Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1901Soru →

A healthcare provider prescribes moving a client with left-sided lower extremity weakness out of bed for the first time. In what sequence should the nurse perform the following actions to safely transfer the client from the bed to a wheelchair? (Arrange the items in the correct chronological order, from first to last.)

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence ensures environmental safety is established first (positioning and locking), followed by physiological safety (assessing for dizziness), mechanical safety (gait belt), and finally the physical transfer using the client's strong side.
Safe transfer protocols dictate preparing the environment first by optimizing placement and locking equipment. Next, the nurse must ensure the client is physiologically stable by addressing orthostatic hypotension. Then, the nurse applies safety equipment (gait belt) before executing the physical weight-bearing and pivot maneuver toward the client's unaffected side.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the wheelchair on the client's strong (right) side.
The wheelchair is properly aligned for a safe transfer.
Transferring toward the strong side allows the client to use their unaffected leg to bear weight and pivot, reducing the risk of collapse.
2
Lock the brakes on the bed and wheelchair.
The transfer surfaces are immobilized.
Unsecured equipment can roll away during the weight shift, leading to a fall.
3
Assist to a sitting position and allow legs to dangle while checking for dizziness.
The client adapts to the upright position.
This prevents orthostatic hypotension, a common risk for clients who have been on bed rest.
4
Apply a gait belt.
The nurse has a safe grasping point.
A gait belt lowers the risk of injury to both the nurse and the client by providing a mechanical advantage at the client's center of gravity.
5
Perform the stand-and-pivot maneuver.
The client is successfully seated in the wheelchair.
With all safety measures in place, the client uses their strong right leg to pivot into the chair safely.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Client Transfers and Mobility
Soru 1902Soru →

A 52-year-old client is recovering in the intensive care unit four hours after a right supratentorial craniotomy. The client is lethargic but responds appropriately to verbal commands. Recent assessment reveals a blood pressure of 138/82 mm Hg, an apical pulse of 84 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute. Which intervention should the nurse implement to minimize the risk of increased intracranial pressure?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees while maintaining the neck in a neutral, midline alignment

Cevap

Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees while maintaining the neck in a neutral, midline alignment
Maintaining the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle with the neck in a neutral, midline position is a critical intervention following intracranial surgery. This specific alignment promotes optimal venous drainage from the brain through the jugular veins, preventing blood from pooling in the cranial vault and thereby minimizing the risk of increased intracranial pressure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and identify the primary physiological risk.
The client has recently undergone a supratentorial craniotomy, making them highly vulnerable to cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
Identifying the primary risk dictates the choice of preventative nursing interventions to ensure patient safety.
2
Evaluate the physiological impact of positioning on cerebral hemodynamics.
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees with a neutral neck alignment facilitates venous return from the brain via the jugular veins.
Proper venous outflow prevents blood pooling in the cranial vault, effectively reducing intracranial pressure and minimizing the risk of secondary brain injury.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of Increased Intracranial Pressure
Soru 1903Soru →

A registered nurse and a nursing assistant are preparing to provide morning hygiene care and reposition an 82-year-old client who underwent a right posterior total hip arthroplasty the previous day. Which directive from the nurse is appropriate for safely managing this client's comfort and mobility during the bath?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Keep a specialized wedge securely between the client's thighs while rolling them onto their left side.

Cevap

The correct action is to keep a specialized wedge securely between the client's thighs while rolling them onto their left side.
Following a posterior total hip arthroplasty, maintaining hip abduction is critical to prevent the newly implanted joint from popping out of the socket. Using an abduction wedge between the client's legs while turning them on their side ensures the operative leg does not cross the midline (adduct), allowing for safe hygiene care and positioning.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure and specific post-operative restrictions.
The client had a posterior total hip arthroplasty, which requires preventing hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction, and internal rotation.
Understanding structural restrictions dictates safe mobility and hygiene practices.
2
Evaluate the nursing assistant's scope of practice regarding the planned interventions.
Nursing assistants can safely perform basic hygiene and positioning tasks but cannot independently assess pain or clinical status.
Safe delegation ensures that only appropriate personnel handle specific, non-judgment-based tasks.
3
Select the intervention that promotes hygiene and comfort while strictly adhering to surgical precautions and delegation rules.
Instructing the assistant to use an abduction wedge during turning allows for safely bathing the back and buttocks without risking hip dislocation.
This directly addresses basic care needs while maintaining the client's physiological integrity.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe client positioning, mobility, and delegation post-arthroplasty
Soru 1904Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client who underwent a lumbar puncture two hours ago. The client is frail, has a history of osteoarthritis, and is experiencing episodes of urinary incontinence. Which nursing actions are appropriate to promote basic care and comfort while ensuring client safety? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Place a fracture bedpan under the client for elimination needs to minimize spinal flexion.; Encourage the intake of oral fluids by offering a cup with a straw while the client remains flat.; Apply a moisture barrier ointment to the perineal area after cleansing following an incontinence episode.

Cevap

The correct interventions are to place a fracture bedpan under the client, encourage fluids using a straw, and apply a moisture barrier ointment to the perineal area.
The correct options involve interventions that promote basic care while strictly adhering to post-procedure safety constraints. A fracture bedpan allows for elimination without requiring the client to lift their hips significantly, which minimizes spinal flexion. Offering fluids through a straw maintains hydration and replaces cerebrospinal fluid without breaking the flat-bedrest requirement. Applying a moisture barrier ointment protects the frail skin from breakdown due to urinary incontinence.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current status and recent procedure.
The client is a frail older adult, 2 hours post-lumbar puncture, experiencing urinary incontinence.
Identifying these factors highlights the primary constraints: a strict flat bedrest requirement, risk of skin breakdown, and risk for post-procedure complications.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety and appropriateness.
Interventions must support nutrition, elimination, and hygiene without violating the flat bedrest prescription or scope of practice.
Basic care must be adapted to fit within medical and procedural constraints.
3
Select the actions that promote comfort and hygiene safely.
Using a fracture pan, offering fluids via a straw, and applying barrier cream are selected as the appropriate actions.
These specific actions maintain the required supine position and protect skin integrity without causing harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Adapting Interventions to Procedural Constraints
Soru 1905Soru →

A hospitalized adult weighing 176 lb176\text{ lb} experiences a prolonged seizure. The healthcare provider orders an intravenous loading dose of phenytoin at 15 mg/kg15\text{ mg/kg}. The client currently has a single peripheral intravenous line continuously infusing 5%5\% dextrose in half-normal saline at 75 mL/hr75\text{ mL/hr}. Given that the maximum safe administration rate for intravenous phenytoin is 50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min}, which of the following describes the most appropriate method to administer this medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the primary infusion, flush the line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer 1,200 mg1,200\text{ mg} of phenytoin over at least 24 minutes24\text{ minutes}, and flush again with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.

Cevap

The nurse must stop the dextrose infusion, flush the line with normal saline (0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride), administer the correct dose of 1,200 mg1,200\text{ mg} over a minimum of 24 minutes24\text{ minutes}, and follow with another normal saline flush.
The correct action demonstrates accurate synthesis of three critical nursing concepts: dosage calculation, IV fluid compatibility, and safe administration rates. First, the client weighs 80 kg80\text{ kg} (176 lb÷2.2176\text{ lb} \div 2.2), which makes the correct loading dose 1,200 mg1,200\text{ mg} (80 kg×15 mg/kg80\text{ kg} \times 15\text{ mg/kg}). Second, because the maximum rate is 50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min}, dividing the total dose (1,200 mg1,200\text{ mg}) by the maximum rate (50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min}) confirms the medication must be infused over an absolute minimum of 24 minutes24\text{ minutes}. Finally, because phenytoin precipitates in dextrose, the primary dextrose infusion must be paused, and the line must be thoroughly flushed with compatible 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after the dose is given.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=80 kg176\text{ lb} \div 2.2\text{ lb/kg} = 80\text{ kg}.
Phenytoin dosing is strictly weight-based using the metric system.
2
Calculate the total required milligram dose of the medication.
80 kg×15 mg/kg=1,200 mg80\text{ kg} \times 15\text{ mg/kg} = 1,200\text{ mg}.
To ensure the client receives the exact prescribed therapeutic loading dose.
3
Calculate the absolute minimum safe infusion time.
1,200 mg÷50 mg/min=24 minutes1,200\text{ mg} \div 50\text{ mg/min} = 24\text{ minutes}.
Intravenous phenytoin must never be administered faster than 50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min} in adults to prevent severe cardiovascular toxicity, such as hypotension and fatal arrhythmias.
4
Determine intravenous fluid compatibility and correct the administration sequence.
Stop the continuous dextrose infusion and use 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride to clear the line before and after medication delivery.
Phenytoin immediately precipitates when mixed with dextrose-containing solutions, requiring a compatible normal saline flush to prevent line occlusion or embolism.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Parenteral Administration of High-Risk Anticonvulsants
Soru 1906Soru →

A nurse is changing the needleless connector caps on a client's central venous catheter. The client suddenly gasps, becomes extremely tachycardic, and reports a feeling of impending doom. The client's blood pressure drops to 82/48 mm Hg. Suspecting a central line-associated air embolism, arrange the following nursing actions in the sequence they should be performed. All options must be used.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first clamp the catheter, then place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position, followed by administering 100% oxygen, activating the rapid response team, and finally initiating continuous vital sign monitoring.
An air embolism is a life-threatening emergency characterized by the sudden entry of air into the venous system, causing cardiovascular collapse. The nurse must prioritize interventions based on immediate survival. First, the source of air must be stopped by clamping the catheter. Second, the client must be placed in Durant's maneuver (left lateral Trendelenburg) to keep the air trapped in the right ventricular apex, preventing pulmonary artery occlusion. Third, providing 100% oxygen combats hypoxia and helps shrink the air bubble by washing out nitrogen. After these immediate life-saving actions are complete, the nurse activates the rapid response team and continuously monitors the client's hemodynamic status.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the catheter.
Stops air entrainment into the venous system.
Removing the ongoing cause of the emergency is the absolute first clinical priority.
2
Place in left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air bubble in the heart.
Mechanically prevents the air from obstructing the right ventricular outflow tract, which would cause immediate cardiac arrest.
3
Administer 100% oxygen.
Corrects hypoxia and shrinks the bubble.
Maximizes tissue oxygenation and promotes nitrogen reabsorption from the air embolus into the blood.
4
Activate rapid response team.
Brings advanced medical help.
The client requires emergency medical evaluation, potential intubation, and advanced interventions.
5
Monitor vital signs continuously.
Evaluates clinical status.
Establishes a baseline for the rapid response team and monitors for further hemodynamic decompensation.

Anahtar Kavram

Air Embolism Emergency Management
Soru 1907Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client admitted with a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client has become increasingly lethargic over the last hour, is difficult to arouse, and exhibits a shallow respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results is most consistent with this client's current clinical presentation?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: pH 7.25, PaCO2 78 mm Hg, HCO3 34 mEq/L, PaO2 52 mm Hg

Cevap

The ABG result showing pH 7.25, PaCO2 78 mm Hg, HCO3 34 mEq/L, and PaO2 52 mm Hg.
The client is hypoventilating (10 breaths/min) and exhibiting signs of CO2 narcosis (lethargy). This acute CO2 retention causes a sharp decrease in pH (acidosis). Because the client has COPD, they already have a baseline of chronically elevated HCO3 to compensate for chronically high CO2. The correct ABG demonstrates this acute uncompensated drop in pH (7.25) superimposed on chronic CO2 retention (78 mm Hg) and elevated bicarbonate (34 mEq/L).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
Lethargy, difficulty to arouse, and a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min indicate severe hypoventilation and carbon dioxide narcosis.
Identifying the physiological state is required to predict the acid-base imbalance.
2
Determine the expected primary acid-base disorder.
Hypoventilation leads to acute retention of CO2, causing respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2).
Carbon dioxide acts as an acid in the body; retention directly lowers blood pH.
3
Evaluate the underlying chronic condition (COPD).
Clients with severe COPD typically have chronically elevated PaCO2 and a compensatory high HCO3. An acute exacerbation causes the PaCO2 to spike further, dropping the pH.
Understanding baseline ABG alterations in COPD helps differentiate acute decompensation from chronic stability.
4
Select the ABG matching acute respiratory acidosis on top of chronic compensation.
The result with a low pH (7.25), severely elevated PaCO2 (78 mm Hg), and elevated HCO3 (34 mEq/L) matches this profile.
This is the only option showing an acute acidotic state driven by respiratory failure in a patient with a history of COPD.

Anahtar Kavram

In a client with COPD, acute hypoventilation leads to acute respiratory acidosis and CO2 narcosis, manifested by a severe drop in pH and a significant spike in PaCO2 above their already elevated baseline.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1908Soru →

An adult client is admitted with a severe systemic fungal infection and has a single peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. The client is currently receiving a continuous hydration infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride at 100 mL/hr. The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled intravenous dose of amphotericin B. Which action must the nurse take to administer this medication safely?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Flush the IV line with 5% dextrose in water (D5W) before and after the medication infusion.

Cevap

The nurse must flush the intravenous line with 5% dextrose in water (D5W) before and after administering the medication.
Amphotericin B is incompatible with 0.9% sodium chloride and will form a precipitate if the two mix. To ensure safe administration through a single lumen, the nurse must clear the tubing of all saline by flushing it with 5% dextrose in water (D5W)—which is chemically compatible with the medication—both before and after the infusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary continuous infusion fluid.
The client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride.
Understanding the current intravenous environment is critical before introducing any new pharmacological agents.
2
Determine the compatibility of the prescribed medication with the primary fluid.
Amphotericin B is strictly incompatible with 0.9% sodium chloride and all other electrolyte-containing solutions.
Mixing incompatible fluids leads to chemical reactions, such as precipitation, which can cause an embolism or catheter occlusion.
3
Select the appropriate intervention to ensure safe administration through a single lumen.
The nurse must flush the line with 5% dextrose in water (D5W) to clear the saline prior to and following the medication infusion.
D5W is compatible with amphotericin B and safely separates the medication from the saline.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous medication compatibility and safe parenteral administration principles.
Soru 1909Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure who suddenly develops severe dyspnea, a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min, and pink, frothy sputum. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence of priority.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct priority sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then apply oxygen, obtain vital signs, administer the intravenous diuretic, and finally monitor hourly urine output.
In cases of rapid respiratory decompensation such as acute pulmonary edema, nursing prioritization follows the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework. Immediate physical interventions that support breathing (positioning and oxygen) take absolute priority. Once the airway and breathing are supported, the nurse must assess the client's hemodynamic baseline (circulation) before administering medications that drastically alter fluid volume. Evaluation of the pharmacological intervention follows as the final step.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Address the immediate airway and breathing mechanics.
Elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position.
This independent action immediately decreases venous return and allows maximum thoracic expansion to ease the work of breathing.
2
Correct the life-threatening hypoxia.
Apply high-flow supplemental oxygen.
The client has pink, frothy sputum indicating alveolar fluid; high-flow oxygen is required to immediately improve gas exchange.
3
Assess baseline hemodynamic stability.
Obtain a complete set of vital signs.
The nurse must know the client's blood pressure and heart rate before giving medications that alter fluid volume and vascular resistance.
4
Implement prescribed pharmacological therapy.
Administer the intravenous rapid-acting loop diuretic.
The diuretic will pull fluid from the pulmonary circulation, treating the underlying cause of the acute decompensation.
5
Evaluate the response to treatment.
Initiate strict measurement of hourly urine output.
Strict intake and output monitoring is necessary to measure the efficacy of the loop diuretic and ongoing fluid status.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of nursing interventions for acute pulmonary edema.
Soru 1910Soru →

A young adult is admitted to the neurocritical care unit following a motor vehicle collision that caused a severe traumatic brain injury. The client's current intracranial pressure reading is elevated. Which physical arrangement of the client's body is most appropriate to promote cerebral venous drainage and prevent further neurological decline?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintaining the neck in a straight, forward-facing alignment while raising the torso to a thirty-degree angle

Cevap

Maintaining the neck in a straight, forward-facing alignment while raising the torso to a thirty-degree angle
The intervention of maintaining the neck in a straight, forward-facing alignment while raising the torso to a thirty-degree angle is correct because it ensures that the jugular veins remain open and unkinked. The thirty-degree elevation utilizes gravity to promote the drainage of venous blood and cerebrospinal fluid from the cranial vault, effectively lowering intracranial pressure while sustaining adequate cerebral perfusion pressure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical condition
The client has a traumatic brain injury with an elevated intracranial pressure (ICP).
Identifying the primary pathophysiology is necessary to determine which nursing interventions will prevent further harm.
2
Evaluate the physiological impact of positioning on ICP
Positions that impede venous return from the head (such as neck rotation or hip flexion) will increase ICP. Positions that use gravity to drain venous blood (like raising the torso) will decrease ICP.
Cerebral blood volume must be managed by ensuring unimpeded outflow through the jugular veins.
3
Select the correct positioning strategy
Raising the torso to a thirty-degree angle and keeping the neck in a neutral axis is the optimal intervention.
This specific combination maximizes venous outflow and minimizes intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressure.

Anahtar Kavram

Proper positioning to manage increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)
Soru 1911Soru →

A nurse is admitting a client who has just returned to the unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The client is currently alert and oriented, with stable vital signs. To reduce the risk of post-procedure complications, which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the client in a right lateral decubitus position with a small folded towel under the puncture site.

Cevap

The nurse should position the client in a right lateral decubitus position with a small folded towel under the puncture site.
The liver is a highly vascular organ located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the most significant and immediate risk is hemorrhage. By placing the client in a right lateral decubitus position (on their right side) and inserting a small towel under the puncture site, the client's own body weight applies direct, sustained pressure to the liver capsule against the chest wall. This mechanical compression promotes hemostasis and effectively reduces the risk of internal bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical situation.
The client has just undergone a percutaneous liver biopsy, an invasive procedure involving a highly vascular organ.
Understanding the nature of the procedure identifies the potential physiological risks.
2
Identify the primary risk associated with the procedure.
The greatest immediate post-procedure risk is internal hemorrhage due to the liver's rich blood supply.
Anticipating complications is fundamental to the reduction of risk potential.
3
Determine the priority intervention to mitigate this specific risk.
Applying direct, continuous pressure to the biopsy site on the right side of the body promotes hemostasis.
Mechanical compression prevents active bleeding from the puncture tract.
4
Select the corresponding appropriate nursing action.
Positioning the client on their right side (right lateral decubitus) utilizes their own body weight to maintain pressure on the liver capsule.
This positioning is the standard of care to safely minimize post-biopsy bleeding.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Procedure Risk Mitigation: Liver Biopsy Positioning
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1912Soru →

A client is brought to the emergency department after intentionally ingesting a toxic amount of acetylsalicylic acid. The client exhibits tachypnea and diaphoresis. The initial arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH=7.53pH = 7.53, PaCO2=26 mm HgPaCO_2 = 26 \text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−=22 mEq/LHCO_3^- = 22 \text{ mEq/L}. Based on these findings, which pathophysiological mechanism is the primary cause of this specific acid-base disturbance?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Direct stimulation of the medullary respiratory center

Cevap

The primary cause of the current acid-base disturbance is direct stimulation of the medullary respiratory center.
The provided ABG results reveal an elevated pH (alkalosis) and a decreased PaCO2 (respiratory origin) with a normal HCO3-. This indicates acute respiratory alkalosis. In the early phases of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) overdose, the salicylate acts directly on the medulla oblongata, heavily stimulating the respiratory center. This leads to marked tachypnea and hyperventilation, blowing off carbon dioxide and causing the specific laboratory findings seen in this client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pH value to determine the primary acid-base state.
The pH is 7.53, which is greater than the normal range of 7.35-7.45. This indicates alkalemia.
Identifying whether the client is in an acidotic or alkalotic state is the foundational step of ABG interpretation.
2
Evaluate the respiratory component (PaCO2) to identify the etiology.
The PaCO2 is 26 mm Hg, which is below the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg.
A low PaCO2 in the presence of alkalemia confirms a respiratory etiology. The client is exhaling excessive amounts of acidic carbon dioxide.
3
Evaluate the metabolic component (HCO3-) for compensation.
The HCO3- is 22 mEq/L, which is within the normal range of 22-26 mEq/L.
A normal bicarbonate level indicates that the kidneys have not yet initiated a compensatory response to the acute respiratory alkalosis.
4
Correlate the ABG interpretation (acute respiratory alkalosis) with the clinical scenario of acetylsalicylic acid ingestion.
Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) acts directly on the brainstem to increase respiratory drive, causing the hyperventilation responsible for these lab values.
Connecting laboratory data to the pathophysiological mechanisms of a toxic ingestion is required to determine the correct underlying cause.

Anahtar Kavram

Acid-Base Imbalances and Toxic Ingestions
Soru 1913Soru →

A client with a newly diagnosed pulmonary embolism requires a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin. The primary healthcare provider prescribes an initial infusion rate of 14 units/kg/hr14 \text{ units/kg/hr}. The client's current weight is documented as 187 lb187 \text{ lb}. The pharmacy supplies a sterile IV bag containing 25000 units25{}000 \text{ units} of heparin mixed in 500 mL500 \text{ mL} of 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride}. Based on this information, at what rate (in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}) should the infusion pump be set? (Round the final answer to the nearest tenth).

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 23.8

Cevap

The infusion pump should be set to 23.8 mL/hr23.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
To determine the correct rate for a weight-based IV infusion, a multi-step calculation is required. First, the weight must be converted to kilograms: 187 lb÷2.2=85 kg187 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 85 \text{ kg}. Next, the hourly unit requirement is calculated: 85 kg×14 units/kg/hr=1190 units/hr85 \text{ kg} \times 14 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 1190 \text{ units/hr}. Then, the concentration of the IV bag is determined: 25000 units÷500 mL=50 units/mL25{}000 \text{ units} \div 500 \text{ mL} = 50 \text{ units/mL}. Finally, dividing the hourly requirement by the concentration yields the infusion rate: 1190 units÷50 units/mL=23.8 mL/hr1190 \text{ units} \div 50 \text{ units/mL} = 23.8 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg).
187 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=85 kg187 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 \text{ lb/kg} = 85 \text{ kg}
The medication is prescribed based on weight in kilograms, so the weight must be accurately converted before calculating the dose.
2
Calculate the required hourly dose in units.
85 kg×14 units/kg/hr=1190 units/hr85 \text{ kg} \times 14 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 1190 \text{ units/hr}
Multiplying the client's weight in kg by the prescribed dose per kg determines the total amount of medication needed per hour.
3
Determine the concentration of the provided heparin solution.
25000 units÷500 mL=50 units/mL25{}000 \text{ units} \div 500 \text{ mL} = 50 \text{ units/mL}
Identifying how many units are in a single milliliter is necessary to determine the infusion volume rate.
4
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr.
1190 units/hr÷50 units/mL=23.8 mL/hr1190 \text{ units/hr} \div 50 \text{ units/mL} = 23.8 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the exact volume that must be infused over one hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-Based Intravenous Medication Calculations
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1914Soru →

A nurse is preparing a client with cirrhosis for a bedside paracentesis to relieve severe ascites. To reduce the risk of procedural complications and establish an accurate baseline for post-procedure evaluation, in what order should the nurse complete the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: Verify informed consent, instruct the client to empty their bladder, obtain baseline measurements, and finally position the client upright on the edge of the bed.
This sequence ensures legal safety, physical safety, accurate baseline data, and procedural readiness. Verifying consent is always the first administrative step. Emptying the bladder is the most critical physical safety step to prevent accidental puncture. Baseline measurements must be taken after the bladder is empty to ensure accuracy. Finally, positioning the client upright uses gravity to pool the fluid in the lower abdomen for safe removal.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Verify that the informed consent document has been signed and witnessed.
Administrative and legal prerequisites for the procedure are cleared.
Informed consent must always be verified before beginning any preparation for an invasive procedure.
2
Instruct the client to completely empty their urinary bladder.
The bladder decompresses and rests safely low within the pelvic cavity.
A full bladder extends upward into the abdominal cavity, which greatly increases the risk of accidental puncture by the paracentesis needle.
3
Obtain the client's baseline vital signs, weight, and abdominal girth.
Accurate pre-procedure clinical baselines are recorded without the confounding weight of urine.
Measurements must be taken after voiding so urine weight does not skew the data. These baselines are crucial for monitoring potential hypovolemia as fluid is removed.
4
Position the client sitting upright on the edge of the bed with feet supported.
The client is in the optimal anatomical position for the procedure.
The upright position allows gravity to pool the ascitic fluid in the lower abdomen, making needle insertion safer and fluid drainage more efficient.

Anahtar Kavram

When preparing a client for a paracentesis, the primary risk reduction strategy is ensuring the bladder is completely empty to prevent perforation. Accurate baseline measurements must follow voiding, and the client is then positioned upright to facilitate gravity drainage.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1915Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with a severe acute asthma exacerbation. Upon admission, the client was agitated with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min. Initial arterial blood gas (ABG) results demonstrated a pH of 7.52, a PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and a PaO2 of 72 mm Hg. Two hours later, the client appears lethargic, the respiratory rate has decreased to 14 breaths/min, and breath sounds are significantly diminished with absent wheezing. A repeat ABG reveals a pH of 7.37, a PaCO2 of 42 mm Hg, and a PaO2 of 64 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Cevap

The correct action is to prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.
The client is exhibiting signs of impending respiratory arrest. The transition from respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2 driven by hyperventilation) to a seemingly 'normal' PaCO2, combined with lethargy, a decreased respiratory rate, and a 'silent chest' (diminished breath sounds with absent wheezing), indicates severe respiratory muscle fatigue. The client can no longer maintain adequate ventilation, making immediate airway management and mechanical support the highest priority.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's initial presentation against the current presentation.
Initially, the client was hyperventilating (respiratory alkalosis). Currently, the client is lethargic with a decreased respiratory rate and absent wheezing (silent chest).
Tracking clinical trends is essential for recognizing sudden deterioration in acute respiratory conditions.
2
Interpret the physiological meaning of the repeat ABG results in the context of the clinical changes.
The PaCO2 has risen from 26 mm Hg to 42 mm Hg. In a tired asthmatic, a 'normal' PaCO2 indicates pseudonormalization; the client is no longer able to maintain the work of breathing necessary to overcome the airway resistance.
An isolated ABG value must always be interpreted alongside the clinical assessment to avoid diagnostic errors.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The client requires immediate artificial airway placement and mechanical ventilation.
The combination of lethargy, silent chest, and rising PaCO2 is a classic presentation of impending respiratory arrest, requiring emergency life support.

Anahtar Kavram

Impending respiratory failure and pseudonormalization of ABGs in severe asthma
Soru 1916Soru →

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with lethargy, deep and rapid respirations, and a blood glucose level of 580 mg/dL580\text{ mg/dL}. The healthcare provider diagnoses diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence of actions prioritizes the airway and breathing first, followed by establishing venous access, restoring vascular volume with isotonic saline, administering intravenous insulin, and finally adding dextrose when blood glucose reaches 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL}.
The correct sequence strictly follows the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and specific DKA protocols. Airway and breathing are always assessed first. IV access allows for both blood sampling and immediate intervention. Fluid resuscitation is the primary medical intervention to correct severe dehydration and hypovolemia before administering insulin. Regular insulin is then given to halt ketosis. Finally, dextrose is added when blood glucose drops to 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} to prevent hypoglycemia and cerebral edema.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prioritize Airway and Breathing
Assessing airway and oxygenation is completed first.
Basic life support principles dictate that airway and breathing (ABCs) take precedence over all other interventions.
2
Address Circulation and Diagnostics
IV access is obtained and baseline labs are drawn.
Circulation must be secured next to allow for life-saving interventions, and baseline electrolytes (especially potassium) must be known before initiating insulin therapy.
3
Restore Vascular Volume
An isotonic saline bolus is administered.
Severe dehydration is a hallmark of DKA. Rapid fluid resuscitation restores tissue perfusion and helps clear ketones.
4
Correct Hyperglycemia and Ketosis
IV regular insulin is started.
Insulin stops lipolysis and ketogenesis, directly treating the underlying cause of DKA.
5
Prevent Hypoglycemia
Dextrose is added to IV fluids when glucose drops to 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL}.
Rapid drops in blood glucose can cause fatal cerebral edema, so dextrose provides a buffer while insulin continues to clear ketones.

Anahtar Kavram

The priority management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) follows the ABCs, prioritizing fluid resuscitation before insulin therapy, and preventing complications like hypoglycemia.
Soru 1917Soru →

A triage nurse is evaluating a client who presents to the emergency department after 33 days of severe, continuous vomiting. The client reports an inability to keep any oral fluids down. Based on the client's presentation, which of the following clinical findings and laboratory results should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Arterial blood gas pH of 7.527.52 and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 3434 mEq/L; Serum potassium level of 2.82.8 mEq/L; Narrowing pulse pressure with resting tachycardia

Cevap

The anticipated findings are metabolic alkalosis (elevated pH and HCO3−HCO_3^-), hypokalemia (low potassium), and signs of hypovolemia (narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia).
Severe, continuous vomiting causes significant loss of gastric acid, leading to metabolic alkalosis, which is reflected by an elevated pH (7.527.52) and elevated bicarbonate (3434 mEq/L). Additionally, gastric fluid loss and secondary hyperaldosteronism from hypovolemia result in potassium depletion (hypokalemia). The profound fluid volume deficit decreases stroke volume, causing a compensatory resting tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure as the body attempts to maintain perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the physiological impact of severe vomiting.
Vomiting causes massive loss of fluid, potassium, and gastric acid.
Gastric secretions are highly acidic (rich in hydrogen ions) and contain significant amounts of potassium and chloride.
2
Determine the expected acid-base and electrolyte imbalances.
Loss of hydrogen ions leads to metabolic alkalosis. Potassium loss leads to hypokalemia (<3.5< 3.5 mEq/L).
The body loses acid directly. Furthermore, the resulting fluid volume deficit triggers aldosterone release, which causes the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete even more potassium.
3
Evaluate the expected hemodynamic and compensatory changes.
Fluid loss causes hypovolemia, resulting in weak pulses, tachycardia, and a narrowing pulse pressure. The respiratory system compensates for alkalosis by hypoventilating, not hyperventilating.
Hypovolemia decreases cardiac output, prompting sympathetic nervous system activation (tachycardia, vasoconstriction). Hypoventilation helps the body retain CO2CO_2 to lower the pH.

Anahtar Kavram

Physiological adaptation to severe fluid and acid loss (Metabolic alkalosis and hypovolemia)
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1918Soru →

An adult client who missed three consecutive hemodialysis treatments is admitted to the medical unit with profound fatigue and deep, rapid breathing. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis yields the following results: pH 7.257.25, PaCO 2_2 2929 mm Hg, HCO 3−_3^- 1414 mEq/L, and PaO 2_2 9292 mm Hg. Which of the following physiological mechanisms best explains this client's respiratory pattern?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The lungs are increasing ventilation to excrete carbon dioxide as a compensatory response to metabolic acidosis.

Cevap

The correct answer states that the lungs are increasing ventilation to excrete carbon dioxide as a compensatory response to metabolic acidosis.
The client's missed hemodialysis sessions have led to a buildup of metabolic acids, evident by the low pH (7.257.25) and low bicarbonate (1414 mEq/L), which signifies metabolic acidosis. The deep, rapid breathing (Kussmaul respirations) is the body's compensatory mechanism to excrete carbon dioxide (which acts as an acid in the body), thereby lowering the PaCO 2_2 to 2929 mm Hg in an attempt to normalize the blood pH.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and history.
Missing consecutive hemodialysis sessions leads to the retention of metabolic waste products and acids, causing metabolic acidosis. The deep, rapid breathing pattern represents Kussmaul respirations.
To identify the underlying pathophysiology causing the client's distress.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
A pH of 7.25 indicates acidemia. A low HCO3- of 14 mEq/L confirms the primary disorder is metabolic acidosis.
To accurately diagnose the primary acid-base imbalance based on objective data.
3
Evaluate the respiratory ABG values in the context of the clinical signs.
The PaCO2 is low (29 mm Hg), indicating the lungs are hyperventilating to blow off carbon dioxide (an acid) to compensate for the metabolic acidosis. The PaO2 is normal (92 mm Hg), ruling out hypoxia as the driver.
To link the physiological mechanism of Kussmaul respirations to the specific ABG findings.

Anahtar Kavram

Metabolic Acidosis and Respiratory Compensation
Soru 1919Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. The client suddenly reports the onset of a new, severe headache. The nurse reviews the most recent laboratory results:

Laboratory TestClient ResultReference / Control
aPTT120 secondsControl: 30 seconds
pH7.427.35 - 7.45
PaCO238 mmHg35 - 45 mmHg
PaO294 mmHg80 - 100 mmHg
HCO324 mEq/L22 - 26 mEq/L

Which of the following is the priority nursing action to reduce the client's risk for life-threatening complications?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the continuous heparin infusion immediately and perform a focused neurological assessment.

Cevap

The correct action is to stop the continuous heparin infusion immediately and perform a focused neurological assessment.
The client is exhibiting signs of a potential intracranial hemorrhage, a life-threatening complication of heparin toxicity. An aPTT of 120 seconds is significantly above the therapeutic range, placing the client at severe risk for spontaneous bleeding. The sudden, severe headache is a hallmark neurological symptom of an intracranial bleed. The absolute priority is to halt the anticoagulant infusion to prevent further hemorrhage and immediately assess the client's neurological status.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the aPTT result.
The aPTT of 120 seconds is supra-therapeutic (toxic), indicating a severe risk of spontaneous bleeding.
The therapeutic aPTT range for a client on a heparin infusion is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value (approximately 45-75 seconds).
2
Evaluate the clinical symptom.
A sudden, severe headache in a heavily anticoagulated client strongly suggests a potential intracranial hemorrhage.
Spontaneous bleeding can occur anywhere, but cerebral bleeding typically presents with acute neurological changes such as a severe headache.
3
Interpret the ABG results.
The ABG values (pH 7.42, PaCO2 38, PaO2 94, HCO3 24) are entirely normal.
This eliminates respiratory decompensation as the cause of the client's acute change, directing the focus back to the bleeding risk.
4
Determine the priority risk-reduction action.
Stop the heparin infusion immediately.
Removing the offending agent causing the severe bleeding risk is the most immediate and critical risk-reduction intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing complications of anticoagulant therapy and prioritizing immediate risk reduction.
Soru 1920Soru →

A nurse is providing care for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury. The client suddenly reports a severe, throbbing headache and blurred vision. Assessment reveals profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury, a heart rate of 48 beats/min48 \text{ beats/min}, and a blood pressure of 218/114 mm Hg218/114 \text{ mm Hg}. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the order they should be prioritized from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for managing autonomic dysreflexia is: elevate the head of the bed, loosen constrictive clothing, check the bladder for distention, evaluate the bowel for impaction, and finally administer antihypertensive medications if non-pharmacological measures fail.
In autonomic dysreflexia, a massive, uncompensated cardiovascular response occurs due to stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system below the level of injury. The immediate goal is to mitigate the severe hypertension to prevent a stroke, which is achieved by sitting the client upright. Subsequently, the nurse must act rapidly to find and eliminate the cause, progressing from the most easily correctable external factors (clothing) to the most common internal factors (bladder, then bowel). Medications are reserved for refractory cases where stimulus removal is inadequate.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position.
Takes advantage of orthostatic hypotension to rapidly lower the elevated blood pressure.
This is a life-threatening emergency. The primary risk is a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) from the severe hypertension. Postural changes offer the fastest initial blood pressure reduction.
2
Loosen all constrictive clothing and bedding.
Removes external sensory triggers.
Autonomic dysreflexia is triggered by noxious stimuli below the level of the spinal cord injury. Removing external pressure points is a rapid, non-invasive way to eliminate potential triggers.
3
Assess the urinary system.
Identifies if bladder distention is the trigger.
A distended bladder is the most frequent cause of this condition. Checking for catheter kinks or performing straight catheterization removes this stimulus.
4
Assess the bowel for impaction.
Identifies if fecal impaction is the trigger.
Bowel impaction is the second most common cause. It must be addressed systematically if the bladder is not the source.
5
Administer antihypertensive medication.
Lowers blood pressure pharmacologically.
Medications are used only if nursing interventions to remove the noxious stimuli fail to relieve the hypertensive crisis.

Anahtar Kavram

Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It requires immediate positioning to lower blood pressure, followed by the systematic identification and removal of the triggering noxious stimulus (usually bladder or bowel).
ÖncekiSayfa 96 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 96 | Examkin