A patient is hospitalized for the management of an acute, swollen, and exquisitely tender left knee. Diagnostic arthrocentesis performed at admission yielded opaque, purulent synovial fluid, prompting the immediate initiation of empiric antimicrobial therapy with intravenous vancomycin and intravenous ceftriaxone. Over the past 48 hours, the patient has demonstrated marked clinical improvement, with complete resolution of fever and a significant decrease in joint effusion. The microbiology laboratory subsequently contacts the team to report that the admission synovial fluid culture is growing *Streptococcus pyogenes* (Group A Streptococcus). The isolate demonstrates standard susceptibility patterns to all tested beta-lactams, macrolides, and fluoroquinolones. In accordance with the principles of antimicrobial stewardship, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Transition to intravenous penicillin GCevap
- BMaintain the current regimen of intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- CDiscontinue ceftriaxone and maintain intravenous vancomycin
- DTransition to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- ETransition to oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole