Emergency medical responders transport a 48-year-old male to the trauma bay after he was found obtunded in his apartment. According to his live-in girlfriend, the patient has a history of treatment-resistant depression managed with phenelzine. She notes that over the past two days, he consumed multiple bottles of over-the-counter dextromethorphan for an upper respiratory infection. Vital signs upon arrival include a temperature of (), heart rate of , blood pressure of , and respiratory rate of . Physical examination is remarkable for profuse diaphoresis, hyperactive bowel sounds, and pronounced hyperreflexia with bilateral ankle clonus. The patient is stuporous and unable to communicate. A review of the electronic medical record reveals a legally executed advance directive designating the patient's sister as his sole healthcare proxy. Reached by telephone, the sister unequivocally requests that all life-sustaining and necessary medical treatments be provided. However, the girlfriend, who is present at the bedside, demands that no interventions be initiated, claiming the patient recently expressed a desire to 'die naturally without medical interference.' Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AWithhold pharmacological antidotes to honor the girlfriend's report of the patient's wishes.
- BAdminister intravenous citalopram to acutely manage the underlying psychiatric decompensation.
- Initiate cyproheptadine and supportive care in accordance with the sister's directive.Cevap
- DProvide the girlfriend with the full medical record to facilitate a consensus decision.
- EDiagnose brief psychotic disorder given the sudden behavioral change and administer haloperidol.