An institutional portfolio manager holds a fixed-income portfolio consisting exclusively of 20-year U.S. Treasury bonds. To increase yield, the manager reallocates of the portfolio into BBB-rated corporate bonds with matching maturities. Which of the following best describes the resulting change in the portfolio's risk profile?
- The portfolio introduces non-systematic credit risk while maintaining systematic interest rate risk across both holdings.Cevap
- BThe portfolio eliminates interest rate risk because corporate bond yields absorb changes in prevailing market interest rates.
- CThe portfolio reduces systematic market risk while eliminating credit risk through fixed-income diversification.
- DThe portfolio replaces business risk with liquidity risk because U.S. Treasuries carry higher credit default probability than BBB corporate debt.
Cevap
Reallocating a portion of a U.S. Treasury portfolio into corporate bonds introduces non-systematic credit risk while both asset types remain exposed to systematic interest rate risk.
U.S. Treasury securities carry virtually no credit default risk due to government backing, but long-term Treasuries carry substantial systematic interest rate risk. By shifting into BBB corporate debt, the manager introduces non-systematic credit (default) risk inherent in corporate issuers, while both the Treasury and corporate portions remain subject to systematic interest rate risk.
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Anahtar Kavram
Distinction between non-systematic credit risk and systematic interest rate risk in fixed-income portfolios.