A fixed-income portfolio manager holds a position in -year senior debentures issued by a major hospitality and resort corporation. Following consecutive quarters of declining occupancy rates and a debt covenant breach, major credit rating agencies downgrade the issuing corporation's debt rating from investment grade () to non-investment grade (). During the exact same period, prevailing market interest rates and general macroeconomic indicators remain completely stable. Which of the following statements accurately analyzes the primary risk event that has materialized?
- The security experienced credit risk, because the rating downgrade reflects an increased likelihood of issuer default stemming from firm-specific operational difficulties.Cevap
- BThe security experienced interest rate risk, because credit rating agency downgrades are driven primarily by shifts in prevailing benchmark yield curves.
- CThe security experienced market systematic risk, which impacts all corporate debentures across the economy in a uniform manner.
- DThe security experienced reinvestment risk, because a credit downgrade forces the issuer to immediately redeem the debentures prior to maturity.
Cevap
The correct option is the one stating that the security experienced credit risk, because the rating downgrade reflects an increased likelihood of issuer default stemming from firm-specific operational difficulties.
Credit risk (also known as default risk) is a non-systematic, issuer-specific risk representing the possibility that an issuer will fail to make timely payments of interest or principal. When a company's financial condition deteriorates—such as through dropping occupancy rates and covenant breaches—credit rating agencies downgrade its debt, increasing its credit risk profile independently of broad market interest rate trends.
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Credit Risk vs. Systematic Risks