A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from an assisted living facility due to progressively worsening abdominal distension and failure to pass stool or flatus for the past 3 days. His medical history includes chronic constipation, hypertension, and schizophrenia. His vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, pulse 85/min, and respirations 16/min. On physical examination, the abdomen is massively distended and tympanitic to percussion, but there is no guarding or rebound tenderness. Digital rectal examination reveals an empty rectal vault. An upright abdominal X-ray demonstrates a markedly dilated loop of colon extending from the pelvis toward the right upper quadrant, resembling a "coffee bean," with no evidence of pneumoperitoneum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Flexible sigmoidoscopyCevap
- BUrgent exploratory laparotomy
- CNasogastric tube decompression and intravenous fluids
- DIntravenous neostigmine administration
- EIntravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics