A retail investor places her long-term savings into a portfolio consisting exclusively of -year U.S. Treasury zero-coupon bonds, believing that avoiding corporate default risk ensures total safety. During an extended period of rising inflation and increasing market interest rates, she notices a significant decline in her portfolio's purchasing power and secondary market value. Which of the following statements correctly evaluates the risk profile of this investor's holdings?
- The portfolio remains exposed to systematic risks, specifically purchasing power risk and interest rate risk, which cannot be eliminated through fixed-income diversification.Cevap
- BThe portfolio's market value loss is primarily caused by credit risk, which could have been avoided by diversifying into high-yield corporate bonds.
- CThe investor can completely eliminate market and inflation risks by expanding her holdings across different U.S. Treasury bond maturities.
- DAs prevailing interest rates rise, the secondary market price of zero-coupon Treasury bonds increases, offsetting the negative effects of inflation.
Cevap
The portfolio remains exposed to systematic risks, specifically purchasing power risk and interest rate risk, which cannot be eliminated through fixed-income diversification.
The correct response reflects that while U.S. Treasury securities eliminate issuer default risk (a non-systematic risk), they remain fully exposed to systematic risks such as interest rate risk and purchasing power (inflation) risk. Systematic risks impact the overall market and fixed-income sector, so diversifying among government bonds does not remove these exposures.
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Anahtar Kavram
Systematic risks (such as interest rate risk and purchasing power risk) affect the market as a whole and cannot be eliminated through asset diversification.
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