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4581 soru

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Soru 1141Soru →

Seven diplomats—K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q—are sitting in a straight row facing either North or South. Their seating arrangement is based on the following conditions:
1. P sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.
2. M sits third to the right of P.
3. The person sitting exactly in the middle of the row faces North.
4. Only two people sit between M and Q.
5. O sits second to the left of Q.
6. L sits to the immediate right of O.
7. K is not an immediate neighbor of P.
8. N sits to the immediate right of K.
9. The immediate neighbors of M face opposite directions (i.e., if one faces North, the other faces South).
10. The people sitting at the extreme ends face opposite directions.
11. N faces a direction opposite to that of L, while L faces the same direction as M.

Based on the given seating arrangement, which of the following statements is true?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Only one person sits between K and O.

Cevap

The statement 'Only one person sits between K and O' is true.
By mapping out the rules, the exact seating sequence from position 1 to 7 is: P(North), N(South), K(South), M(North), O(North), L(North), and Q(South). Analyzing this layout, K is located at position 3 and O is at position 5. The only person seated between them is M at position 4. Therefore, exactly one person sits between K and O.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine the exact positions of P and M.
P is at position 1 facing North, and M is exactly in the middle at position 4 facing North.
M must be exactly in the middle (position 4) because it's the only way M can be third to the right of an extreme end (P). If P were at position 7, P would face South and M would be at 4. If P is at position 1, P faces North and M is at 4. Rule 3 states the middle person faces North.
2
Place Q and O to eliminate the invalid scenario for P.
Q is at position 7 facing South, and O is at position 5 facing North.
Two people sit between M(4) and Q, meaning Q must be at 1 or 7. If P is at 7, Q is at 1 (facing North due to opposite ends rule), making it impossible for O to sit second to the left of Q. Therefore, P must be at 1 and Q must be at 7 facing South. Second to the left of Q(South) is position 5, where O sits.
3
Determine L's position and O's direction.
L is at position 6 facing North.
L is to the immediate right of O(5). The only empty adjacent seat is 6. For position 6 to be on the right, O must face North.
4
Place K and N, and resolve remaining facing directions.
K is at position 3 facing South, and N is at position 2 facing South.
K cannot be next to P(1), so K is at 3, leaving N at 2. Since N is to the immediate right of K, K must face South. M's neighbors (K and O) face opposite directions, confirming K faces South since O faces North. L faces the same as M (North), and N faces opposite to L (South).

Anahtar Kavram

Linear Bidirectional Seating Arrangement
Tahmini Süre:2m 30s
Soru 1142Soru →

As the Chief Administrator of the 'Harbor Revitalization Initiative', you are managing the transition of a defunct industrial port into a mixed-use maritime zone. Match the specific stakeholder conflicts (Left) with the most appropriate, proportional administrative negotiation strategy (Right).

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Öğeler

Former dock workers demand exclusive employment rights in the new commercial marina, threatening organized strikes.
Environmental NGOs demand a complete halt to all construction until legacy toxic sludge is entirely removed.
Luxury developers refuse to allocate the legally mandated 20% space for affordable housing, citing reduced profitability.
Traditional fishing communities protest that the new marina boundaries encroach upon their ancestral docking zones.

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct pairing aligns former dock workers with a skill transition framework, environmental NGOs with phased bioremediation, luxury developers with strict condition precedent clauses, and traditional fishing communities with participatory mapping for protected corridors.
Each correct pairing demonstrates a proportional, policy-aligned response. The strategies prioritize constructive negotiation (retraining, participatory mapping) for vulnerable groups and strict regulatory enforcement for powerful entities (developers) while utilizing objective frameworks (scientific committees) for technical disputes.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the core interest of the former dock workers.
Their primary concern is economic survival. This matches with building their capacity through the 'Skill Transition Framework'.
Promising exclusive rights is often legally impossible, but facilitating retraining offers a sustainable win-win solution.
2
Evaluate the environmental NGOs' demand.
Their concern is ecological safety, which matches with the objective, phased scientific intervention of 'Phased Bioremediation'.
A complete halt is disproportionate; a phased approach balances development with stringent environmental protection.
3
Assess the luxury developers' resistance.
Their resistance is profit-driven against a legal mandate, matching the strategy to enforce strict 'Condition Precedent' clauses.
Administrators must not compromise on statutory welfare mandates; leveraging approvals is the correct enforcement mechanism.
4
Address the fishing communities' spatial concerns.
Their ancestral rights are threatened, matching the need for 'Protected Heritage Corridors' established via participatory mapping.
This strategy institutionalizes their access and prevents marginalization of vulnerable indigenous or traditional groups.

Anahtar Kavram

Proportional Administrative Intervention and Multi-Stakeholder Conflict Resolution
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1143Soru →

As a District Magistrate, you are confronted with an unprecedented locust swarm. You have exactly two specialized aerial spraying units available for immediate deployment. Operational guidelines strictly state that a unit must be fully dedicated to a single zone for the entire 12-hour period to be effective. Four zones are threatened:

Zone W: A cooperative of 2,000 marginal farmers with no crop insurance, entirely dependent on this harvest for their survival.
Zone X: A commercial export plantation that generates 30% of the district's agricultural revenue but is comprehensively insured against crop loss.
Zone Y: The State Agricultural Research Institute, housing irreplaceable foundation seeds crucial for next year's statewide planting.
Zone Z: The residential outskirts of the district headquarters, where uninjured citizens are aggressively protesting the nuisance of insects entering their homes.

Based on objective administrative resource allocation principles, which of the following is the most appropriate decision?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Allocate one unit to Zone W and one unit to Zone Y, prioritizing the most vulnerable population and irreplaceable strategic assets.

Cevap

Allocate one unit to Zone W and one unit to Zone Y, prioritizing the most vulnerable population and irreplaceable strategic assets.
The correct decision successfully balances ethical duty and strategic foresight. It protects the most vulnerable citizens (marginal farmers) whose survival is immediately threatened, while also securing an irreplaceable state asset (research seeds) that guarantees future stability. It correctly identifies that commercial losses can be handled via insurance and that public nuisance does not warrant emergency resource diversion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the resource constraints and operational rules.
Only 2 units are available, and they cannot be divided or rotated; each must be committed entirely to one zone.
Understanding strict statutory and operational protocols prevents selecting unfeasible compromise solutions.
2
Evaluate the risk and recoverability of each zone.
Zone W is highly vulnerable (uninsured human survival). Zone X is recoverable (insured financial loss). Zone Y is irreplaceable (future state-wide food security). Zone Z is low risk (non-lethal nuisance).
Administrative triage requires assessing the severity, urgency, and recoverability of each threatened asset.
3
Rank the zones based on objective priority.
Rank 1: Zone W (Life/Livelihood). Rank 2: Zone Y (Strategic/Irreplaceable). Rank 3: Zone X (Financial). Rank 4: Zone Z (Nuisance).
Ethical public administration mandates protecting the most vulnerable and securing long-term strategic assets over compensable economic losses or temporary public discomfort.
4
Allocate the available resources to the top priorities.
The two units are assigned to Zone W and Zone Y.
This maximizes the impact of the limited resources according to the priority ranking.

Anahtar Kavram

Administrative Triage and Objective Resource Prioritization
Soru 1144Soru →

During a severe flash flood, you serve as the District Magistrate responsible for emergency relief operations. With highly limited National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) personnel and boats available, you receive simultaneous distress calls from various parts of the district. Based on the principles of administrative ethics, objective public interest, and triage proportionality, arrange the following deployment priorities from the most ethically sound (first action) to the least appropriate (last action).

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes the public hospital (most vulnerable lives), followed by stranded residents (imminent threat to life), then the district collectorate (crucial public property), and finally the politician's private estate (unethical misuse of resources).
The correct order follows the established disaster management protocol and administrative ethics: triage dictates that the most vulnerable lives (ICU patients) are saved first, followed by other lives in danger (stranded residents). Once life-safety is secured, vital public property (land records) can be protected. Using public emergency resources for private VIP benefit is inherently unethical and thus ranks last.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the primary ethical duty in disaster management.
The preservation of human life takes absolute precedence over the protection of property.
Administrative triage requires addressing the most immediate threats to life first.
2
Compare the life-threatening scenarios (hospital versus residential neighborhood).
The hospital ICU represents a higher priority due to the extreme vulnerability and immobility of the patients.
Vulnerability assessment dictates that those least able to help themselves require the most immediate state intervention.
3
Assess the remaining scenarios involving property (public records versus VIP private property).
Securing public records is a legitimate state function, whereas securing VIP private property is a misuse of state resources.
Public officials must act in the public interest and maintain political neutrality, avoiding preferential treatment.

Anahtar Kavram

Administrative Triage, Utilitarian Ethics, and Public Duty
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1145Soru →

A newly constructed high-speed railway network begins its first commercial operation on Sunday, January 15, 2096. The operating company schedules a comprehensive decade-review on the exact same date 10 years later, January 15, 2106. On what day of the week will this decade-review take place?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Friday

Cevap

Friday
The interval from January 15, 2096, to January 15, 2106, covers exactly 10 years. During this time, we cross February 29th in the years 2096 and 2104, making them leap years. Crucially, the year 2100 is a century year. Century years are only leap years if they are divisible by 400. Since 2100 is not divisible by 400, it is a normal year. This means we have 8 normal years and 2 leap years in this 10-year span. Calculating the odd days: (8 × 1) + (2 × 2) = 12 odd days. Dividing 12 by 7 gives a remainder of 5. Counting 5 days forward from Sunday lands exactly on Friday.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine the total number of years in the given time frame.
The period from January 15, 2096, to January 15, 2106, is exactly 10 years.
This establishes the baseline period for calculating odd days.
2
Identify the leap years that fall within this 10-year period.
The leap years are 2096 (since February 29th is crossed) and 2104. The year 2100 is a century year not divisible by 400, so it is a normal year.
Century years must be divisible by 400 to be leap years, which is a critical rule for crossing the year 2100 boundary.
3
Calculate the total number of normal years and leap years.
Out of 10 years, there are 2 leap years and 8 normal years.
Leap years have 2 odd days and normal years have 1 odd day.
4
Calculate the total number of odd days for the 10-year period.
(8 normal years × 1 odd day) + (2 leap years × 2 odd days) = 8 + 4 = 12 odd days.
This translates the years into a continuous shift in the days of the week.
5
Find the net shift in the day of the week by finding the remainder when dividing by 7.
12 divided by 7 leaves a remainder of 5 odd days.
The days of the week repeat every 7 days.
6
Add the odd days to the starting day of the week.
Sunday + 5 days = Friday.
This determines the exact final day of the week for the scheduled event.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculation of odd days across century boundaries
Soru 1146Soru →

Read the following statements and candidate conclusions carefully. Assume the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.

Statements:
1. All luminescent flora are toxic species.
2. No toxic species are apex predators.

Conclusions:
I. No luminescent flora are apex predators.
II. Some toxic species are luminescent flora.
III. Some toxic species are not apex predators.

Which of the following logically follows from the given statements?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Only conclusion I follows

Cevap

The correct evaluation is that only conclusion I follows logically from the premises without requiring additional assumptions.
The valid conclusion relies strictly on the boundaries defined by the premises. Because luminescent flora represents a subset completely contained within toxic species, and toxic species are mutually exclusive from apex predators, it is completely impossible for any luminescent flora to be an apex predator. This makes the first conclusion flawlessly valid. The other conclusions require assuming that the subjects actually exist, which is an invalid deductive leap known as the existential fallacy.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Conclusion I using the principles of set containment and exclusion.
Since all 'luminescent flora' are contained within the set of 'toxic species', and the set of 'toxic species' has zero overlap with 'apex predators', it mathematically guarantees that 'luminescent flora' has zero overlap with 'apex predators'.
Applying the transitive property of categorical exclusions (if L is a subset of T, and T intersects A is empty, then L intersects A is empty).
2
Evaluate Conclusion II for strict logical validity under Boolean rules.
Conclusion II ('Some toxic species are luminescent flora') is invalid.
The premise 'All luminescent flora are toxic species' does not prove that any luminescent flora actually exist in this context. Deriving a particular conclusion ('Some') from a universal premise ('All') commits the existential fallacy.
3
Evaluate Conclusion III for strict logical validity under Boolean rules.
Conclusion III ('Some toxic species are not apex predators') is invalid.
Similar to Step 2, the premise 'No toxic species are apex predators' does not establish the physical existence of toxic species. We cannot deduce that 'some' exist to possess the trait of not being apex predators.

Anahtar Kavram

Boolean Logic and the Existential Fallacy in Syllogisms
Soru 1147Soru →

The State Rural Development Authority evaluates proposals for the "Smart Village Initiative" based on specific criteria. As of 1st July 2026, to be eligible, a village must:
1. Have a population of at least 5,000.
2. Have achieved 100% household electrification.
3. Possess a functional primary healthcare center (PHC) staffed with a permanent doctor.
4. Have a recorded literacy rate of not less than 80%.

However, if a village satisfies all the above criteria EXCEPT:
(I) criterion 1, but covers a geographical area of more than 50 sq. km, the proposal should be referred to the District Collector.
(II) criterion 2, but has an active solar micro-grid project, the proposal should be referred to the Renewable Energy Board.
(III) criterion 4, but has shown an improvement of at least 10 percentage points in literacy over the past 3 years, it is to be granted "Provisional Status".

Consider the following village proposals reviewed on 14th August 2026:
- Village Malpur: Population is 4,100; Area is 58 sq. km; 100% household electrification; has a functional PHC with a permanent doctor; literacy rate is 84%.
- Village Sitapur: Population is 6,500; Area is 45 sq. km; 92% household electrification but has an active solar micro-grid; has a functional PHC with only a visiting doctor (no permanent doctor); literacy rate is 82%.
- Village Devgarh: Population is 5,400; Area is 35 sq. km; 100% household electrification; has a functional PHC with a permanent doctor; current literacy rate is 74%, which increased from 62% three years ago.

Based on the rules provided, which of the following administrative decisions are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The proposal for Village Malpur should be referred to the District Collector.; The proposal for Village Devgarh should be granted Provisional Status.

Cevap

The correct decisions are to refer Village Malpur's proposal to the District Collector and to grant Village Devgarh Provisional Status.
Based on the rules, Village Malpur strictly falls under the referral condition for a population deficit because it meets the area exception and all other criteria. Village Devgarh strictly falls under the provisional status condition for a literacy deficit because it showed sufficient improvement and met all other criteria.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate Village Malpur against the primary criteria and exceptions.
Fails criterion 1 (population 4,100 < 5,000) but meets exception (I) (area 58 sq. km > 50 sq. km). Passes criteria 2, 3, and 4.
To determine the final administrative action for Malpur.
2
Evaluate Village Sitapur against the primary criteria and exceptions.
Fails criterion 2 (92% electrification) and criterion 3 (no permanent doctor). Although it has a solar micro-grid, the exception cannot be applied because not all other criteria are met.
To determine if Sitapur qualifies for an exception or must be rejected.
3
Evaluate Village Devgarh against the primary criteria and exceptions.
Fails criterion 4 (literacy 74% < 80%) but meets exception (III) (12 percentage point improvement from 62% over 3 years). Passes criteria 1, 2, and 3.
To determine the final administrative action for Devgarh.

Anahtar Kavram

Applying conditional logic and managing multiple constraints to make rule-based administrative decisions.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1148Soru →

Six project managers (Arthur, Vera, Winston, Xavier, Yara, and Zane) are seated around a triangular table facing the center. Three of them sit at the corners of the table and three sit at the middle of each side.

1. Arthur sits at one of the corners.
2. Yara sits second to the left of Arthur.
3. Winston sits to the immediate right of Yara.
4. Vera sits at the middle of one of the sides, but she is not an immediate neighbor of Arthur.
5. Zane sits second to the left of Vera.

Based on this arrangement, who sits to the immediate left of Zane?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Arthur

Cevap

Arthur sits to the immediate left of Zane.
Based on the clues, Arthur is at a corner, Yara is at the next clockwise corner, and Winston is at the middle seat between them. Vera must take the middle seat furthest from Arthur. Zane sits second to the left of Vera, placing him at the middle seat next to Arthur. Xavier takes the last remaining corner. Since everyone faces the center, moving to the 'immediate left' means moving one seat clockwise. The seat immediately clockwise from Zane is occupied by Arthur.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Establish the seating directions for a triangular table where everyone faces the center.
Facing the center means 'left' corresponds to moving clockwise around the perimeter, and 'right' corresponds to moving counter-clockwise.
This is a crucial first step to correctly interpret all directional clues and avoid misplacing individuals.
2
Place Arthur, Yara, and Winston based on the first three clues.
Place Arthur at any corner. Yara sits second to the left (clockwise), placing her at the next consecutive corner. Winston sits to the immediate right (counter-clockwise) of Yara, placing him at the middle seat exactly between Arthur and Yara.
These three clues form a direct, deterministic chain of adjacent positions.
3
Determine Vera's position based on the fourth clue.
Vera sits at a middle seat. The middle seat between Arthur and Yara is already occupied by Winston. The middle seat on Arthur's other side makes her an immediate neighbor of Arthur, which is forbidden. Thus, Vera must sit at the third remaining middle seat.
Process of elimination based on seat types (middle) and negative constraints (not next to Arthur).
4
Place Zane and Xavier based on the final clue.
Zane sits second to the left (clockwise) of Vera. This places Zane at the middle seat adjacent to Arthur. The only remaining seat is the third corner, which must go to Xavier.
This fulfills the final directional clue and successfully assigns the last person to the last empty seat.
5
Find the person sitting to the immediate left of Zane.
Zane is at a middle seat. Moving immediately to the left (clockwise) points directly to Arthur's corner seat.
This directly answers the specific question asked in the stem.

Anahtar Kavram

Circular and Polygonal Seating Arrangement with Inward Orientation
Soru 1149Soru →

Match the following administrative actions taken by civil servants to the primary ethical or governance principle that justifies the decision.

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Öğeler

Sealing a major local factory causing severe groundwater toxicity, despite the immediate loss of hundreds of jobs in the community.
Assigning an outside, impartial officer to investigate a communal clash instead of a local inspector who has deep community ties.
Denying immediate housing funds to a poor family absent from the official eligibility list, while simultaneously guiding them to file a formal inclusion appeal.
Re-routing life-saving medical supplies from a prominent urban hospital to a remote, under-resourced clinic facing a sudden disease cluster.

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The factory sealing matches prioritizing environmental justice; assigning an impartial officer matches upholding objectivity; denying unlisted housing funds matches adherence to due process; re-routing medical supplies matches equitable resource distribution.
Each administrative action corresponds directly to a foundational governance doctrine. Factory sealing aligns with environmental justice and long-term public safety. Independent investigation upholds objectivity. Adhering to eligibility lists maintains the rule of law. Reallocating medical supplies demonstrates utilitarian resource equity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the first scenario regarding the polluting factory.
Matches with prioritizing long-term public health.
Environmental damage affects the broader public long-term, which outweighs the localized, short-term economic loss of jobs.
2
Evaluate the second scenario involving the investigator assignment.
Matches with upholding institutional objectivity.
Deep community ties could create biases or conflicts of interest; an outside officer ensures neutrality.
3
Examine the third scenario about housing fund eligibility.
Matches with adherence to statutory due process.
Administrators cannot disburse funds without legal authorization, even for sympathetic cases; assisting with the appeal represents lawful administrative compassion.
4
Assess the fourth scenario concerning medical supply diversion.
Matches with equitable distribution of resources.
Triage in public administration demands moving resources to areas of highest vulnerability during sudden crises.

Anahtar Kavram

Applying foundational ethical principles (objectivity, due process, utilitarian equity, environmental justice) to resolve competing administrative priorities.
Soru 1150Soru →

In public administration, civil servants rely on distinct dimensions of Emotional Intelligence (EI) to manage administrative challenges, public grievances, and team dynamics effectively. Match each core Emotional Intelligence dimension in List I with its corresponding behavioral manifestation in administrative practice in List II. Which of the following correctly pairs each dimension with its appropriate workplace behavior?

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Self-Awareness
Self-Regulation
Empathy (Social Awareness)
Relationship Management

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Self-Awareness corresponds to recognizing one's own emotional triggers and biases; Self-Regulation corresponds to maintaining emotional composure under provocation; Empathy corresponds to perceiving unexpressed anxieties and perspectives of citizens; Relationship Management corresponds to negotiating inter-departmental friction and resolving conflicts.
The correct alignment pairs each emotional intelligence domain with its accurate psychological definition within an administrative context: Self-Awareness matches internal trigger identification; Self-Regulation matches emotional impulse control under stress; Empathy matches sensing citizen vulnerability and perspective taking; Relationship Management matches conflict resolution and team leadership.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Self-Awareness (List I)
Self-Awareness is intra-personal recognition of internal states. It matches the behavior of recognizing one's own emotional triggers, stress levels, and implicit biases.
Intrapersonal understanding forms the foundation of self-awareness.
2
Analyze Self-Regulation (List I)
Self-Regulation is the control of impulse and emotional outbursts. It matches maintaining composure and withholding impulsive punitive actions during provocation.
Managing disruptive impulses prevents emotional hijacking in administrative roles.
3
Analyze Empathy / Social Awareness (List I)
Empathy requires understanding external emotional cues and stakeholders' feelings. It matches perceiving unexpressed anxieties and distress of displaced citizens.
Social awareness translates into organizational and community sensitivity.
4
Analyze Relationship Management (List I)
Relationship Management involves interpersonal influence and team dynamics. It matches persuasively negotiating inter-departmental friction and resolving workplace conflicts.
Building rapport and managing conflict are core interpersonal competencies.

Anahtar Kavram

Four-Branch Emotional Intelligence Framework in Public Administration
Soru 1151Soru →

A Block Development Officer (BDO) is presiding over a dispute between two neighboring village committees over the allocation of irrigation water from a local canal during a dry period. Which of the following administrative negotiation strategies represents the most effective approach to group dynamics and interpersonal negotiation?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Facilitating a collaborative joint dialogue with representatives from both villages to agree on an equitable, rotational water-sharing schedule based on crop urgency.

Cevap

Facilitating a collaborative joint dialogue with representatives from both villages to agree on an equitable, rotational water-sharing schedule based on crop urgency.
The correct strategy involves facilitating collaborative joint dialogue to establish a rotational water-sharing schedule. In administrative negotiation, integrative bargaining focuses on understanding underlying needs and creating shared value, which fosters positive inter-group dynamics and sustainable community compliance.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the administrative scenario
Identified two competing stakeholder groups with conflicting demands for a vital resource (irrigation water).
Effective negotiation requires identifying underlying stakeholder interests rather than focusing on rigid demands.
2
Evaluate negotiation strategies for positive group dynamics
Integrative negotiation (win-win problem-solving) encourages joint ownership and long-term compliance among community groups.
Coercive actions or aggressive dominance damage inter-group relations and lead to recurring administrative conflicts.
3
Select the option that aligns with sound negotiation principles
Initiating a joint dialogue to establish a transparent, rotational sharing plan provides an equitable solution.
This balances firmness with respect and shared decision-making.

Anahtar Kavram

Integrative Negotiation and Collaborative Group Dynamics
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 1152Soru →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mukhyamantri Maiyan Samman Yojana' (JMMSY) initiated by the State Government of Jharkhand:

1. The scheme is nodalized and administered by the Department of Women, Child Development and Social Security.
2. It provides direct benefit transfer (DBT) financial assistance of ₹1,000 per month to eligible female residents in the revised age group of 18 to 50 years.
3. Families having an active income tax payer or owning a four-wheeler vehicle are eligible to receive benefit under the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Mukhyamantri Maiyan Samman Yojana is managed by the Department of Women, Child Development and Social Security in Jharkhand, transferring ₹1,000 monthly to women in the age bracket of 18 to 50 years. Statement 3 is wrong because tax payers and four-wheeler owners are excluded from eligibility.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the administrative authority of the scheme.
Statement 1 is correct. The Department of Women, Child Development and Social Security of Jharkhand is the nodal department for implementing Mukhyamantri Maiyan Samman Yojana.
Administrative jurisdiction over state welfare schemes rests with designated nodal departments.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding monetary benefits and age criteria.
Statement 2 is correct. The scheme provides ₹1,000 per month directly into bank accounts via DBT for eligible women aged between 18 and 50 years (revised from the initial threshold of 21 years).
Eligibility rules specify target beneficiary demographics and quantum of financial relief.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding exclusion criteria.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Families with an income tax payer, regular government employees, or owners of four-wheelers are strictly excluded from scheme benefits.
Exclusion parameters ensure targeted assistance reaches economically disadvantaged households.

Anahtar Kavram

Parameters, eligibility criteria, and exclusion norms of state flagship welfare schemes.
Soru 1153Soru →

Statement: Should municipal corporations make rooftop rainwater harvesting systems mandatory for all existing and newly constructed residential buildings in urban areas?

Arguments:
I. Yes, as urban groundwater tables are depleting rapidly, and rainwater harvesting provides a sustainable method to replenish aquifers and mitigate urban water scarcity.
II. No, because retrofitting existing older residential structures may pose structural safety risks and high capital costs for property owners without government financial support.
III. Yes, because rainwater is naturally soft and tastes better than piped municipal water supplies.

Which of the arguments listed above is/are strong?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Argument I; Argument II

Cevap

Both Argument I and Argument II are strong arguments.
Arguments focusing on groundwater replenishment (Argument I) and structural/financial feasibility (Argument II) are both strong because they address the core issue from realistic environmental and administrative viewpoints.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Argument I for logical strength and policy relevance.
Argument I directly addresses the core issue of urban water crisis by linking mandatory rainwater harvesting to groundwater replenishment, presenting a strong and logically sound argument.
An argument is strong if it is directly relevant, non-trivial, and backed by sound logic or practical necessity.
2
Analyze Argument II for structural and financial feasibility.
Argument II points out real-world implementation challenges, such as structural risk for old buildings and high retrofitting costs for citizens, presenting a valid and strong counter-argument.
Highlighting practical execution bottlenecks and financial burdens constitutes a valid policy argument.
3
Analyze Argument III for relevance and weight.
Argument III focuses on subjective water taste and minor qualities, which are insufficient to justify mandatory urban municipal regulations, making it a weak argument.
Trivial personal preferences or superficial points do not constitute strong arguments in public policy decision-making.

Anahtar Kavram

Evaluating Strong and Weak Arguments in Public Policy
Soru 1154Soru →

In interpersonal communication within public administration, non-verbal behavior plays a critical role in conveying messages effectively. Which of the following non-verbal actions specifically illustrates the use of kinesics?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Nodding the head and using hand movements to reinforce a verbal message

Cevap

Nodding the head and using hand movements to reinforce a verbal message
Kinesics is the domain of non-verbal communication that involves body movement, such as gestures, facial expressions, and posture. Nodding the head and using hand movements directly exemplify kinesic communication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Define kinesics in non-verbal communication
Kinesics refers to the study of body movements, gestures, facial expressions, posture, and eye contact.
Establishing the core concept allows clear categorization of non-verbal behaviors.
2
Categorize each option based on non-verbal communication principles
Head nods and hand gestures involve body movements (kinesics), whereas vocal variation involves paralinguistics, audio distortion is environmental noise, and aggressive table-slamming reflects hostile aggression.
Identifies the option that exclusively fits the definition of kinesics.

Anahtar Kavram

Kinesics (Body Movement and Gestures)
Soru 1155Soru →

Match each key element of the communication process in List I with its corresponding function in List II.

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Öğeler

Sender
Encoding
Channel
Feedback

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Sender matches with 'The source who initiates the message in the communication cycle'; Encoding matches with 'The process of converting an idea into symbols, words, or gestures'; Channel matches with 'The physical or electronic medium through which the message travels'; Feedback matches with 'The receiver's response that indicates whether the message was understood'.
Each communication element serves a distinct function: the Sender initiates the message, Encoding converts thoughts to transmittable symbols, the Channel acts as the medium for transmission, and Feedback provides the receiver's response to close the loop.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the role of the communication originator.
The Sender is matched to the source who initiates the communication cycle.
Communication begins with the sender developing an intent to communicate.
2
Identify the stage where ideas are transformed into transmittable forms.
Encoding is matched to converting an idea into symbols, words, or gestures.
Encoding transforms internal thought into external expression.
3
Identify the vehicle carrying the message.
Channel is matched to the physical or electronic medium through which the message travels.
The channel acts as the transmission pathway between sender and receiver.
4
Identify the mechanism that completes the communication loop.
Feedback is matched to the receiver's response indicating message comprehension.
Feedback completes the dynamic two-way communication loop.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Elements and Sequence of the Communication Process
Soru 1156Soru →

Read the following statement and the two arguments that follow:

Statement: Should the state government immediately mandate a complete shift to 100% digital e-governance workflows and abolish paper files across all municipal offices within six months?

Arguments:
I. No, because a rigid six-month deadline in offices lacking adequate digital infrastructure and staff training will cause severe operational bottlenecks and disrupt public service delivery.
II. Yes, because paperless digital administrative workflows systematically reduce file clearance delays and improve governance transparency.

Which of the following evaluations regarding the strength of the arguments is correct?

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Cevap: Both argument I and argument II are strong

Cevap

Both argument I and argument II are strong
The correct evaluation is that both arguments are strong. Argument I raises a crucial practical concern regarding infrastructural readiness, training, and potential disruption to essential services under an aggressive deadline. Argument II presents a well-founded systemic advantage of digital workflows regarding transparency and efficiency. Both arguments directly pertain to the feasibility and objective of the proposed policy mandate.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the core issue of the statement
The statement proposes a mandatory 100% digital e-governance transition across municipal offices within a tight 6-month timeframe.
Evaluating an argument requires identifying the key decision variable, which includes both the goal (digital workflows) and the conditions (six-month timeline).
2
Evaluate Argument I for relevance, logic, and realistic impact
Argument I is strong.
It addresses the realistic administrative consequences of implementing a radical policy change without adequate infrastructure or trained personnel in a short duration, directly pointing to public service disruption.
3
Evaluate Argument II for relevance, logic, and realistic impact
Argument II is strong.
It presents a fundamental, proven benefit of e-governance (efficiency and transparency) that directly justifies why digital transformation is desirable.
4
Synthesize evaluations to select the correct choice
Since both arguments touch upon vital, non-trivial aspects (implementation feasibility vs. policy merit), both arguments are logically sound and strong.
Strong arguments do not need to agree; they simply need to be relevant, logical, and meaningful to the decision-making process.

Anahtar Kavram

Evaluation of Strong and Weak Arguments in Public Policy Decision Making
Soru 1157Soru →

What is the smallest positive integer that has exactly 2121 positive divisors?

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Cevap: 576

Cevap

The smallest positive integer with exactly 21 positive divisors is 576.
The number 576 factors completely into 26×322^6 \times 3^2. According to the divisor formula, we take the exponents, add 1 to each, and multiply them: (6+1)×(2+1)=7×3=21(6+1) \times (2+1) = 7 \times 3 = 21. Because 2 is the smallest prime and is paired with the largest exponent, 576 is the absolute minimum positive integer that can produce exactly 21 divisors.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Use the divisor counting formula.
The number of divisors of N=pa×qbN = p^a \times q^b is (a+1)(b+1)(a+1)(b+1). We set this equal to 2121.
This establishes the relationship between prime exponents and the given divisor count.
2
Find the factor pairs of 21.
The ways to factor 21 are 2121 (as 21×121 \times 1) or 7×37 \times 3.
This determines the possible combinations of (a+1)(a+1) and (b+1)(b+1).
3
Test the first case (single prime factor).
a+1=21  ⟹  a=20a+1 = 21 \implies a = 20. The smallest number is 220=1,048,5762^{20} = 1,048,576.
We must evaluate all cases to ensure we find the absolute minimum.
4
Test the second case (two prime factors).
(a+1)(b+1)=7×3  ⟹  a=6,b=2(a+1)(b+1) = 7 \times 3 \implies a = 6, b = 2. The number form is p6×q2p^6 \times q^2.
This evaluates the only other valid prime exponent combination.
5
Minimize the two-prime case.
Assign p=2p=2 and q=3q=3 to get 26×32=64×9=5762^6 \times 3^2 = 64 \times 9 = 576.
Assigning the smallest available prime to the largest exponent minimizes the product.
6
Compare the results of both cases.
576<1,048,576576 < 1,048,576.
To conclusively identify the smallest positive integer.

Anahtar Kavram

Prime Factorization and the Divisor Counting Formula
Soru 1158Soru →

Which of the following statements regarding the protected areas and wildlife sanctuaries of Andhra Pradesh are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is located at the estuary of the Godavari River and hosts extensive mangrove wetlands.; Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary in Kurnool district serves as a protected grassland habitat for the Great Indian Bustard.

Cevap

The statements establishing that Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is situated at the estuary of the Godavari River harboring mangrove wetlands and that Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary in Kurnool district is a protected grassland ecosystem for the Great Indian Bustard are both correct.
Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary encompasses India's second-largest mangrove forest located where the Godavari River drains into the Bay of Bengal. Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary in Kurnool district is a designated grassland sanctuary for conserving the Great Indian Bustard.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the statement concerning Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary.
Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the East Godavari district at the Godavari estuary and is the second-largest stretch of mangrove forests in India. The statement is correct.
Geographical location and river association match official state forestry records.
2
Evaluate the statement concerning Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary.
Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Kurnool district, is a dry grassland ecosystem famous for harboring populations of the Great Indian Bustard (*Ardeotis nigriceps*). The statement is correct.
District mapping and flagship species association match environmental surveys.
3
Evaluate the statement concerning Papikonda National Park.
Papikonda National Park spans the East and West Godavari districts and is cut through by the Godavari River (Papi Hills region), not the Krishna River. The statement is incorrect.
River basin mismatch: Godavari flows through Papikonda, whereas Krishna flows further south.
4
Evaluate the statement concerning Sri Venkateswara National Park.
Sri Venkateswara National Park covers the Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve area in the Eastern Ghats, famous for endemic Red Sanders. The statement is incorrect.
Mountain range mismatch: Seshachalam belongs to the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats.

Anahtar Kavram

State Protected Areas, River Estuarine Mangroves, and Wildlife Conservation Zones of Andhra Pradesh
Soru 1159Soru →

What is the positive remainder when the expression 1277−267712^{77} - 26^{77} is divided by 1919?

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Cevap: 16

Cevap

The correct positive remainder is 16.
By reducing the bases modulo 19, we get 12≡−712 \equiv -7 and 26≡726 \equiv 7. The expression transforms to (−7)77−777(-7)^{77} - 7^{77}, which simplifies to −2×777-2 \times 7^{77} since the exponent is odd. Finding the cycle of 7(mod19)7 \pmod{19} reveals that 73≡1(mod19)7^3 \equiv 1 \pmod{19}. Because 77=3×25+277 = 3 \times 25 + 2, we have 777≡72≡11(mod19)7^{77} \equiv 7^2 \equiv 11 \pmod{19}. Finally, −2×11=−22-2 \times 11 = -22, and adjusting this to a positive remainder by adding 38 (a multiple of 19) gives 16.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Express the bases of the exponents in terms of their remainders when divided by 19.
12≡−7(mod19)12 \equiv -7 \pmod{19} and 26≡7(mod19)26 \equiv 7 \pmod{19}.
Converting large bases to smaller equivalent modular values (especially symmetric ones) simplifies the exponentiation.
2
Substitute the simplified bases back into the original expression.
1277−2677≡(−7)77−777(mod19)12^{77} - 26^{77} \equiv (-7)^{77} - 7^{77} \pmod{19}.
This reduces the problem to calculating powers of 7.
3
Simplify the expression by handling the negative sign.
Since 77 is an odd number, (−7)77=−(777)(-7)^{77} = -(7^{77}). The expression becomes −(777)−777=−2×777(mod19)-(7^{77}) - 7^{77} = -2 \times 7^{77} \pmod{19}.
Factoring out 7777^{77} isolates the exponentiation part of the problem.
4
Determine the remainder of 7777^{77} divided by 19.
Using modulo operations, 71=77^1 = 7, 72=49≡117^2 = 49 \equiv 11, 73=7×11=77≡1(mod19)7^3 = 7 \times 11 = 77 \equiv 1 \pmod{19}. Since 73≡17^3 \equiv 1, the cyclicity is 3. We divide the exponent by 3: 77=3×25+277 = 3 \times 25 + 2. Thus, 777≡72≡11(mod19)7^{77} \equiv 7^2 \equiv 11 \pmod{19}.
Finding the cycle of powers (where the remainder is 1) drastically reduces large exponents.
5
Multiply by the coefficient and convert to a positive remainder.
−2×11=−22-2 \times 11 = -22. To find the positive remainder, add multiples of 19: −22+19×2=−22+38=16-22 + 19 \times 2 = -22 + 38 = 16.
Remainders must be positive integers strictly less than the divisor.

Anahtar Kavram

Modular Arithmetic and Fermat's Little Theorem

Alternatif Yöntem

Instead of finding the specific cyclicity of 3, Fermat's Little Theorem states that a18≡1(mod19)a^{18} \equiv 1 \pmod{19}. Dividing 77 by 18 gives a remainder of 5. Calculating 75(mod19)7^5 \pmod{19} will also yield 11, leading to the same final answer.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1160Soru →

In administrative organizations, effective governance relies on using appropriate communication channels while maintaining ethical decorum. Match each Organizational Communication Mechanism (Column I) with its corresponding Administrative Function or Operational Description (Column II).

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Öğeler

Downward Formal Channel
Upward Formal Channel
Fayol's Gangplank
Grapevine Communication

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Downward Formal Channel corresponds to the dissemination of official circulars and policy guidelines; Upward Formal Channel corresponds to the submission of field status reports and feedback; Fayol's Gangplank corresponds to authorized direct lateral communication between officers of equal rank across departments to avoid scalar chain delays; Grapevine Communication corresponds to an informal, unverified network that spreads administrative rumors.
Each organizational communication channel matches its exact functional purpose: Downward channels transmit executive directives downward; Upward channels relay field reports and feedback upward; Fayol's Gangplank provides an authorized lateral bridge between equivalent ranks to resolve operational delays; and Grapevine represents informal, unverified rumor networks.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Downward Formal Channel
Downward communication flows vertically down the hierarchy, primarily used by leadership to issue directives, circulars, and operational guidelines.
Top-down communication enforces chain of command and administrative direction.
2
Analyze Upward Formal Channel
Upward communication originates at lower hierarchical tiers and moves toward higher management, taking the form of progress reports, feedback, and grievances.
Superiors require field feedback and employee concerns for informed decision-making.
3
Analyze Fayol's Gangplank concept
Gangplank is a planned exception to the strict scalar chain, allowing peer-level officers across different wings to coordinate directly in urgent matters.
It prevents operational bottlenecks while ensuring respective line superiors are kept informed.
4
Analyze Grapevine Communication
Grapevine represents informal social channels that emerge naturally within organizations, often transmitting unverified information rapidly.
Understanding grapevine dynamics helps administrators manage office rumors ethically.

Anahtar Kavram

Organizational Communication Channels (Formal Downward/Upward, Lateral Gangplank, Informal Grapevine)
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
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