An obese 61-year-old man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus is evaluated in the emergency department for worsening anterior chest pain, shortness of breath, and chills. He underwent elective four-vessel coronary artery bypass grafting 12 days ago. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . On physical examination, the patient appears toxic and diaphoretic. The sternal incision is erythematous, warm, and draining foul-smelling, purulent fluid. Palpation of the anterior chest wall reveals a palpable click during deep inspiration, and the sternal edges are independently mobile. Laboratory evaluation is notable for a leukocyte count of with bands, and a serum lactate of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIntravenous vancomycin and application of negative pressure wound therapy
- BAdministration of intravenous furosemide and noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
- Emergent surgical exploration and mediastinal debridementCevap
- DComputed tomography of the chest with intravenous contrast
- ESputum culture, chest radiography, and empiric piperacillin-tazobactam