A 52-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for a sudden change in his clinical status. He was admitted 12 hours ago with a diagnosis of an acute small bowel obstruction. His medical history includes an open appendectomy complicated by peritonitis 15 years ago. On admission, his vital signs were normal, his abdomen was distended but soft, and he had no signs of peritonitis. He was managed conservatively with intravenous fluids, bowel rest, and nasogastric tube decompression. Over the past hour, his abdominal pain has transitioned from intermittent and crampy to severe, constant, and unremitting. His temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), pulse is 124/min, blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and respirations are 24/min. The patient is diaphoretic and lying perfectly still in bed. Physical examination reveals a markedly distended abdomen with diffuse rigidity, involuntary guarding, and severe rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of 19,000/mm³ with a left shift and a serum lactate level of 4.8 mmol/L (Normal: 0.5–2.2 mmol/L). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyCevap
- BCT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- CContinuation of nasogastric decompression and clinical observation
- DAdministration of oral water-soluble contrast
- EColonoscopy with attempted endoscopic decompression