An investor holds a long-term portfolio exclusively consisting of fixed-rate U.S. Treasury bonds maturing in 20 to 30 years. Over a two-year period, persistent macroeconomic inflation prompts the Federal Reserve to implement aggressive interest rate hikes. Although all principal and interest payments from the U.S. government remain fully guaranteed, the investor observes a 25% decline in the current secondary market value of the portfolio. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the primary risk affecting this portfolio and its fundamental characteristic?
- The portfolio experienced interest rate risk, a systematic risk that depresses existing bond prices as prevailing interest rates rise and cannot be eliminated through diversification.Cevap
- BThe portfolio experienced credit risk, a non-systematic risk arising because unexpected inflation impairs the U.S. government's ability to fulfill sovereign debt obligations.
- CThe portfolio experienced market risk, a non-systematic risk that could have been completely eliminated by reallocating the funds across 100 different long-term corporate bond issuers.
- DThe portfolio experienced inflation risk, which causes existing fixed-income secondary market prices to increase to compensate bondholders for declining purchasing power.
Cevap
The portfolio experienced interest rate risk, a systematic risk that depresses existing bond prices as prevailing interest rates rise and cannot be eliminated through diversification.
The correct answer accurately identifies interest rate risk as a systematic risk factor. Rising prevailing interest rates diminish the secondary market value of existing fixed-rate bonds because investors demand yields competitive with newly issued debt. Because interest rate risk is systematic (macroeconomic), holding U.S. government backing or diversifying across issuers cannot remove this price sensitivity.
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Systematic Risk and Interest Rate Sensitivity
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