A -year-old woman is evaluated on postoperative day following a right total knee arthroplasty for severe osteoarthritis. She reports sudden, severe pain in the right knee that began yesterday and has progressively worsened. The patient has been compliant with prophylactic apixaban and routine postoperative physical therapy. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min, and respirations are /min. Physical examination reveals a right knee that is significantly swollen, erythematous, and warm to the touch. The surgical incision is closed and intact without any frank purulent drainage, but there is marked tenderness over the joint capsule. Passive range of motion is extremely limited due to severe pain. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AInitiation of empirical intravenous vancomycin and cefepime
- BVenous duplex ultrasonography of the right lower extremity
- Arthrocentesis of the right kneeCevap
- DMagnetic resonance imaging of the right knee
- EReassurance and escalation of oral opioid analgesics