A 32-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 1-week history of fever, chills, and profound fatigue. He has a history of intravenous drug use and was treated for a skin abscess two months ago. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 108/min. Physical examination reveals a new grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur best heard at the cardiac apex. Transesophageal echocardiography demonstrates a 1.2-cm mobile vegetation on the mitral valve. Three sets of blood cultures obtained on admission grow *Enterococcus faecalis* that is susceptible to ampicillin, vancomycin, gentamicin, and linezolid. The patient is initiated on continuous intravenous ampicillin and every-8-hour intravenous gentamicin. Over the next 48 hours, his clinical symptoms improve and his temperature decreases to 37.9°C (100.2°F). However, laboratory studies show his serum creatinine has increased from 0.8 mg/dL on admission to 2.5 mg/dL, and his urine output has been 350 mL over the past 24 hours. Which of the following is the most appropriate modification to this patient's antimicrobial regimen?
- Discontinue gentamicin and add intravenous ceftriaxoneCevap
- BDiscontinue gentamicin and continue ampicillin monotherapy
- CDiscontinue the current regimen and initiate intravenous vancomycin
- DDiscontinue the current regimen and initiate intravenous linezolid
- EContinue the current regimen and adjust the gentamicin dose based on serum trough levels