Tüm alıştırma soruları

4581 soru

Soru 1741Soru

Which of the following statements regarding major road transport corridors in India are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The Golden Quadrilateral highway network connects the four primary metropolitan cities of Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata.; The North-South and East-West corridors intersect at Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh.; The East-West Corridor links Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat.

Cevap

The correct statements are those identifying the Golden Quadrilateral as connecting Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata; Jhansi as the intersection of the North-South and East-West corridors; and Silchar to Porbandar as the span of the East-West Corridor.
The Golden Quadrilateral connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The North-South and East-West corridors intersect at Jhansi. The East-West corridor runs between Silchar (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat). All three statements reflect official National Highways Development Project (NHDP) routes.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the statement about the Golden Quadrilateral
It correctly identifies the four metropolitan terminal cities (Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata).
The Golden Quadrilateral project was designed to link India's four key economic hubs.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding the intersection of the North-South and East-West corridors
It accurately states that the two corridors cross at Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh.
Jhansi is the geographic nodal intersection for these national highway corridors.
3
Evaluate the terminal points of the East-West and North-South corridors
The East-West Corridor correctly runs from Silchar (Assam) to Porbandar (Gujarat), while the North-South Corridor runs from Srinagar to Kanyakumari (not Leh to Tuticorin).
Srinagar and Kanyakumari are the extreme northern and southern terminals of the North-South Corridor.

Anahtar Kavram

National Highway Corridors and Golden Quadrilateral Network
Soru 1742Soru

According to Article 157 of the Constitution of India, what is the minimum age required for a person to be eligible for appointment as the Governor of a State?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 35 years

Cevap

The minimum age required for appointment as the Governor of a State is 35 years.
Article 157 of the Constitution of India provides two primary qualifications for a person to be appointed as Governor: they must be a citizen of India and must have completed thirty-five years of age.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the relevant constitutional provision regarding Gubernatorial qualifications.
Article 157 of the Constitution of India specifies qualifications for appointment as Governor.
Constitutional qualifications for the office of the Governor are explicitly listed under Article 157.
2
Examine the specific criteria stated in Article 157.
The two constitutional qualifications are: (1) He/She must be a citizen of India, and (2) He/She must have completed the age of 35 years.
This establishes 35 years as the mandatory lower age threshold.

Anahtar Kavram

Qualifications for appointment as Governor under Article 157
Soru 1743Soru

Four diplomats—Kiran, Latika, Manish, and Nidhi—are assigned to four distinct policy desks (Trade, Security, Environment, and Culture) and work during four different duty shifts (Shift 1, Shift 2, Shift 3, and Shift 4), such that no two diplomats share the same desk or shift.

The assignments follow these conditions:
1. The diplomat assigned to the Security desk works during Shift 3.
2. Kiran works during Shift 1, but is not assigned to the Environment desk.
3. Latika is assigned to the Trade desk and works in an even-numbered shift.
4. Nidhi works in Shift 4.

Based on the information above, match each diplomat in List I with their correct policy desk assignment in List II.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Kiran
Latika
Manish
Nidhi

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Kiran matches with Culture Desk, Latika matches with Trade Desk, Manish matches with Security Desk, and Nidhi matches with Environment Desk.
By resolving shift slots systematically (Kiran = Shift 1, Latika = Shift 2, Manish = Shift 3, Nidhi = Shift 4), we deduce that Manish handles Security. Latika handles Trade by explicit clue. Eliminating Environment for Kiran leaves her with Culture, which leaves Nidhi with Environment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine shift assignments for all diplomats.
Kiran is Shift 1 (Clue 2). Nidhi is Shift 4 (Clue 4). Latika works in an even shift (Clue 3), which must be Shift 2 since Shift 4 is occupied by Nidhi. Consequently, Manish must work Shift 3.
Each diplomat works in a unique shift from 1 to 4.
2
Map shift assignments to policy desks using Clue 1.
The Security desk is assigned to Shift 3. Since Manish works Shift 3, Manish is assigned to the Security desk.
Direct deduction connecting Shift 3 to the Security desk.
3
Assign desks to Latika and Kiran.
Latika is assigned to Trade (Clue 3). Kiran works Shift 1 and cannot be assigned to Environment (Clue 2). The remaining unassigned desks for Kiran are Culture and Environment, so Kiran must take Culture.
Conditional restriction eliminates Environment for Kiran.
4
Assign the remaining desk to Nidhi.
With Trade, Security, and Culture assigned, Nidhi is assigned to the remaining desk, which is Environment.
Exhaustive elimination of assigned desks.

Anahtar Kavram

Analytical Puzzles and Grouping
Soru 1744Soru

Arrange the following major bauxite deposit and mining regions in India in order of their location from North to South:

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence of the bauxite mining deposits from North to South is Lohardaga (Jharkhand) → Amarkantak Plateau (Madhya Pradesh) → Panchpatmali Hills (Odisha) → Shevaroy Hills (Tamil Nadu).
Arranging these major bauxite producing deposits from North to South follows their latitudinal alignment: Lohardaga in Jharkhand (~23.4° N) is the northernmost, followed by the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh (~22.7° N), Panchpatmali Hills in Koraput, Odisha (~18.8° N), and finally the Shevaroy Hills in Salem, Tamil Nadu (~11.8° N) as the southernmost.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine the latitude of Lohardaga in Jharkhand.
Lohardaga lies in the Chota Nagpur belt at ~23.4° N latitude.
Establishes the northernmost boundary of the given bauxite regions.
2
Determine the latitude of Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
Amarkantak Plateau lies in eastern Madhya Pradesh at ~22.7° N latitude.
Positions it immediately south of the Chota Nagpur bauxite belt.
3
Determine the latitude of Panchpatmali Hills in Odisha.
Panchpatmali in Koraput district lies at ~18.8° N latitude.
Positions it in the Eastern Ghats belt, south of Madhya Pradesh.
4
Determine the latitude of Shevaroy Hills in Tamil Nadu.
Shevaroy Hills in Salem district lies at ~11.8° N latitude.
Establishes the southernmost position among the choices.

Anahtar Kavram

Geographical latitudinal distribution of major bauxite deposits across Indian states.
Soru 1745Soru

With reference to the iconic rock-cut Kailashanatha Temple (Cave 16) at Ellora, consider the following statements:

1. It was excavated out of a single monolithic basalt rock cliff from top to bottom under the patronage of the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I.
2. Despite its location in the Deccan region, the temple architectural layout predominantly follows the Dravida style, complete with a vimana, gopuram-like entrance gateway, and dedicated Nandi mandapa.
3. The base of the grand structure features a celebrated multi-panel bas-relief sculpture depicting Ravana attempting to shake Mount Kailash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1, 2, and 3

Cevap

The correct answer is the option including all three statements (1, 2, and 3).
All three statements are historically and architecturally accurate. Cave 16 at Ellora (Kailashanatha Temple) was carved top-to-bottom from a single rock rock face under Rashtrakuta patron Krishna I (8th century CE). It incorporates a complete Dravida layout with a multi-storeyed vimana, enclosure wall, gopuram gateway, and Nandi pavilion. Its exterior walls showcase monumental narrative reliefs including Ravana shaking Mount Kailash.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding patronage and construction technique.
Statement 1 is correct. The Kailashanatha Temple at Ellora (Cave 16) was excavated vertically from top to bottom out of a single basalt cliff face during the 8th century CE under Rashtrakuta King Krishna I.
Top-down monolithic excavation ensured that no scaffolding was needed for structural support, making it an engineering marvel of medieval Indian rock-cut architecture.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding architectural style and components.
Statement 2 is correct. Though situated in Maharashtra, the layout mirrors classical Dravida temple architecture (specifically borrowing from Badami Chalukyan and Pallava traditions, such as the Virupaksha temple at Pattadakal). It features a multi-tiered Dravidian vimana, a separated Nandi mandapa, courtyard walls, and a gopuram-style entryway.
Rashtrakuta sculptors adapted Southern Indian Dravida design elements to create a freestanding monolithic sanctuary within a excavated trench.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding iconographic bas-relief sculptures.
Statement 3 is correct. One of the most celebrated rock-cut relief panels in Indian art history, depicting 'Ravananugraha' (Ravana attempting to shake Mount Kailash while Lord Shiva calms the mountain with his toe), is carved into the exterior base wall of the temple.
This sculpture showcases dramatic depth, narrative dynamism, and mastery of Puranic iconographic art.

Anahtar Kavram

Monolithic Rock-Cut Architecture and Sculptural Art of Ellora Kailashanatha Temple
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1746Soru

With reference to the 11-point ultimatum submitted by Mahatma Gandhi to Viceroy Lord Irwin in January 1930 prior to launching the Civil Disobedience Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It included a demand for a 50 percent reduction in land revenue.
2. It demanded the total prohibition of alcohol and intoxicants.
3. It sought the discharge of political prisoners not convicted of violent crimes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1, 2 and 3

Cevap

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
In January 1930, Mahatma Gandhi published an 11-point ultimatum to Viceroy Lord Irwin in Young India as a final effort to reach an agreement before launching the Civil Disobedience Movement. The demands were divided into issues of general interest, agrarian requirements, and industrial protection. They included: 1) a 50 percent reduction in land revenue, 2) total prohibition of alcohol and intoxicants, and 3) the release of political prisoners not convicted of violent crimes. Thus, all three statements are historically correct.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the general interest and agrarian demands in Gandhi's 11-point ultimatum.
Gandhi demanded total prohibition of intoxicants, 50 percent reduction in land revenue, and abolition of the salt tax.
These points addressed broad social welfare as well as specific peasant economic grievances.
2
Examine the political and civil rights demands presented to the Viceroy.
The proposal demanded the release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence, along with reforms in civil administration and military expenditure reduction.
This targeted colonial administrative repression and sought protection of basic civil liberties.
3
Synthesize the historical validity of all three statements.
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all accurate features of Gandhi's 11-point demands.
When Viceroy Irwin ignored this ultimatum, Mahatma Gandhi initiated the Dandi Salt March on March 12, 1930.

Anahtar Kavram

Mahatma Gandhi's 11-Point Demands (1930)
Soru 1747Soru

Which of the following statements accurately describe the legal status and constitutional relationship of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) and Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India? Select all the correct statements.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Article 37 explicitly declares that Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and imposes a duty on the State to apply these principles in making laws.; The Supreme Court held in the Minerva Mills case (1980) that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of a balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

Cevap

The correct statements are that Article 37 explicitly declares Directive Principles as fundamental in the governance of the country, and that the Supreme Court established in the Minerva Mills case (1980) that the Constitution rests on the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
The statements emphasizing Article 37's mandate on governance and the Minerva Mills doctrine on harmony between Part III and Part IV are accurate legal facts under Indian Constitutional law.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the enforceability and explicit constitutional wording of Article 37.
Article 37 clarifies that Part IV provisions are non-justiciable in court but fundamental to national governance, obligating the State to apply them during legislation.
Establishes the intended constitutional role of DPSPs.
2
Examine judicial remedies under Article 32 regarding Part IV provisions.
Writ jurisdiction under Article 32 applies exclusively to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Part III), not Directive Principles (Part IV).
Distinguishes justiciable rights from non-justiciable directives.
3
Analyze judicial precedent set in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980).
The Supreme Court held that neither Part III nor Part IV is absolute over the other; the Constitution is built on the harmony and balance between both.
Confirms the modern constitutional interpretation of the FR-DPSP relationship.

Anahtar Kavram

Relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
Soru 1748Soru

Which Constitutional Amendment Act incorporated Part IV-A, establishing the Fundamental Duties of citizens, into the Constitution of India upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976

Cevap

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 incorporated Part IV-A and Article 51A into the Constitution of India.
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added Part IV-A (Article 51A) to the Indian Constitution based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, introducing ten Fundamental Duties for citizens.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the constitutional committee responsible for recommending Fundamental Duties.
The Swaran Singh Committee was set up in 1976 to recommend provisions on Fundamental Duties.
Establishing the historical context clarifies which amendment enacted these recommendations.
2
Match the committee's recommendations with the constitutional amendment passed in 1976.
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act inserted Part IV-A containing Article 51A.
This act formally added ten Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.

Anahtar Kavram

Incorporation of Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties) via Constitutional Amendment
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 1749Soru

Match the major gulfs of the world listed in List-I with the primary sea or ocean body they are situated within in List-II:

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Gulf of Bothnia
Gulf of Martaban
Gulf of Aqaba
Gulf of Darién

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Gulf of Bothnia matches with Baltic Sea, Gulf of Martaban matches with Andaman Sea, Gulf of Aqaba matches with Red Sea, and Gulf of Darién matches with Caribbean Sea.
Each gulf correctly matches its parent water body: the Gulf of Bothnia belongs to the Baltic Sea, the Gulf of Martaban to the Andaman Sea, the Gulf of Aqaba to the Red Sea, and the Gulf of Darién to the Caribbean Sea.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the geographical position of the Gulf of Bothnia
Located in Northern Europe, the Gulf of Bothnia forms the northern extension of the Baltic Sea.
Determining the parent water body for Scandinavian gulfs.
2
Identify the geographical position of the Gulf of Martaban
Located off the coast of Myanmar, the Gulf of Martaban opens directly into the Andaman Sea.
Mapping coastal inlets in Southern/Southeast Asia.
3
Identify the geographical position of the Gulf of Aqaba
Located at the northern extremity of the Red Sea, east of the Sinai Peninsula.
Locating key water bodies surrounding the Arabian Peninsula.
4
Identify the geographical position of the Gulf of Darién
Located at the junction of Central and South America, forming the southernmost part of the Caribbean Sea.
Connecting Neotropical coastal geography with its oceanic realm.

Anahtar Kavram

Regional geography and oceanic connections of major world gulfs
Soru 1750Soru

With reference to the central administrative departments of the Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements:

1. The department of agriculture, known as *Diwan-i-Kohi*, was created during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq to expand land under cultivation through state support.
2. The *Diwan-i-Mustakhraj* was established under Alauddin Khalji to inquire into and realize arrears of land revenue from officials.
3. The *Diwan-i-Arz*, dealing with military administration, was first organized as a separate department by Balban.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1, 2 and 3

Cevap

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
All three statements correctly match medieval administrative departments with their respective Sultanate rulers and primary functions. Muhammad bin Tughlaq formed the agricultural department *Diwan-i-Kohi*; Alauddin Khalji created *Diwan-i-Mustakhraj* to recover revenue arrears; and Ghiyasuddin Balban organized *Diwan-i-Arz* as an independent military ministry.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding agricultural administration.
Muhammad bin Tughlaq established *Diwan-i-Amir-i-Kohi* to bring uncultivated land under farming using state funds and crop rotation policies, making Statement 1 correct.
Verifies agricultural department establishment under Tughlaq administrative reforms.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding revenue administration and arrears collection.
Alauddin Khalji instituted *Diwan-i-Mustakhraj* specifically to audit accounts and extract revenue arrears from village headmen (*muqaddams*, *khuts*) and revenue collectors, making Statement 2 correct.
Verifies revenue auditing department under Khalji economic and agrarian reforms.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding military department creation.
Ghiyasuddin Balban separated military affairs from the Finance Department (*Diwan-i-Wazarat*) and established *Diwan-i-Arz* under an *Ariz-i-Mamalik* to maintain a strong standing army, making Statement 3 correct.
Verifies military administration reforms during the Mamluk dynasty.

Anahtar Kavram

Central Administrative Departments of the Delhi Sultanate
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1751Soru

With reference to the Finance Commission of India constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The Constitution authorizes Parliament to determine by law the qualifications required for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner of their selection.

Cevap

The Constitution authorizes Parliament to determine by law the qualifications required for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner of their selection.
The statement regarding Parliament's authority to determine qualifications is correct because Article 280(2) explicitly grants Parliament the power to prescribe qualifications and selection criteria by law.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Constitutional Provision under Article 280(2)
Article 280(2) states that Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected.
The Constitution leaves the specific operational qualifications and selection procedure of Finance Commission members to parliamentary legislation (enacted via the Finance Commission Act, 1951).
2
Evaluate Reporting and Safeguard Provisions
Under Article 281, recommendations are submitted to the President (not the Speaker). Removal procedures and post-retirement eligibility differ from bodies like UPSC or CAG.
CAG and UPSC have strict constitutional post-retirement employment bars, whereas Finance Commission members are eligible for re-appointment under statutory provisions.

Anahtar Kavram

Powers of Parliament regarding Finance Commission Qualifications and Structure (Article 280)
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1752Soru

Which of the following statements regarding the atmospheric circulation and weather systems of India are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The shift of the monsoon trough toward the Himalayan foothills causes a temporary cessation of rainfall known as a 'break' over the northern plains of India.; Western Disturbances that bring crucial winter precipitation to north-western India are steered into the subcontinent by the Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream.

Cevap

The correct statements are that the shift of the monsoon trough toward the Himalayan foothills causes a break in rainfall over the northern plains, and that Western Disturbances are carried into north-western India by the Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream.
The statements confirming that the northward shift of the monsoon trough causes a monsoon 'break' over the northern plains and that the Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream steers Western Disturbances into India during winter are both meteorologically accurate.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze statement on monsoon break mechanisms
Shift of the low-pressure monsoon trough to the Himalayan foothills reduces rain over the plains and increases rain over the mountains, which constitutes a classic monsoon 'break'.
Topographic and pressure variations govern the position of the monsoon trough.
2
Analyze upper-air circulation during winter (Western Disturbances)
The Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream situated south of the Himalayas during winter transports extra-tropical weather systems (Western Disturbances) from the Mediterranean into India.
Upper-level westerly winds control winter weather patterns over northern India.
3
Evaluate jet stream seasonal movements and monsoon withdrawal spatial sequence
The Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet shifts north of the Himalayas during summer rather than remaining anchored south, and monsoon withdrawal starts in North-West India (Rajasthan), not South India.
Thermal heating of Tibet shifts jet streams northward in summer, while solar retreat initiates land cooling and monsoon withdrawal from the north-west.

Anahtar Kavram

Atmospheric Drivers of Indian Monsoon and Seasonal Weather Systems
Soru 1753Soru

With reference to the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, consider the following statements:

1. It recommended a three-tier executive and legislative structure comprising the Union, Groups of Provinces, and Provinces.
2. It rejected the demand for a separate, fully sovereign state of Pakistan.
3. It proposed that members of the Constituent Assembly be elected directly by adult suffrage.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
The Cabinet Mission Plan of May 1946 envisioned a three-tier federal structure consisting of the Union, Sections/Groups of Provinces (A, B, and C), and Provinces. It rejected a fully independent Pakistan to preserve defense and economic cohesion. Crucially, members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen through indirect elections by provincial assemblies, not direct adult franchise.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze statement 1 regarding administrative structure.
The Cabinet Mission Plan proposed a federal structure with three tiers: Union at the top, Groups of Provinces (Section A, B, C) in the middle, and individual Provinces at the base.
To verify the territorial and constitutional framework proposed by the Mission.
2
Analyze statement 2 regarding the demand for Pakistan.
The Plan explicitly rejected the demand for a separate sovereign state of Pakistan, arguing it would not solve the minority problem and would disrupt administrative, defense, and economic unity.
To verify the Cabinet Mission's official stance on partition.
3
Analyze statement 3 regarding election mechanism for the Constituent Assembly.
The Plan determined that direct election based on adult franchise would cause unacceptable delay. Therefore, it proposed indirect election of Constituent Assembly members by the newly elected Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
To evaluate the mode of election prescribed for framing the Indian Constitution.

Anahtar Kavram

Provisions of the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946)
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1754Soru

Match the constitutional provisions concerning the State Executive and Legislature in List-I with their corresponding Constitutional Articles in List-II.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Power of the Governor to grant pardons and suspend or commute sentences
Duties of the Chief Minister as respects the furnishing of information to the Governor
Special address by the Governor at the commencement of the first session of the State Legislature
Power of the Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of the State Legislature

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The power to grant pardons corresponds to Article 161; the duties of the Chief Minister regarding furnishing information correspond to Article 167; the special address by the Governor corresponds to Article 176; and the power to promulgate ordinances corresponds to Article 213.
Article 161 empowers the Governor to grant pardons and commute sentences for offences against state laws. Article 167 specifies the Chief Minister's duties to keep the Governor informed of administrative and legislative decisions. Article 176 governs the Governor's special address to the State Legislature. Article 213 grants the Governor legislative authority to issue ordinances when the assembly is not in session.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the constitutional article associated with the Governor's judicial powers.
Pardoning power of the Governor is codified under Article 161 of the Constitution.
Article 161 grants executive clemency powers to the Governor for offenses against state laws.
2
Identify the article detailing administrative duties of the Chief Minister towards the Governor.
Duties of the Chief Minister regarding communication of cabinet decisions and administrative information match Article 167.
Article 167 acts as the constitutional bridge between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
3
Determine the provision for legislative opening address by the Governor.
Special address by the Governor at the beginning of legislative sessions matches Article 176.
Article 176 outlines the requirement of the Governor addressing the house(s) assembled together.
4
Identify the ordinance-making power of the Governor.
Promulgation of ordinances during recess of the State Legislature matches Article 213.
Article 213 provides legislative powers to the Governor during legislative recess, parallel to the President's power under Article 123.

Anahtar Kavram

Constitutional Articles governing the State Executive and Legislature
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1755Soru

Match the following National Waterways of India in List-I with their corresponding river systems and operational stretches in List-II:

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

National Waterway-4 (NW-4)
National Waterway-5 (NW-5)
National Waterway-16 (NW-16)
National Waterway-3 (NW-3)

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

National Waterway-4 matches with Kakinada to Puducherry stretch integrated with Godavari and Krishna river systems; National Waterway-5 matches with Talcher to Dhamra stretch along Brahmani River and East Coast Canal; National Waterway-16 matches with Lakhipur to Bhanga stretch along the Barak River; National Waterway-3 matches with Kottapuram to Kollam stretch along the West Coast Canal and Champakara Canal.
Each National Waterway corresponds strictly to its declared river system and terminal stretches under Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) specifications: National Waterway-4 maps to the Kakinada-Puducherry canal and Krishna-Godavari network, National Waterway-5 maps to the Brahmani River and East Coast Canal system, National Waterway-16 maps to the Barak River stretch in Assam, and National Waterway-3 maps to Kerala's West Coast Canal from Kottapuram to Kollam.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the river stretch and geographical extent of NW-4.
NW-4 covers 1,095 km1,095\text{ km} linking Kakinada to Puducherry along the Godavari and Krishna river canals in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Puducherry.
NW-4 is designed to connect major ports of Kakinada and Puducherry via inland canal systems.
2
Identify the operational extent and river coverage of NW-5.
NW-5 covers 623 km623\text{ km} spanning the Brahmani River, Matai River, and East Coast Canal from Talcher to Dhamra in Odisha.
It primarily facilitates heavy mineral traffic and coal transportation from Talcher coalfields to Dhamra and Paradeep ports.
3
Determine the location and course of NW-16.
NW-16 spans 121 km121\text{ km} along the Barak River between Lakhipur and Bhanga in Assam.
Declared under the National Waterways Act, 2016, it provides crucial cargo connectivity in the North-Eastern Region.
4
Identify the canal network of NW-3.
NW-3 covers 205 km205\text{ km} running between Kottapuram and Kollam along the West Coast Canal in Kerala.
NW-3 is one of India's earliest declared national waterways providing continuous navigation through Kerala's backwater channels.

Anahtar Kavram

Inland Waterways Network and River Corridor Classification in India
Soru 1756Soru

Which of the following represents the correct chronological sequence of key organizational developments and political milestones during the early phase of the Indian national movement, arranged from the earliest to the latest?

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct chronological order from earliest to latest is: Convening of the First National Conference in Calcutta (December 1883) → Inaugural session of the Indian National Congress in Bombay (December 1885) → Election of Dadabhai Naoroji to the British House of Commons (July 1892) → Appointment of the Royal Commission on Indian Expenditure (Welby Commission) (May 1895).
The correct chronological sequence begins with the First National Conference in Calcutta (December 1883), followed by the inaugural session of the Indian National Congress in Bombay (December 1885), Dadabhai Naoroji's election to the British House of Commons (July 1892), and concludes with the appointment of the Welby Commission on Indian Expenditure (May 1895).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the year of the First National Conference in Calcutta
December 1883
The Indian Association organized the first All-India National Conference in Calcutta in December 1883 to bring delegates from across India together.
2
Identify the year of the inaugural INC session in Bombay
December 1885
The Indian National Congress held its first historical meeting in Bombay from 28 to 31 December 1885.
3
Identify the year of Dadabhai Naoroji's election to the British Parliament
July 1892
Dadabhai Naoroji won the election to the House of Commons as a Liberal candidate in July 1892.
4
Identify the year of the appointment of the Welby Commission
May 1895
In response to nationalist criticism regarding the financial drain, the British government appointed the Welby Commission in May 1895.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronological sequencing of early Indian nationalist institutional initiatives and political milestones from 1883 to 1895.
Soru 1757Soru

With reference to the constitutional protections in respect of conviction for offences guaranteed under Article 20 of Part III of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. The protection against ex-post facto laws under Article 20(1) extends to both criminal legislation and civil or tax liabilities imposed retroactively.
2. The protection against double jeopardy under Article 20(2) can be claimed only before a court of law or judicial tribunal, and does not apply to departmental or administrative proceedings.
3. The privilege against self-incrimination under Article 20(3) covers only testimonial compulsion and does not prohibit compelling an accused to provide thumb impressions, specimen signatures, or blood samples.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 2 and 3 only

Cevap

The statements asserting that double jeopardy protection applies strictly to judicial proceedings (Statement 2) and that self-incrimination protection does not extend to physical or material evidence (Statement 3) are correct.
The option selecting statements 2 and 3 is correct because Article 20(2) immunity against double jeopardy is restricted solely to judicial prosecutions before courts/tribunals (excluding departmental inquiries), and Article 20(3) protection against self-incrimination applies strictly to testimonial evidence rather than physical samples or specimens.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Ex-Post Facto Laws under Article 20(1)
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Article 20(1) prohibits retroactive criminal legislation (penal laws). It does not apply to civil liabilities or tax obligations, which can be enacted with retrospective effect.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Double Jeopardy under Article 20(2)
Statement 2 is correct.
Article 20(2) protects an individual from being prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence before a court of law or judicial tribunal. Departmental, administrative, or disciplinary proceedings by non-judicial authorities are not considered judicial prosecutions.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Self-Incrimination under Article 20(3)
Statement 3 is correct.
As held in State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad (1961), Article 20(3) protects against 'testimonial compulsion' (imparting personal knowledge orally or in writing). Giving thumb impressions, handwriting specimens, or blood samples constitutes physical/material evidence and is not covered under self-incrimination.

Anahtar Kavram

Constitutional safeguards against arbitrary conviction under Article 20 (Ex-post facto laws, Double Jeopardy, and Self-Incrimination)
Soru 1758Soru

Match the state executive and legislative constitutional features in Column I with their corresponding constitutional attributes and procedural rules in Column II.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Advocate General for the State (Article 165)
Special Procedure regarding Money Bills (Article 198)
Disqualification on grounds of Defection (Tenth Schedule)
Prorogation of the State Legislature (Article 174)

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Advocate General for the State corresponds to holding office during the pleasure of the Governor with rights to speak in the Legislature without voting; Special Procedure regarding Money Bills corresponds to requiring the Governor's prior recommendation for introduction in the Assembly; Disqualification on grounds of Defection corresponds to decision-making by the Presiding Officer rather than the Governor; Prorogation corresponds to terminating a session without causing pending bills to lapse.
The correct pairings accurately reflect the Constitutional distribution of executive and legislative powers: the Advocate General serves at the Governor's pleasure with non-voting speaking rights in the legislature; Money Bills require the Governor's prior recommendation and originate solely in the lower house; anti-defection disqualifications are decided by the Presiding Officer of the House rather than the Governor; and prorogation terminates a legislative session without causing pending bills to lapse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the constitutional role of the Advocate General for the State (Article 165 & Article 177).
The Advocate General is the chief legal advisor to the state government, appointed by and serving at the pleasure of the Governor, with rights to participate in state legislative proceedings without voting privileges.
Matching constitutional officer duties with executive pleasure and legislative audience rights.
2
Examine the procedural constraints on Money Bills in State Legislatures under Articles 198 and 207.
Money Bills require the prior recommendation of the Governor and can exclusively originate in the Legislative Assembly.
Distinguishing Financial and Money Bill initiation rules from ordinary legislative bills.
3
Differentiate disqualification procedures under Article 192 versus the Tenth Schedule.
While general constitutional disqualifications under Article 191(1) are decided by the Governor acting on Election Commission advice, defection disqualifications under the Tenth Schedule are decided exclusively by the Speaker/Chairman.
Avoiding the common misconception that the Governor decides all member disqualifications.
4
Evaluate the effect of Prorogation under Article 174 on pending legislative business.
Prorogation brings a session to an end but leaves pending bills alive, whereas dissolution terminates the Assembly itself.
Differentiating prorogation from dissolution regarding the lapsing of bills.

Anahtar Kavram

Constitutional Roles, Powers, and Procedural Rules of the State Executive and Legislature
Soru 1759Soru

With reference to the Indian Constitution and its judicial evolution regarding the relationship between Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), consider the following statements:

1. Article 31C, introduced by the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, protected laws giving effect to the Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) from being declared void on the ground of inconsistency with Article 14 or Article 19.
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, expanded the protective shield of Article 31C to cover laws giving effect to any Directive Principle enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution.
3. In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court upheld this expanded scope of Article 31C introduced by the 42nd Amendment, affirming the absolute supremacy of Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The statement combination '1 and 2 only' is correct. The 25th Amendment (1971) introduced Article 31C protecting Article 39(b) and (c) implementation from Article 14 and 19 challenges. The 42nd Amendment (1976) attempted to widen this immunity to all Directive Principles under Part IV. However, in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court struck down this broad extension, affirming that harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles forms part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971.
Statement 1 is correct. The 25th Amendment inserted Article 31C, which declared that no law implementing Directive Principles under Article 39(b) and 39(c) could be struck down for violating Articles 14, 19, or 31.
This provision aimed to secure social justice by preventing legal challenges to wealth redistribution and resource control laws.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Statement 2 is correct. The 42nd Amendment extended immunity under Article 31C to laws giving effect to ANY Directive Principle in Part IV, not just Article 39(b) and 39(c).
The government sought to give parliamentary primacy to all DPSP implementation over Fundamental Rights.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Minerva Mills Case (1980).
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court invalidated section 4 of the 42nd Amendment (which expanded Article 31C), holding that conferring absolute supremacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights destroys the basic structure of the Constitution.
The Court established that Part III and Part IV are built on a system of balance and harmony, neither being absolute over the other.

Anahtar Kavram

Harmony and Balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 31C and Minerva Mills Doctrine)
Soru 1760Soru

Which type of rural settlement pattern in India is typically characterized by a compact, closely built-up area of dwellings commonly found in fertile alluvial plains such as the Indo-Gangetic Plain?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Clustered settlements

Cevap

Clustered settlements
Clustered settlements (also referred to as compact or nucleated settlements) consist of a continuous and closely built-up living area. In India, these are widely observed in fertile alluvial plains such as the Indo-Gangetic Plain and parts of Northeastern states, where agricultural productivity supports concentrated communities.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the physical characteristics and geographical location provided in the stem.
The settlement pattern features compactly built dwelling units concentrated in fertile alluvial plains.
High soil fertility and water availability in plains like the Indo-Gangetic Plain support dense, contiguous human habitations.
2
Match the described spatial arrangement with the four primary Indian rural settlement classifications.
A closely built-up area of houses defines clustered (also known as nucleated or compact) settlements.
Dispersed settlements occur in rugged terrains, while hamleted settlements consist of separated clusters linked by social structure.

Anahtar Kavram

Classification of Rural Settlement Types in India
ÖncekiSayfa 88 / 230Sonraki
Tüm alıştırma soruları — State PSC Exam | Examkin