Examkin

Current Affairs and General Awareness

369 soru

Tüm türler369Çoktan seçmeli188Çoklu seçim62Eşleştirme81Sıralama38
Soru 1Soru →

With reference to the 'Digital Bharat Nidhi' established under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

1. It replaces the erstwhile Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) to support telecom connectivity.
2. Its mandate includes funding research, development, and pilot projects for indigenous telecom technologies.
3. It is directly administered and managed by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

1 and 2 only
The statements indicating the transition from the Universal Service Obligation Fund and the expansion of the fund's scope to support indigenous research, development, and pilot demonstrations are both factually and legally correct under the Telecommunications Act, 2023. The statement regarding management by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India is incorrect because the legislation mandates that the Digital Bharat Nidhi is administered by an administrator appointed by the Central Government.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Examine the statutory origin and institutional transition of the fund.
The Telecommunications Act, 2023 replaces the colonial-era Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and renames the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) as the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN).
This establishes that the first statement is factually correct.
2
Analyze the statutory objectives and utilization scope of the Digital Bharat Nidhi.
Unlike the erstwhile USOF which primarily focused on rural network expansion, the Digital Bharat Nidhi broadens its scope to fund research, technological development, pilot schemes, and commercialization of indigenous telecom technologies.
This establishes that the second statement is correct.
3
Verify the designated administrative and managing authority of the fund.
Under Section 25 of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, the fund is managed by an administrator appointed by the Central Government (under the Ministry of Communications / Department of Telecommunications), not by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
This establishes that the third statement is incorrect.
4
Synthesize the evaluation to select the correct statement combination.
Only the first and second statements are correct.
Combining statements 1 and 2 satisfies the question requirements.

Anahtar Kavram

Statutory Governance and Scope of Digital Bharat Nidhi under the Telecommunications Act, 2023
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 2Soru →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'SUBHADRA Yojana' launched by the Government of Odisha:

1. It provides a total financial assistance of ₹50,000 to eligible women over a period of five years.
2. The annual assistance is disbursed in two equal installments of ₹5,000 each directly into Aadhaar-enabled bank accounts.
3. The scheme is exclusively meant for senior citizens aged 60 years and above from Below Poverty Line families.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under the SUBHADRA Yojana of Odisha, eligible women receive ₹50,000 over five years (₹10,000 annually), disbursed in two equal installments of ₹5,000 each via Direct Benefit Transfer on Rakhi Purnima and International Women's Day. Statement 3 is incorrect because the target age group is 21 to 60 years.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the financial entitlement and tenure under the scheme.
Statement 1 is correct because the SUBHADRA Yojana provides ₹10,000 per year for five years, making the total assistance ₹50,000.
Verifying the core financial outlay and duration parameters.
2
Examine the mode and schedule of payment disbursal.
Statement 2 is correct because the annual ₹10,000 is credited in two equal installments of ₹5,000 each (on Raksha Bandhan and International Women's Day) via Direct Benefit Transfer into Aadhaar-linked accounts.
Checking the operational fund transfer framework.
3
Assess the age and beneficiary eligibility criteria.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the scheme covers women in the age bracket of 21 to 60 years, not senior citizens aged 60 and above.
Evaluating demographic eligibility limits.

Anahtar Kavram

Operational and eligibility parameters of state flagship women empowerment schemes
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 3Soru →

Match the state-specific welfare schemes listed in List-I with their corresponding core policy objectives listed in List-II:

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Kanyashree Prakalpa
Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana
Mukhyamantri Kisan Kalyan Yojana
YSR Cheyutha

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Kanyashree Prakalpa matches with conditional cash transfers to prevent child marriage; Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana matches with universal cashless health insurance coverage; Mukhyamantri Kisan Kalyan Yojana matches with supplementary direct income support to farmers; and YSR Cheyutha matches with multi-year financial empowerment assistance to women aged 45–60 years.
Each scheme is accurately paired with its core policy objective: Kanyashree Prakalpa focuses on adolescent girls' education and delaying marriage; Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana delivers universal cashless health insurance; Mukhyamantri Kisan Kalyan Yojana provides top-up cash assistance to farmers; and YSR Cheyutha supports economic empowerment for marginalized women aged 45–60.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary mandate of Kanyashree Prakalpa
Recognized as West Bengal's flagship conditional cash transfer scheme targeted at adolescent girls' education and marriage prevention.
The scheme links financial transfers to remaining unmarried and enrolled in education until age 18.
2
Identify the primary mandate of Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana
Recognized as Rajasthan's comprehensive health protection program.
The policy provides extensive cashless coverage across empanelled hospitals for families.
3
Identify the primary mandate of Mukhyamantri Kisan Kalyan Yojana
Recognized as Madhya Pradesh's state-level top-up income scheme for farmers.
It complements the national PM-KISAN payments with state-funded direct cash installments.
4
Identify the primary mandate of YSR Cheyutha
Recognized as Andhra Pradesh's targeted financial inclusion program for middle-aged women from marginalized categories.
It provides financial aid specifically to women in the 45–60 age bracket to foster sustainable livelihoods.

Anahtar Kavram

Core mandates and target demographics of flagship state-specific welfare schemes across Indian states
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 4Soru →

Which economic and strategic multilateral grouping, comprising India, Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and the United States, is informally referred to as the 'West Asian Quad'?

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Cevap: I2U2 Group

Cevap

The correct answer is the I2U2 Group.
The I2U2 Group is formed by India, Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and the United States (hence 'I2' for India and Israel, and 'U2' for the UAE and the US). It focuses on joint investments and initiatives in six mutually identified areas: water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security.

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1
Identify the member countries from the abbreviation in the grouping name.
I2 represents India and Israel, while U2 represents the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and the United States (US).
The acronym directly corresponds to the founding member nations.
2
Verify the regional focus and nickname of the grouping.
Formed to foster economic collaboration across sectors such as water, energy, space, and transportation in West Asia and beyond, it is informally dubbed the 'West Asian Quad'.
It creates a complementary strategic-economic framework in West Asia analogous to the Quad in the Indo-Pacific.

Anahtar Kavram

I2U2 Group Membership and Multilateral Framework
Soru 5Soru →

Which country officially became the 10th full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) during the Council of Heads of State summit held in Astana in July 2024?

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Cevap: Belarus

Cevap

Belarus officially became the 10th full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) during the 24th Meeting of the SCO Council of Heads of State held in Astana, Kazakhstan, in July 2024.
Belarus was officially admitted as the 10th full member state of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) at the 24th summit of the SCO Council of Heads of State held in Astana, Kazakhstan, in July 2024.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the historical expansion timeline of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
The SCO originally comprised 6 founding members (China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan). India and Pakistan joined in 2017, and Iran joined as the 9th member in 2023.
Tracking member accession chronological order helps eliminate previously admitted countries and non-member observer states.
2
Determine the new member inducted during the July 2024 Astana Summit.
Belarus completed the formal accession process and signed the protocol to become the 10th member of the bloc.
Direct recall of recent multilateral summit decisions.

Anahtar Kavram

Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Expansion and Membership
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 6Soru →

Regarding fiscal deficit metrics, expenditure accounting, and government borrowing mechanisms under the Union Budget of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Capital receipts either create financial liabilities or reduce government financial assets, whereas revenue receipts neither create liabilities nor lead to asset reduction.; Effective Revenue Deficit is derived by deducting grants-in-aid provided to States and Union Territories for the creation of capital assets from the Revenue Deficit.

Cevap

The correct statements are that capital receipts either create liabilities or reduce financial assets while revenue receipts do neither, and that Effective Revenue Deficit is calculated by subtracting grants-in-aid for capital asset creation from the total Revenue Deficit.
Capital receipts alter the net liability or asset position of the government, while revenue receipts do not affect liabilities or capital asset stocks. Furthermore, Effective Revenue Deficit specifically removes grants-in-aid meant for capital asset creation from total revenue deficit to reflect actual consumption expenditure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the classification of government receipts
Capital receipts create debt liabilities or liquidate assets, whereas revenue receipts do not generate liabilities or decrease capital assets.
This is the fundamental accounting definition specified in Union Budget documents and fiscal economics.
2
Evaluate the definition and accounting adjustment for Effective Revenue Deficit
Effective Revenue Deficit equals Revenue Deficit minus Grants-in-aid for creation of capital assets.
Although grants to states are revenue outlay for the Central Government, they build capital assets for states, necessitating this adjustment under the FRBM framework.
3
Verify the budgetary classification of Sovereign Green Bond proceeds
Sovereign Green Bonds represent public debt borrowings and are classified as Capital Receipts, not non-tax Revenue Receipts.
All sovereign borrowing instruments fall under internal debt within Capital Receipts.
4
Verify the formula for Gross Primary Deficit
Primary Deficit is Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments, not plus interest payments.
Primary deficit measures fiscal imbalance caused by current policies separate from past debt obligations.

Anahtar Kavram

Budgetary Deficit Metrics and Receipt Classification
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 7Soru →

Who among the following was appointed as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India by the Government of India?

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Cevap: Arvind Panagariya

Cevap

Arvind Panagariya was appointed as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India.
Dr. Arvind Panagariya, a prominent economist and former Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog, was appointed by the President of India to head the 16th Finance Commission.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the constitutional body and event referenced in the prompt.
The prompt refers to the appointment of the Chairman for the 16th Finance Commission constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
Establishing the correct context distinguishes recent appointments from historical positions.
2
Match the specified post with the correct appointee.
Dr. Arvind Panagariya was notified by the Government of India as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission.
Dr. Panagariya leads the commission tasked with recommending tax revenue distribution between the Union and the States.

Anahtar Kavram

Key Appointments and Persons in News - 16th Finance Commission
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 8Soru →

With reference to recent global advancements in quantum computing and satellite-based quantum communications, specifically regarding quantum key distribution (QKD) networks and optical ground stations, which of the following statements are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Satellite-based QKD utilizes photon entanglement to generate shared secret keys across continental distances without relying on trusted nodes for security.; Atmospheric turbulence and daylight background noise pose major technical hurdles, requiring adaptive optics and narrow spectral filtering for daytime quantum optical links.; Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellites are preferred over Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellites for initial quantum communication constellations primarily because GEO satellites suffer higher free-space path loss and diffraction losses.

Cevap

The correct statements are those describing entanglement-based QKD security across continental distances, the atmospheric mitigation techniques of adaptive optics and spectral filtering, and the orbital altitude selection based on free-space path loss.
Satellite-based QKD using entangled photon pairs ensures security through quantum non-locality without requiring trusted orbital nodes. Furthermore, free-space transmission faces severe atmospheric turbulence and solar background noise, requiring adaptive optics and narrow spectral filters for operation. Finally, low Earth orbits are favored over geostationary orbits because the dramatically lower free-space path loss allows detectable single-photon transmission rates given current telescope aperture sizes.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate statement on satellite-based entanglement QKD.
Entanglement-based QKD protocols (like E91) establish security via Bell state measurement and quantum non-locality. The satellite acts purely as a source of entangled pairs rather than a trusted relay, making the statement correct.
Understanding the fundamental distinction between trusted-relay QKD and entanglement-based untrusted relay QKD.
2
Evaluate atmospheric challenges in optical quantum communications.
Free-space optical quantum links are heavily constrained by atmospheric turbulence causing wavefront error and ambient solar background noise during daylight. Mitigations include spatial, temporal, and spectral filtering combined with adaptive optics, making the statement correct.
Analyzing optical engineering constraints in free-space quantum transmission.
3
Evaluate the feasibility of standard optical amplifiers for quantum signals.
Conventional EDFAs rely on stimulated emission which destroys quantum states and violates the No-Cloning Theorem (dψ→dψ⊗dψd\psi \rightarrow d\psi \otimes d\psi). Quantum repeaters, not standard amplifiers, are required to extend quantum communication distances. Thus, the statement is incorrect.
Applying quantum mechanical principles regarding state measurement and signal replication limits.
4
Evaluate orbital dynamics and signal attenuation differences between LEO and GEO.
Free-space path loss scales with the square of distance (Lp∝d2L_p \propto d^2). Signal attenuation over tens of thousands of kilometers (GEO) reduces single-photon count rates below detector background noise levels, favoring LEO deployment for initial operational quantum constellations. Thus, the statement is correct.
Synthesizing orbital physics with optical attenuation parameters.

Anahtar Kavram

Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) and Satellite-based Quantum Communications
Soru 9Soru →

Who among the following was elected as the President of the 79th session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) in June 2024?

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Cevap: Philemon Yang

Cevap

Philemon Yang was elected as the President of the 79th session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
Philemon Yang, the former Prime Minister of Cameroon, was elected as the President of the 79th session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) in June 2024, assuming office in September 2024.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the key international appointment for the leadership of the 79th UNGA session in 2024.
Philemon Yang, former Prime Minister of Cameroon, was officially elected by acclamation on June 6, 2024.
Recalling high-profile international appointments is vital for general awareness assessments.

Anahtar Kavram

Major International Appointments and Leadership in Multilateral Bodies
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 10Soru →

With reference to recent major achievements in Indian sports, national sports awards, and international tournaments, consider the following statements:

1. Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy were jointly conferred the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award for their outstanding performances in Badminton.
2. Sheetal Devi became the first armless female archer to win a medal at the World Archery Para Championships and was subsequently awarded the Arjuna Award.
3. Harvinder Singh became the first Indian archer to win a Paralympic gold medal at the Paris 2024 Paralympic Games.
4. Manu Bhaker became the first athlete from independent India to win three medals at a single edition of the Olympic Games.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 1, 2, and 3 only

Cevap

Statements 1, 2, and 3 only are correct.
Statements 1, 2, and 3 accurately describe major milestones in Indian sports history. Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy received the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award. Sheetal Devi won silver at the World Archery Para Championships and received the Arjuna Award. Harvinder Singh won India's first Paralympic gold in archery at Paris 2024. Statement 4 is false because Manu Bhaker secured two bronze medals, not three, at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award recipient pair.
Statement 1 is CORRECT. Badminton duo Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy were jointly awarded India's highest sports honor, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, following their historic titles at the Asian Games, Badminton Asia Championships, and Indonesia Open.
Verifies national sports honors awarded by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Sheetal Devi's para-archery milestone and award.
Statement 2 is CORRECT. Sheetal Devi achieved international recognition as the first armless female archer to win a silver medal at the World Archery Para Championships in Pilsen and was conferred the Arjuna Award for 2023.
Verifies historical records in international para-sports competitions.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Harvinder Singh's Paralympic gold medal achievement.
Statement 3 is CORRECT. Harvinder Singh won gold in the Men's Individual Recurve Open at the Paris 2024 Paralympics, securing India's first-ever Paralympic gold medal in archery.
Verifies historical medal records at the Paralympic Games.
4
Evaluate Statement 4 regarding Manu Bhaker's Olympic medal tally at Paris 2024.
Statement 4 is INCORRECT. Manu Bhaker became the first athlete from independent India to win TWO medals at a single edition of the Olympic Games (Bronze in Women's 10m Air Pistol and Bronze in 10m Air Pistol Mixed Team with Sarabjot Singh). She finished 4th in the 25m Pistol event, narrowly missing a third medal.
Distinguishes between winning two medals vs three medals at Paris 2024.

Anahtar Kavram

Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, Arjuna Awardees, and Paris 2024 Olympic/Paralympic Records
Soru 11Soru →

Arrange the following global leadership appointments of 2024 in chronological order based on when the leaders officially assumed office (from earliest to latest).

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Gabriel Attal assuming office as Prime Minister of France (January 2024), followed by Lawrence Wong assuming office as Prime Minister of Singapore (May 2024), then Keir Starmer assuming office as Prime Minister of the United Kingdom (July 2024), and finally Claudia Sheinbaum assuming office as President of Mexico (October 2024).
The correct sequence follows the exact order of assumption of office: France's Gabriel Attal in January 2024, Singapore's Lawrence Wong in May 2024, the UK's Keir Starmer in July 2024, and Mexico's Claudia Sheinbaum in October 2024.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine the date Gabriel Attal assumed office as Prime Minister of France
Gabriel Attal assumed office on January 9, 2024.
Marks the earliest appointment among the given options in 2024.
2
Determine the date Lawrence Wong assumed office as Prime Minister of Singapore
Lawrence Wong assumed office on May 15, 2024.
Succeeded Lee Hsien Loong in mid-May 2024.
3
Determine the date Keir Starmer assumed office as Prime Minister of the United Kingdom
Keir Starmer assumed office on July 5, 2024.
Formed government in early July 2024 following parliamentary elections.
4
Determine the date Claudia Sheinbaum assumed office as President of Mexico
Claudia Sheinbaum assumed office on October 1, 2024.
Inaugurated as President of Mexico in October 2024, completing the timeline.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronological arrangement of key global political appointments and persons in news
Soru 12Soru →

With reference to the Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme (Indira Gandhi Shahari Rozgar Guarantee Yojana) operational in Rajasthan, consider the following statements:

1. It offers a guarantee of 125 days of wage employment in a financial year to urban households demanding work.
2. Urban residents in the age group of 18 to 60 years registered under the Jan Aadhaar Card system are eligible for employment under the scheme.
3. The scheme is administered and implemented at the nodal level by the Department of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
The Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme guarantees 125 days of wage labor per financial year to eligible families living in urban local body areas. The scheme requires beneficiaries to be in the 18 to 60 years age bracket and registered through the Jan Aadhaar platform. The nodal supervisory body is the Department of Local Self Government (Urban Governance), rendering the first two statements accurate and the third statement false.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding employment days
Statement 1 is correct
The Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme (IRGY) was introduced to provide livelihood security in urban areas, guaranteeing 100 days initially, which was subsequently increased to 125 days of wage employment per household per financial year.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding beneficiary eligibility and age criteria
Statement 2 is correct
Members of families residing within the limits of urban local bodies aged between 18 and 60 years who hold a Jan Aadhaar card or registration are eligible for work allocation under the scheme.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the nodal implementing department
Statement 3 is incorrect
Because the scheme caters specifically to urban local bodies (municipal corporations, councils, and municipalities), its nodal implementing agency is the Department of Local Self Government (LSG), Rajasthan, not the Department of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj.

Anahtar Kavram

Key structural parameters, beneficiary eligibility criteria, and administrative framework of state-specific urban wage employment guarantee schemes.
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 13Soru →

Chronologically order the following major parliamentary legislations aimed at institutional integrity, transparency, and economic governance in India, from the earliest to the most recent enactment year:

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Whistle Blowers Protection Act (2014), Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (2016), Fugitive Economic Offenders Act (2018), and Mediation Act (2023).
The correct chronological order places the Whistle Blowers Protection Act first (enacted in 2014), followed by the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (enacted in 2016), then the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act (enacted in 2018), and concludes with the Mediation Act (enacted in 2023).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the enactment year of the Whistle Blowers Protection Act.
Enacted in 2014.
The bill received presidential assent in May 2014 as part of administrative anti-corruption reforms.
2
Identify the enactment year of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA).
Enacted in 2016.
Passed by Parliament in March 2016 to introduce state regulatory authorities and transparent escrow mechanisms for homebuyers.
3
Identify the enactment year of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act.
Enacted in 2018.
Enacted in July 2018 in response to major bank fraud cases where accused individuals fled abroad.
4
Identify the enactment year of the Mediation Act.
Enacted in 2023.
Enacted in September 2023 to institutionalize pre-litigation mediation and establish the Mediation Council of India.
5
Arrange the enactments in ascending chronological order.
2014 → 2016 → 2018 → 2023.
Sequence corresponds to Whistle Blowers Protection Act, followed by RERA, Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, and Mediation Act.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronological evolution of key legislative frameworks governing administrative transparency, economic accountability, and dispute resolution in India.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 14Soru →

Under the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, enacted to streamline digital public service delivery and create a centralized civil database, which document has been statutorily designated as the single conclusive proof of date and place of birth for school admissions, voter registration, government appointments, and issuance of passports and driving licences?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Digital Birth Certificate issued through the Civil Registration System portal

Cevap

Digital Birth Certificate issued through the Civil Registration System portal
The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act modernized the Civil Registration System by creating a digital, interconnected national and state database. Under this legislation, the digital birth certificate is statutorily established as the single comprehensive document to prove the date and place of birth for multiple civic processes, including school admissions, passport issuance, driving licence applications, voter registration, marriage registrations, and recruitment to public posts.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Examine the statutory objective of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act.
The Act amends the parent 1969 legislation to build a centralized national and state database of civil registrations under the Registrar General of India.
Understanding the legislative framework is necessary to identify which document was granted statutory primacy.
2
Analyze the specific provision concerning documentary proof for public governance services.
Section 3 of the amended Act mandates that the digital birth certificate alone shall serve as conclusive single proof of age and birth for educational admissions, voter lists, driving licences, passports, and public employment.
This establishes the legal standard that replaces multiple disparate age-verification documents.
3
Differentiate from alternative identity and educational credentials.
Documents like Aadhaar, EPIC, and matriculation certificates serve distinct identity or educational functions and do not possess statutory designation as the primary civil record of birth under this governance act.
Eliminating functional overlaps prevents conflation of identity proof with birth registration certification.

Anahtar Kavram

Statutory modernization of civil registration and the single-document digital governance framework under the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 15Soru →

Match the national governance initiatives and digital platforms with their primary functional mandates:

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

BHASHINI
PM-PRANAM
MY Bharat (Mera Yuva Bharat)
SATHI Portal

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

BHASHINI pairs with providing an AI-driven open-source ecosystem for language translation; PM-PRANAM pairs with incentivizing the balanced use of chemical fertilizers; MY Bharat pairs with facilitating a technology-driven unified platform for youth development; SATHI Portal pairs with ensuring centralized seed certification, quality authentication, and supply-chain traceability.
Each national initiative is accurately matched to its core sectoral objective: BHASHINI provides AI language models for Indian languages; PM-PRANAM addresses soil nourishment by rationalizing chemical fertilizer subsidies; MY Bharat facilitates youth-led governance and skill engagement; and SATHI secures seed verification and distribution tracking.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the mandate of the digital language platform BHASHINI
BHASHINI corresponds to building AI-based digital infrastructure for multilingual translation across Indian languages.
The National Language Translation Mission (BHASHINI) was launched to make digital services accessible in local Indian languages.
2
Identify the objective of the agricultural scheme PM-PRANAM
PM-PRANAM corresponds to promoting alternative fertilizers and reducing excessive chemical fertilizer usage.
The scheme saves fiscal subsidy outlays to reward states that demonstrate reductions in chemical fertilizer consumption.
3
Identify the institutional framework of MY Bharat
MY Bharat corresponds to youth empowerment, leadership development, and civic engagement.
Established under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, it acts as a digital bridge between youth and government initiatives.
4
Identify the core feature of the SATHI Portal
SATHI Portal corresponds to seed authentication and holistic inventory tracking.
Developed by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, SATHI enforces quality seed certification via QR code tracking from breeder to farmer.

Anahtar Kavram

Key functional mandates and operational objectives of flagship national governance initiatives, acts, and digital portals
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 16Soru →

Under the governance and rural transformation framework of the Government of India, the SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) scheme was rolled out nationwide to reform land record management. Which of the following statements accurately characterizes the primary mandate and operational mechanism of this scheme?

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Cevap: It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj that deploys drone surveying technology to map inhabited rural areas and issue digitized property ownership cards.

Cevap

It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj that deploys drone surveying technology to map inhabited rural areas and issue digitized property ownership cards.
The SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) scheme is a flagship Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. Implemented with the technical support of the Survey of India, State Revenue Departments, and State Panchayati Raj Departments, it uses drone mapping and high-precision Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS) networks to survey inhabited rural settlements (Abadi areas). This enables the generation of accurate spatial maps and the distribution of formal Property Cards (or Sampatti Patrak) to rural households, facilitating access to institutional credit and minimizing title litigation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the nodal ministry and scheme classification of the SVAMITVA initiative.
The SVAMITVA scheme is a 100% centrally funded Central Sector Scheme administered by the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR).
Governance schemes in State PSC exams require accurate distinction between Central Sector and Centrally Sponsored schemes, as well as precise attribution of the administrative ministry.
2
Examine the technical methodology and geographic target area of the initiative.
The scheme utilizes drone-based aerial survey technology alongside the Survey of India to map inhabited village areas ('Abadi' parcels).
The core innovation of the scheme is replacing manual surveys with drone photogrammetry specifically in inhabited rural tracts rather than agricultural farmlands.
3
Evaluate the ultimate policy deliverable and socio-economic outcome.
The initiative creates definitive spatial property records and issues digitized 'Property Cards' (Sampatti Patrak) to rural property owners to enable financial monetization and reduce land disputes.
Establishing clear property rights serves as the foundational objective of the governance intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

SVAMITVA Scheme Architecture and Governance Mandate
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 17Soru →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mahtari Vandan Yojana' implemented by the Government of Chhattisgarh:

1. It provides direct financial assistance of ₹1,000 per month (₹12,000 annually) to eligible beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
2. Unmarried women aged 18 years and above residing in the state are the primary target beneficiaries.
3. The Department of Women and Child Development serves as the nodal administrative department for its execution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1 and 3 only

Cevap

1 and 3 only
The combination indicating statements 1 and 3 only is correct because the Mahtari Vandan Yojana provides ₹1,000 per month via Direct Benefit Transfer and is administered by the Department of Women and Child Development of Chhattisgarh. Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme restricts eligibility to married women aged 21 and above, rather than unmarried women aged 18.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate statement 1 regarding financial quantum and disbursement mode
Statement 1 is correct. The Mahtari Vandan Yojana provides ₹1,000 per month (total ₹12,000 per annum) directly credited to the beneficiary's Aadhaar-linked bank account via DBT.
Verifying the core financial entitlement parameter of the state welfare scheme.
2
Evaluate statement 2 regarding beneficiary target demographic and age criteria
Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme is designed exclusively for married women who are domicile residents of Chhattisgarh, having attained the age of 21 years as of January 1 of the application year. Widows, divorced, and abandoned women are also eligible, but unmarried women are not covered.
Checking eligibility criteria against official state policy guidelines.
3
Evaluate statement 3 regarding the nodal implementing department
Statement 3 is correct. The Department of Women and Child Development, Government of Chhattisgarh, is the nodal authority responsible for planning, verifying, and executing the scheme.
Identifying the administrative machinery governing the flagship initiative.
4
Synthesize the findings to choose the correct combination
Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
Matching the evaluated statements with the appropriate answer option.

Anahtar Kavram

Eligibility conditions, financial transfers, and administrative mechanisms of state flagship women empowerment schemes
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 18Soru →

With reference to the flagship 'Makkalai Thedi Maruthuvam' (Healthcare at Doorsteps) initiative launched by the Government of Tamil Nadu, evaluate the following statements:

Statement I: The scheme is designed to deliver comprehensive doorstep healthcare services, routine medical screening, and home delivery of essential drugs primarily for chronic non-communicable diseases such as hypertension and diabetes.
Statement II: The field-level execution of the initiative is spearheaded by the Department of Health and Family Welfare through Women Health Volunteers and Village Health Nurses.

Which of the following evaluations is correct regarding the statements above?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Cevap

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
The evaluation stating that both statements are correct is accurate because 'Makkalai Thedi Maruthuvam' is a pioneer community healthcare scheme launched in Tamil Nadu to tackle non-communicable diseases (NCDs). The program provides doorstep screening, diagnosis, and monthly supplies of essential medications for diabetes and hypertension, in addition to palliative and physiotherapy services. It is administered by the state's Department of Health and Family Welfare through field-level Women Health Volunteers (WHVs) and Village Health Nurses (VHNs).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Statement I regarding the scope, clinical focus, and service delivery model of Makkalai Thedi Maruthuvam.
Statement I is confirmed to be correct as the scheme focuses on eliminating out-of-pocket expenses and ensuring drug compliance for non-communicable diseases (NCDs) like hypertension and diabetes via home delivery.
Verify the policy mandate and target health conditions addressed by the state welfare scheme.
2
Analyze Statement II regarding the nodal administrative department and the grassroots workforce deployed.
Statement II is confirmed to be correct as the Tamil Nadu Department of Health and Family Welfare implements the initiative using Women Health Volunteers (WHVs) and Village Health Nurses (VHNs).
Verify the governance framework and field implementation mechanism of the initiative.
3
Synthesize the evaluation of both statements to select the matching option.
Both statements are factually sound and mutually consistent.
Determine the accurate composite evaluation option.

Anahtar Kavram

Makkalai Thedi Maruthuvam Healthcare Delivery and Institutional Framework
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 19Soru →

Regarding the eligibility criteria, financial provisions, and implementation framework of the 'Yuva Nidhi Scheme' launched by the Government of Karnataka, which of the following statements are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: It provides direct monthly financial assistance of ₹3,000 to unemployed graduates and ₹1,500 to unemployed diploma holders.; To qualify for the benefit, candidates must have remained unemployed for a minimum duration of six months after passing their degree or diploma.

Cevap

The provisions establishing the monthly allowance of ₹3,000 for graduates and ₹1,500 for diploma holders, along with the requirement of a mandatory six-month unemployment duration post-completion of studies, are correct.
The Yuva Nidhi scheme guarantees ₹3,000 per month to unemployed graduates and ₹1,500 per month to unemployed diploma holders across Karnataka, provided they have remained unemployed for at least six months post-course completion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the financial entitlement parameters under the Yuva Nidhi framework
The scheme stipulates ₹3,000 per month for unemployed degree holders and ₹1,500 per month for unemployed diploma holders.
Verifying the financial support tiers designed to bridge the transition between formal graduation and employment.
2
Assess the tenure limit and ongoing eligibility exclusions
Assistance is capped at two years and terminates immediately if the individual gains employment or pursues regular higher education.
Targeted welfare schemes prevent overlapping government benefits and focus strictly on active job seekers.
3
Examine the qualifying waiting period requirement
Applicants must demonstrate at least six months of continuous unemployment post-graduation.
This filtering criterion ensures support is directed to individuals genuinely facing extended job-market friction.

Anahtar Kavram

State-specific youth welfare architecture and targeted unemployment assistance norms
Soru 20Soru →

Arrange the following landmark legislative acts enacted by the Parliament of India to strengthen administrative governance, public integrity, and scientific development in chronological order of their enactment (from the earliest to the most recent):

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Consumer Protection Act (2019) → Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act (2022) → Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) Act (2023) → Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act (2024)
The correct chronological progression begins with the Consumer Protection Act passed in August 2019, followed by the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act in April 2022, the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) Act in August 2023, and concludes with the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act in February 2024.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the year of enactment for the Consumer Protection Act.
The Consumer Protection Act was passed by the Parliament and received presidential assent in August 2019.
It repealed the 1986 statute to address modern e-commerce challenges and establish the CCPA.
2
Identify the year of enactment for the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act.
The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act was enacted in April 2022.
It repealed the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920, enabling modern criminal identification procedures.
3
Identify the year of enactment for the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) Act.
The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) Act was passed in August 2023.
It operationalized key governance recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 regarding R&D.
4
Identify the year of enactment for the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act.
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act was passed in February 2024.
It was enacted to provide a dedicated central statutory framework to combat unfair means in recruitment examinations.
5
Sequence the acts chronologically from earliest to most recent.
The correct chronological sequence is 2019, 2022, 2023, and 2024.
Ordering by timeline gives: Consumer Protection Act (2019), Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act (2022), Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) Act (2023), and Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act (2024).

Anahtar Kavram

Chronology of major governance initiatives and legislative reforms in India
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Sayfa 1 / 19Sonraki
Current Affairs and General Awareness Alıştırma Soruları — State PSC Exam | Examkin