A -year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe shortness of breath and wheezing that began hours ago. She has a history of poorly controlled hypertension and a -pack-year smoking history. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and oxygen saturation is on room air. Physical examination reveals distended jugular veins, a third heart sound (S3) on cardiac auscultation, and bilateral diffuse wheezing intermixed with bibasilar crackles. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic therapy for this patient?
- Intravenous furosemideCevap
- BInhaled albuterol and ipratropium
- CIntravenous methylprednisolone
- DOral metoprolol
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Cevap
Intravenous furosemide is the most appropriate initial therapy.
The correct option provides a loop diuretic, which is the cornerstone of initial therapy for acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). This patient presents with classic signs of volume overload and left ventricular failure, including an S3 gallop, elevated jugular venous pressure, and bibasilar crackles. The wheezing is a result of peribronchial edema (often referred to as 'cardiac asthma'). Intravenous furosemide rapidly decreases preload and pulmonary congestion, improving oxygenation and respiratory distress.
Adım Adım Çözüm
Anahtar Kavram
Differentiation and acute management of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) presenting as cardiac asthma.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s