over the recommended duration.
The medication is safely delivered into the cleared line.
Administering over the recommended time prevents adverse reactions and toxicity.
5
Flush the line with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride at the same rate the medication was administered.
The remaining medication in the catheter is delivered to the patient at a safe, controlled rate.
Central venous catheters have significant dead space. A rapid flush would push this residual medication into the bloodstream as a dangerous bolus.
6
Unclamp the primary IV tubing and restart the continuous intravenous infusion.
The patient's baseline continuous therapy is resumed.
Because the line is now fully cleared of the IV push drug, the incompatible continuous infusion can safely restart without risk of precipitation.

Anahtar Kavram

When administering an IV push medication through a central line with an incompatible continuous infusion, the line must be clamped and thoroughly flushed before and after administration. Crucially, the post-flush must be delivered at the same slow rate as the medication to avoid bolusing the residual drug held in the catheter's dead space.
Soru 1864Soru →

A client is 3 days post-operative following an abdominal laparotomy. While coughing forcefully, the client reports a 'giving way' sensation in the abdomen. The nurse inspects the surgical site and observes that the incision has separated with a loop of bowel protruding. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence to mitigate further physiological risk.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: remain with the client and call for help, position the client in low Fowler's with knees flexed, cover the bowel with sterile saline-soaked dressings, assess vital signs, and prepare for emergency surgery.
The correct sequence prioritizes immediate client safety, anatomical tension reduction, tissue preservation, and hemodynamic monitoring. The nurse must first secure the situation by staying with the client and calling for help. Next, placing the client in a low Fowler's position with knees flexed reduces intra-abdominal pressure, preventing further organ protrusion. Once help brings supplies, the nurse covers the bowel with sterile saline-soaked dressings to prevent tissue necrosis and infection. After securing the physical defect, the nurse assesses vital signs to monitor for shock, and finally prepares the client for the definitive surgical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Secure the environment and client safety.
The nurse remains with the client and calls for immediate assistance.
Leaving the client could result in severe injury; help is needed to obtain sterile supplies and contact the surgeon.
2
Reduce abdominal tension.
The client is placed in a low Fowler's position with knees flexed.
This specific anatomical position relaxes the abdominal muscles and prevents further evisceration.
3
Protect the exposed viscera.
The protruding organs are covered with sterile, saline-moistened dressings.
Bowel tissue can quickly become necrotic if allowed to dry; sterile saline maintains moisture and reduces infection risk.
4
Evaluate hemodynamic status.
Vital signs are assessed.
Evisceration can lead to rapid fluid shift and hypovolemic shock; close monitoring of perfusion is necessary.
5
Facilitate definitive treatment.
The client is prepared for emergency surgery.
Surgical intervention is the only definitive resolution for an abdominal evisceration.

Anahtar Kavram

Evisceration emergency management and risk reduction
Soru 1865Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a mixed dose of 5 units of regular insulin and 15 units of NPH insulin to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus before breakfast. Place the following steps for preparing this medication in a single syringe in the correct chronological order.

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence is: roll the NPH vial, cleanse both stoppers, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into and withdraw the regular insulin, and finally withdraw the NPH insulin.
The standard sequence for mixing insulins ensures both accurate dosing and prevention of cross-contamination. NPH must be rolled to suspend the particles safely. Stopper cleansing ensures sterility. Air must be injected into both vials to prevent a vacuum. Injecting air into the NPH vial first, followed by the regular insulin, allows the nurse to draw up the regular (clear) insulin first. This 'clear before cloudy' rule is critical to prevent the intermediate-acting NPH from contaminating the rapid-acting regular insulin vial.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Roll the NPH insulin vial.
The suspension is mixed evenly.
Ensures accurate dosing without creating air bubbles that form if the vial is shaken.
2
Cleanse the rubber stoppers of both vials.
The tops of the vials are sanitized.
Prevents introduction of pathogens into the sterile medication.
3
Inject air into the NPH vial first.
Pressure is equalized in the NPH vial.
Prevents vacuum formation; doing this first avoids contaminating the clear insulin with cloudy insulin.
4
Inject air into the regular insulin vial and withdraw the medication.
The regular insulin is drawn into the syringe.
Drawing clear insulin first prevents accidental contamination of the rapid-acting regular insulin vial with the longer-acting NPH insulin.
5
Withdraw the NPH insulin.
The total mixed dose is prepared in the syringe.
Completes the medication preparation while maintaining the purity of both insulin vials.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe medication preparation and mixing of insulin (Clear before Cloudy)
Soru 1866Soru →

An older adult is recovering in the orthopedic unit after undergoing a right posterior total hip arthroplasty. The individual requires assistance with bowel elimination and requests a bedpan. To safely facilitate this without compromising the surgical site, which action is the most appropriate?

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Cevap: Utilize a fracture pan while ensuring the right lower extremity remains in an abducted, neutral position.

Cevap

Utilize a fracture pan while ensuring the right lower extremity remains in an abducted, neutral position.
The correct action involves using a fracture pan, which has a flat end that slides easily under the patient, requiring minimal lifting of the pelvis. Maintaining the operative leg in an abducted (away from the midline) and neutral position strictly adheres to posterior hip precautions, thereby reducing the risk of joint dislocation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its associated risks.
The patient had a right posterior total hip arthroplasty.
Understanding the surgical approach determines the specific movement precautions required to prevent joint dislocation.
2
Determine the contraindicated movements for a posterior hip replacement.
Hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction across the midline, and internal rotation are contraindicated.
These specific movements place stress on the posterior joint capsule, risking dislocation of the newly placed prosthesis.
3
Evaluate the options against these precautions.
Using a fracture pan with the leg abducted maintains joint safety. Sitting at 90 degrees or crossing legs violates the precautions.
A fracture pan has a lower profile, requiring minimal lifting of the pelvis, and keeping the leg abducted prevents the high-risk movement of adduction.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-operative Hip Arthroplasty Precautions
Soru 1867Soru →

A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is 48 hours post-operative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). The client requires assistance with daily activities, and the nurse is coordinating care with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to promote comfort and safety? (Select all that apply)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Place an abduction pillow between the client's lower extremities while turning them in bed.; Utilize a fracture bedpan for elimination to minimize lifting of the client's pelvis.; Apply a prescribed ice pack to the incisional area for 20-minute intervals to manage localized swelling.

Cevap

The nurse should place an abduction pillow between the legs, utilize a fracture bedpan, and apply prescribed ice packs to the incision.
The correct interventions focus on maintaining essential surgical precautions (abduction to prevent crossing the midline, avoiding excessive flexion via a fracture bedpan) and utilizing safe non-pharmacological pain management (cold therapy) to optimize the client's postoperative comfort and structural integrity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific physiological restrictions.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach), meaning hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction, and internal rotation must be avoided to prevent dislocation.
Understanding surgical precautions dictates safe mobility and positioning interventions.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety, appropriate delegation, and comfort promotion.
Abduction pillows and fracture bedpans respect hip precautions. Ice packs provide non-pharmacologic pain relief. Sitting at 90 degrees violates precautions. Delegating assessment and ignoring confusion violate nursing standards.
Basic care and comfort must be balanced with safe practice guidelines and accurate clinical judgment.
3
Select the appropriate nursing interventions.
The correct interventions are maintaining abduction, using a low-profile bedpan, and applying localized cold therapy.
These actions directly promote comfort while maintaining physiological integrity and safety.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care and comfort measures for a post-operative client must strictly adhere to specific surgical precautions (e.g., hip precautions) and standard nursing principles regarding delegation and acute status changes.
Soru 1868Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute decompensated heart failure who has a prescription for a continuous IV infusion of milrinone at 0.375 mcg/kg/min0.375 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 209 lbs209 \text{ lbs}. The pharmacy provides milrinone 20 mg20 \text{ mg} in 100 mL100 \text{ mL} of 0.9% NaCl0.9\% \text{ NaCl}. The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.)

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Cevap: 10.7

Cevap

10.7
The correct infusion rate is determined by a multi-step calculation: first, converting the client's weight to kg (209÷2.2=95 kg209 \div 2.2 = 95 \text{ kg}); second, calculating the hourly dose in micrograms (95×0.375×60=2137.5 mcg/hr95 \times 0.375 \times 60 = 2137.5 \text{ mcg/hr}); third, determining the concentration of the IV bag in mcg/mL (20,000÷100=200 mcg/mL20,000 \div 100 = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}); and finally, dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration (2137.5÷200=10.68752137.5 \div 200 = 10.6875). Rounding 10.687510.6875 to the nearest tenth gives 10.7 mL/hr10.7 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert weight from pounds to kilograms
95 kg95 \text{ kg}
The prescription is weight-based in kg, so the client's weight must be converted first (209÷2.2209 \div 2.2).
2
Calculate the total mcg required per minute
35.625 mcg/min35.625 \text{ mcg/min}
Multiply the prescribed dose (0.375 mcg/kg/min0.375 \text{ mcg/kg/min}) by the client's weight (95 kg95 \text{ kg}).
3
Calculate the total mcg required per hour
2137.5 mcg/hr2137.5 \text{ mcg/hr}
IV pumps are programmed in mL/hr, so the per-minute dose must be multiplied by 60 minutes.
4
Determine the concentration of the IV solution in mcg/mL
200 mcg/mL200 \text{ mcg/mL}
Convert 20 mg20 \text{ mg} to 20,000 mcg20,000 \text{ mcg}, then divide by 100 mL100 \text{ mL} to match the units of the required dose.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr
10.6875 mL/hr10.6875 \text{ mL/hr}
Divide the total hourly dose (2137.5 mcg/hr2137.5 \text{ mcg/hr}) by the concentration (200 mcg/mL200 \text{ mcg/mL}).
6
Round the final answer to the nearest tenth
10.710.7
Rounding instructions require the answer to one decimal place.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous IV infusion calculation
Soru 1869Soru →

A 26-year-old client with a history of poorly controlled asthma presents to the emergency department with severe dyspnea, use of accessory muscles, and a respiratory rate of 3838 breaths per minute. Initial arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pHpH of 7.507.50, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 2727 mm Hg, and PaO2PaO_2 of 7474 mm Hg. The client is treated with high-dose nebulized albuterol and intravenous methylprednisolone. During reassessment 4545 minutes later, the nurse notes that the client's breath sounds are now severely diminished with minimal wheezing, the respiratory rate has decreased to 1616 breaths per minute, and the client is difficult to arouse. A repeat ABG shows a pHpH of 7.367.36, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 4444 mm Hg, and PaO2PaO_2 of 6060 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Notify the rapid response team and prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation.

Cevap

The correct action is to notify the rapid response team and prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation.
The client is exhibiting clear signs of impending respiratory failure. Initially, the client was hyperventilating, leading to respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2PaCO_2). The subsequent 'normalization' of the PaCO2PaCO_2 (from 2727 to 4444 mm Hg) and pHpH, combined with lethargy, a decreasing respiratory rate, and diminished breath sounds ('silent chest'), indicates severe muscle fatigue and the failure of compensatory mechanisms. The client is no longer able to ventilate adequately, making immediate airway management the priority.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the initial clinical presentation and arterial blood gas values.
The client presented with severe distress and respiratory alkalosis (pHpH 7.507.50, PaCO2PaCO_2 2727 mm Hg), which is the expected initial compensatory mechanism due to hyperventilation.
Understanding the baseline state is necessary to evaluate the physiological response to treatment.
2
Evaluate the reassessment findings after 45 minutes of treatment.
The client is now difficult to arouse, has severely diminished breath sounds (silent chest), and a respiratory rate that has slowed to 1616 breaths per minute.
Clinical deterioration despite aggressive medical therapy indicates a life-threatening physiological adaptation and loss of compensatory mechanisms.
3
Interpret the repeat arterial blood gas values in the context of the clinical picture.
The PaCO2PaCO_2 has 'normalized' to 4444 mm Hg and the pHpH has dropped to 7.367.36. Coupled with lethargy and decreased breath sounds, this indicates loss of compensatory hyperventilation due to severe muscle fatigue.
A normal PaCO2PaCO_2 during an acute asthma attack is a paradox that signals impending respiratory failure, not clinical improvement.
4
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The client is in acute ventilatory failure and cannot maintain their own airway or breathing, making immediate endotracheal intubation the highest priority.
Delaying advanced airway management in this scenario will predictably lead to complete respiratory arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

In acute severe asthma exacerbations, a 'normalizing' or rising PaCO2PaCO_2 accompanied by lethargy and decreased breath sounds indicates severe respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory arrest, requiring immediate intubation.
Soru 1870Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 65-year-old client who underwent a left above-the-knee amputation two days ago. The client reports intermittent phantom limb pain and is preparing for future physical rehabilitation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate to promote optimal mobility and comfort?

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Cevap: Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes, three to four times a day.

Cevap

The most appropriate intervention is to assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes, three to four times a day.
Prone positioning for 20 to 30 minutes several times a day is a critical intervention for clients with a lower extremity amputation. This position actively stretches the flexor muscles of the hip and prevents the development of hip flexion contractures. Preventing these contractures is essential because a contracted hip joint makes it extremely difficult or impossible for the client to be properly fitted for and use a prosthetic limb during rehabilitation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the time elapsed since the client's surgery and the specific procedure performed.
The client is two days (48 hours) post-operative following an above-the-knee amputation.
Post-operative positioning guidelines change significantly after the first 24 hours to prevent long-term musculoskeletal complications.
2
Analyze the physiological risks associated with lower extremity amputations.
The most common and debilitating complication related to physical mobility is the development of a hip flexion contracture.
Contractures occur when flexor muscles remain in a shortened position for prolonged periods, which can ultimately prevent the successful fitting and use of a prosthetic limb.
3
Evaluate each intervention option against evidence-based basic care, safety, and positioning guidelines.
Prone positioning correctly stretches the hip flexors. Continuous elevation on a pillow promotes contractures. Evaluating dressings cannot be delegated to UAPs. Sudden confusion requires acute medical assessment, as it is not normal aging.
Selecting the correct nursing action requires synthesizing knowledge of proper client positioning, delegation constraints, and normal aging versus pathological changes.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-operative Positioning and Contracture Prevention for Amputations
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 1871Soru →

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 12 hours post-operative following an exploratory laparotomy and small bowel resection. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube set to low continuous suction and a surgical drain in place. To reduce the risk of potential complications, which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the client's bed to at least 30 degrees.; Notify the healthcare provider if the client exhibits a narrowing pulse pressure alongside a steadily increasing heart rate.; Instruct the client to firmly press a pillow against the surgical incision during coughing and deep breathing exercises.

Cevap

The appropriate interventions to include in the plan of care are elevating the head of the bed, notifying the provider of a narrowing pulse pressure with tachycardia, and instructing the client to splint the incision during breathing exercises.
Appropriate risk reduction for this client involves elevating the head of the bed to prevent aspiration and promote lung expansion, acting on early signs of shock (such as a narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia), and teaching the client to splint the abdominal incision to prevent dehiscence during coughing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical context and risk factors.
The client is post-laparotomy with an active NG tube, which introduces risks for respiratory compromise, aspiration, hypovolemia, internal bleeding, and acid-base imbalances.
Identifying potential post-operative complications directs the selection of appropriate, proactive preventive interventions.
2
Evaluate each intervention for physiological safety and alignment with best practice.
Elevating the bed prevents aspiration. Splinting prevents dehiscence while enabling lung expansion. Identifying narrowing pulse pressure detects early shock. The other options present unsafe actions or misinterpretations of critical data.
Nursing actions must directly reduce risk without introducing new complications or missing subtle signs of deterioration.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-operative risk reduction requires the proactive prevention of respiratory complications, adherence to correct physical assessment sequences, and the early identification of physiological deterioration such as hypovolemic shock or acid-base imbalances.
Soru 1872Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who sustained a complete spinal cord injury at the T4 level several weeks ago. The client suddenly reports a severe, throbbing headache. The nurse observes profuse diaphoresis on the client's face and neck, and obtains a blood pressure reading of 198/104 mm Hg. Which action must the nurse implement first to reduce the risk of a life-threatening complication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to a high Fowler's position.

Cevap

Elevate the head of the bed to a high Fowler's position.
The client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency characterized by uncontrolled hypertension in individuals with a spinal cord injury at or above T6. The absolute first action is to elevate the head of the bed to a sitting or high Fowler's position. This utilizes gravity to pool blood in the lower extremities, inducing orthostatic hypotension and immediately lowering the blood pressure, which significantly reduces the imminent risk of a hemorrhagic stroke.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation against the client's history.
The client with a T4 spinal cord injury is exhibiting classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia, characterized by a severe headache, diaphoresis above the injury level, and significant hypertension.
Identifying the syndrome is necessary to anticipate life-threatening risks, such as a cerebrovascular accident.
2
Determine the immediate priority action to mitigate the physiological risk.
The most urgent physiological need is to lower the client's dangerously high blood pressure using orthostatic principles.
Sitting the client upright induces orthostatic hypotension, safely and immediately reducing blood pressure to mitigate the risk of a stroke while the underlying cause is being investigated.

Anahtar Kavram

Autonomic Dysreflexia Priority Interventions
Soru 1873Soru →

A healthcare provider orders a stat intravenous bolus of phenytoin 400 mg for a hospitalized client experiencing seizure activity. The client's only current venous access is a 20-gauge peripheral catheter through which 5% dextrose in water (D5W) is actively infusing at 100 mL/hr. Which of the following actions represents the safest method for the nurse to administer this medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Flush the peripheral IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin over at least 8 minutes, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

Flush the peripheral IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin over at least 8 minutes, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.
The correct action ensures both chemical compatibility and physiological safety. Phenytoin is highly alkaline and precipitates in dextrose; therefore, the IV line must be cleared with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after the push. Additionally, the maximum safe rate for IV phenytoin in adults is 50 mg/min to prevent cardiovascular toxicity. Calculating the rate for a 400 mg dose (400÷50=8400 \div 50 = 8) confirms that an administration time of at least 8 minutes is required.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify medication incompatibilities based on the current continuous infusion.
Recognize that phenytoin precipitates when mixed with dextrose solutions (D5W), requiring a normal saline flush to clear the line.
To prevent crystal formation in the intravenous line, which could cause a life-threatening embolism or occlude the catheter.
2
Determine the safe intravenous administration rate for the prescribed dosage.
Calculate that a 400 mg dose at a maximum rate of 50 mg/min requires at least 8 minutes (400÷50=8400 \div 50 = 8).
To prevent severe cardiovascular adverse effects, such as profound hypotension and arrhythmias, which are associated with rapid phenytoin administration.
3
Formulate the procedural administration plan.
Select the method that flushes out the incompatible fluid with normal saline, delivers the medication slowly at the calculated safe rate, and flushes again before restarting the primary fluid.
To ensure complete, safe delivery of the prescribed dose without compromising the IV access or patient hemodynamics.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe intravenous administration of phenytoin requires strict adherence to rate limits (maximum 50 mg/min) and flushing with 0.9% sodium chloride due to severe incompatibility with dextrose solutions.
Soru 1874Soru →

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is lethargic and exhibiting deep, rapid Kussmaul respirations. The initial capillary blood glucose is 650650 mg/dL (36.136.1 mmol/L). The healthcare provider has entered multiple collaborative prescriptions.

Arrange the following collaborative and nursing interventions in the correct chronological order of implementation for this client. (Place the first priority action at the top and the final action at the bottom.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence begins with fluid resuscitation, followed by verifying the potassium level, initiating continuous IV regular insulin, adding 5% dextrose when glucose drops below 250 mg/dL, and finally transitioning to subcutaneous insulin.
The precise sequencing of interventions in DKA is critical to prevent fatal complications. Fluid resuscitation must occur first to reverse hypovolemic shock. Potassium levels must be verified next because insulin therapy causes a rapid intracellular shift of potassium, risking lethal dysrhythmias. Once potassium is confirmed safe, IV regular insulin is initiated to halt ketogenesis. As glucose levels fall to approximately 250250 mg/dL, dextrose is added to the IV fluids to prevent hypoglycemia. Finally, once ketoacidosis has fully resolved, the client is transitioned to subcutaneous insulin.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prioritize fluid resuscitation
Intravenous access is established and 0.9% sodium chloride is rapidly infused.
Clients with DKA experience profound osmotic diuresis, leading to severe hypovolemia. Restoring intravascular volume is the absolute first priority to maintain perfusion to vital organs.
2
Verify serum potassium
A STAT potassium level is obtained.
Insulin administration forces potassium back into the cells. If the client is already hypokalemic, insulin can trigger life-threatening dysrhythmias. Potassium must be known before insulin is started.
3
Administer regular insulin IV
A continuous regular insulin infusion is started.
Insulin is required to stop lipolysis, halt ketone production, and slowly lower the blood glucose levels.
4
Prevent hypoglycemia
5% dextrose is added to the IV fluids.
When blood glucose reaches approximately 250250 mg/dL, dextrose is added to prevent hypoglycemia and cerebral edema, allowing the insulin drip to continue until the anion gap closes.
5
Transition to maintenance therapy
Subcutaneous insulin is initiated.
Once the acidosis resolves and the client can eat, subcutaneous insulin is administered. The IV insulin is typically overlapped with the first subcutaneous dose for 1 to 2 hours.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) Management
Soru 1875Soru →

An intensive care nurse is managing a male patient diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The patient's body weight is recorded as 198 lb198 \text{ lb}. The medical team orders an intravenous infusion of dopamine at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} to support cardiac output. The available medication from the pharmacy is a premixed bag containing 400 mg400 \text{ mg} of dopamine dissolved in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W).

Determine the appropriate infusion pump setting in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} to deliver the prescribed dose. Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 16.9

Cevap

16.9
To safely program the infusion pump, the nurse must systematically convert the patient's weight to kilograms, find the total dose required per minute, convert that value to milligrams per hour, and finally divide it by the concentration of the dopamine bag (mg/mL). This mathematically yields the exact fluid volume required per hour.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms.
198 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=90 kg198 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 \text{ lb/kg} = 90 \text{ kg}
Weight-based critical care drug dosing requires the patient's weight to be expressed in metric units (kilograms).
2
Calculate the total required dose per minute.
5 mcg/kg/min×90 kg=450 mcg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 450 \text{ mcg/min}
This establishes the exact amount of medication the patient must receive every minute based on their specific body mass.
3
Convert the per-minute dose in micrograms to an hourly dose in milligrams.
450 mcg/min×60 min/hr=27,000 mcg/hr450 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 27,000 \text{ mcg/hr}. Then, 27,000 mcg÷1,000 mcg/mg=27 mg/hr27,000 \text{ mcg} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 27 \text{ mg/hr}
Since the infusion pump is programmed in mL/hr and the drug concentration is usually calculated in mg/mL, unifying these units simplifies the final calculation step.
4
Determine the concentration of the available medication bag.
400 mg÷250 mL=1.6 mg/mL400 \text{ mg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 1.6 \text{ mg/mL}
This identifies how many milligrams of dopamine are present in a single milliliter of the IV fluid.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate and round to the nearest tenth.
27 mg/hr÷1.6 mg/mL=16.875 mL/hr27 \text{ mg/hr} \div 1.6 \text{ mg/mL} = 16.875 \text{ mL/hr}. Rounded to the nearest tenth, this yields 16.9 mL/hr16.9 \text{ mL/hr}.
Dividing the total required hourly dose by the fluid concentration provides the volume that the infusion pump must deliver per hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-Based Continuous IV Medication Calculations
Soru 1876Soru →

A nurse enters a client's room and observes that the client's central venous catheter tubing has disconnected from the hub. The client is gasping for air, appears cyanotic, and reports severe, sudden-onset chest pain. Arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed to reduce the risk of cardiopulmonary collapse.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to clamp the catheter, position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, administer oxygen, activate the rapid response team, and obtain vital signs.
In the event of a disconnected central venous catheter leading to a suspected air embolism, the immediate priority is to stop further air entry by clamping the line. The next critical step is positioning the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position to trap the air bubble in the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the pulmonary circulation. Oxygen therapy is then applied to address hypoxemia and help shrink the air embolus through nitrogen washout. Once these rapid, independent, life-saving measures are implemented, help is summoned, and baseline parameters are established to guide further medical management.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the complication as a suspected air embolism and clamp the catheter.
Further entrainment of air into the central venous circulation is stopped.
Air entering the central venous system can travel rapidly to the heart. Stopping the source is the most critical first step.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
The air embolus is trapped in the apex of the right ventricle.
This position prevents the air from migrating into the pulmonary artery, which would obstruct pulmonary blood flow and cause right-sided heart failure.
3
Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Hypoxemia is treated and nitrogen washout is promoted.
High-concentration oxygen creates a gradient that accelerates the absorption of the nitrogen component of the air embolus.
4
Activate the rapid response team.
Advanced medical support is summoned to the bedside.
The client requires urgent medical evaluation and possible intensive care management for the air embolism.
5
Obtain a full set of vital signs and prepare for possible resuscitation.
The client's hemodynamic stability is established.
Continuous monitoring dictates the need for further interventions, such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation or inotropic support, if the client decompensates.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Suspected Air Embolism in Central Venous Catheters
Soru 1877Soru →

A nurse is closely monitoring a client who sustained a severe traumatic brain injury. The nurse observes neurological deterioration and suspects the onset of Cushing's triad as a result of elevated intracranial pressure. Which of the following physiological assessment findings represent this critical syndrome? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure; A significant decrease in heart rate (bradycardia); Irregular, unpredictable breathing patterns

Cevap

The clinical findings that represent Cushing's triad are systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, a significant decrease in heart rate (bradycardia), and irregular, unpredictable breathing patterns.
Cushing's triad is a late and life-threatening physiological response to significantly increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that causes brainstem compression. The classic presentation includes three distinct signs: systolic hypertension accompanied by a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respiratory patterns (such as Cheyne-Stokes respirations or agonal breathing). These occur due to the body's attempt to force blood into the hypoxic brain, followed by baroreceptor-mediated parasympathetic stimulation affecting the heart rate, and direct mechanical compression of the brainstem's respiratory centers.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the client's risk factors.
The client has a traumatic brain injury and is suspected of developing Cushing's triad due to severely increased intracranial pressure.
Identifying the underlying pathophysiology is the first step in anticipating the correct clinical manifestations.
2
Recall the distinct physiological components of Cushing's triad.
The triad consists of three classic signs: severe systolic hypertension with a widened pulse pressure, profound bradycardia, and irregular respiratory patterns.
This triad is a late, life-threatening neurological response indicating brainstem herniation and compression.
3
Evaluate the given options against the components of the triad to differentiate them from other critical states.
The correct options accurately match the triad, while the incorrect options represent signs of systemic shock or primary metabolic imbalances.
It is essential to distinguish between the cardiovascular signs of increased intracranial pressure and those of shock to prioritize appropriate interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Cushing's triad is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure characterized by severe hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations.
Soru 1878Soru →

A client is receiving continuous nasogastric suctioning for a mechanical bowel obstruction. On the third day of treatment, the client reports numbness around the mouth and tingling in the extremities. Upon further assessment, the nurse notes a positive Chvostek sign. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) values correlate most accurately with this clinical presentation?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: pH 7.52, PaCO2 46 mm Hg, HCO3- 34 mEq/L

Cevap

The ABG values showing pH 7.52, PaCO2 46 mm Hg, and HCO3- 34 mEq/L represent partially compensated metabolic alkalosis, which is the expected consequence of continuous gastric suction.
The correct ABG values demonstrate metabolic alkalosis (pH 7.52, HCO3- 34 mEq/L). Continuous nasogastric suction removes hydrochloric acid from the stomach, leading to a surplus of bicarbonate in the blood. Alkalosis causes an increase in calcium binding to plasma proteins, resulting in a decrease in ionized calcium. This secondary hypocalcemia manifests as neuromuscular excitability, including numbness, tingling, and a positive Chvostek sign.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical mechanism of continuous nasogastric suctioning.
Identify that stomach fluid is highly acidic (rich in hydrochloric acid). Continuous removal leads to a significant loss of body acid.
Understanding the source of fluid loss determines the primary acid-base disturbance.
2
Determine the resulting primary acid-base imbalance.
Loss of acid from the upper GI tract causes a primary metabolic alkalosis, characterized by an elevated pH (> 7.45) and an elevated HCO3- (> 26 mEq/L).
Metabolic alkalosis is confirmed when both pH and bicarbonate levels are above normal parameters.
3
Correlate the physical assessment findings (numbness, tingling, positive Chvostek sign).
Recognize these as classic signs of hypocalcemia.
In an alkalotic state, hydrogen ions detach from albumin to help buffer the blood, which allows more calcium to bind to the empty spaces on the albumin. This decreases free ionized calcium levels, causing hypocalcemia.
4
Select the ABG profile that matches metabolic alkalosis.
Select the option with pH 7.52 (alkalemia) and HCO3- 34 mEq/L (metabolic source), with a slight increase in PaCO2 indicating partial respiratory compensation.
This is the only laboratory profile that physiologically aligns with both the intervention (suctioning) and the resulting clinical signs.

Anahtar Kavram

Metabolic alkalosis and secondary hypocalcemia related to gastric acid loss.
Soru 1879Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a 58-year-old client who underwent a percutaneous left renal biopsy 44 hours ago. The client is increasingly difficult to arouse. Current vital signs reveal a heart rate of 122 beats/min122 \text{ beats/min}, blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg88/54 \text{ mm Hg}, and respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min24 \text{ breaths/min}. The client's abdomen appears taut and distended. Recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results on room air demonstrate a pH\text{pH} of 7.287.28, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 32 mm Hg32 \text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- of 15 mEq/L15 \text{ mEq/L}. Which nursing action is the highest priority to reduce the client's risk of further physiological decompensation?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Activate the rapid response team and prepare for immediate isotonic intravenous fluid resuscitation.

Cevap

The highest priority action is to activate the rapid response team and prepare for immediate isotonic intravenous fluid resuscitation.
The client's tachycardia, hypotension, lethargy, and distended abdomen following a renal biopsy strongly indicate retroperitoneal or intra-abdominal hemorrhage. The arterial blood gas values reflect partially compensated metabolic acidosis, a consequence of lactic acid accumulation from poor tissue perfusion (shock). The most urgent priority is to stabilize the client's hemodynamic status by activating the rapid response team and restoring intravascular volume with isotonic fluids.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The client has tachycardia, hypotension, lethargy, and a taut, distended abdomen.
These are classic signs of internal hemorrhage and impending hypovolemic shock, which is a major complication following a percutaneous renal biopsy.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical picture.
The pH\text{pH} of 7.287.28 indicates acidosis, and the low HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- of 15 mEq/L15 \text{ mEq/L} confirms it is a primary metabolic acidosis. The slightly low PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 32 mm Hg32 \text{ mm Hg} represents partial respiratory compensation.
Metabolic acidosis in this scenario is driven by lactic acid accumulation secondary to poor tissue perfusion from shock.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the physiological data.
Hemodynamic stabilization through volume resuscitation is required immediately.
Without adequate circulating volume, tissue perfusion will continue to decline, leading to irreversible shock and cardiopulmonary arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure hemorrhage recognition and hypovolemic shock management
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1880Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with hypovolemic shock who is receiving a rapid, continuous intravenous infusion of Lactated Ringer's solution through a single large-bore peripheral catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which of the following is the safest nursing action for administering the blood product?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a second intravenous access site to administer the packed red blood cells with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

Establish a second intravenous access site to administer the packed red blood cells with 0.9% sodium chloride.
The correct answer emphasizes that packed red blood cells can only be administered with 0.9% sodium chloride. Because the client is in hypovolemic shock, continuous volume resuscitation with the prescribed Lactated Ringer's is also critical. Therefore, establishing a second large-bore intravenous access site allows both the life-saving blood product and the continuous fluid replacement to infuse simultaneously and safely without risk of incompatibility.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary medical emergency and the prescribed therapies.
The client is in hypovolemic shock, requiring continuous Lactated Ringer's for volume expansion and packed red blood cells for oxygen-carrying capacity.
Understanding the clinical context is essential for prioritizing interventions.
2
Evaluate the physical compatibility of the prescribed intravenous therapies.
Packed red blood cells are incompatible with Lactated Ringer's due to its calcium content, and they are also incompatible with dextrose solutions.
Administering blood with incompatible solutions leads to dangerous clotting or hemolysis.
3
Determine the safest method to deliver all necessary therapies without delay.
Establishing a second intravenous access line allows both the Lactated Ringer's and the packed red blood cells (primed with 0.9% sodium chloride) to infuse concurrently.
This prevents adverse infusion reactions while aggressively treating the hypovolemic shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Compatibility and Blood Administration Safety
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 94 | Examkin